CR2.txt

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Anonymous
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130075
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CR2.txt
Updated:
2012-01-23 19:55:28
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asa crj 200 expressjet aviation
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Description:
ASA CRJ-200 Oral Study Guide
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  1. LIMITATIONS
    1. What is the maximum allowable weight of the airplane at the gate?
  2. LIMITATIONS
    2. What is the maximum allowable takeoff weight of the airplane?
  3. LIMITATIONS
    3. What is the maximum zero fuel weight of the airplane?
  4. LIMITATIONS
    4. What is the maximum weight for landing?
  5. LIMITATIONS
    5. Are there any circumstances under which it would be acceptable to exceed the maximum structural landing limit?
  6. LIMITATIONS
    6. What is the minimum OAT°C for takeoff?
  7. LIMITATIONS
    7. What is the maximum tailwind allowed for takeoff and landing?
  8. LIMITATIONS
    8. Assuming aircraft weight and OAT allow, what is the maximum altitude the aircraft may be operated?
  9. LIMITATIONS
    9. Your flight must be within 45 minutes of the nearest suitable airport under what conditions?
  10. LIMITATIONS
    10. Assuming the BTMS system is operative, what is the minimum brake cooling time between a landing stop or a rejected takeoff and the subsequent takeoff?
  11. LIMITATIONS
    11. What is the maximum BTMS readout allowed prior to takeoff?
  12. LIMITATIONS
    12. What is the maximum weight allowed in the cargo compartment?
  13. LIMITATIONS
    13. What is the maximum crosswind on a wet runway?
  14. LIMITATIONS
    14. What is the maximum crosswind on a contaminated runway with braking action less than good (MU value ≤ 40)?
  15. LIMITATIONS
    15. What is the maximum crosswind if the Captain has less than 100 hours PIC in type?
  16. LIMITATIONS
    16. What is the maximum speed the landing gear can be lowered?
  17. LIMITATIONS
    17. What is the maximum speed to raise the landing gear?
  18. LIMITATIONS
    18. What is the maximum speed with the landing gear extended?
  19. LIMITATIONS
    19. What is the maximum flaps operating speed (VFO) for flaps 8° 200 KIAS
  20. LIMITATIONS
    20. What is the maximum flaps operating speed (VFO) for flaps 20° 200 KIAS
  21. LIMITATIONS
    21. What is the maximum flaps operating speed (VFO) for flaps 30° 185 KIAS
  22. LIMITATIONS
    22. What is the maximum flaps operating speed (VFO) for flaps 45° 170 KIAS
  23. LIMITATIONS
    23. What is the maximum flaps extended speed (VFE) for flaps 8° 215 KIAS
  24. LIMITATIONS
    24. What is the maximum flaps extended speed (VFE) for flaps 20° 215 KIAS
  25. LIMITATIONS
    25. What is the maximum flaps extended speed (VFE) for flaps 30° 185 KIAS
  26. LIMITATIONS
    26. What is the maximum flaps extended speed (VFE) for flaps 45° 170 KIAS
  27. LIMITATIONS
    27. What action must the Captain ensure is taken under the following conditions? Level cruise flight at FL 350, moderate or greater turbulence is encountered, indicated airspeed is 255 knots, indicated mach of 0.73.
  28. LIMITATIONS
    28. What is the maximum allowable tire speed?
  29. LIMITATIONS
    29. What is maximum indicated airspeed for windshield wiper operation?
  30. LIMITATIONS
    30. Under what circumstances and for how long may 250 KIAS be exceeded with the ADG deployed?
  31. LIMITATIONS
    31. What is the maximum speed for ADG deployment for test flights or pilot training?
  32. LIMITATIONS
    32. What is the maximum cruise speed allowed during flight in RVSM airspace?
  33. LIMITATIONS
    33. What is the maximum MMO?
  34. LIMITATIONS
    34. What is the maximum time the airplane may be stationary with the taxi lights on?
  35. LIMITATIONS
    35. What altitude would have to be set in the MDA window while on an ILS approach with a DA of 212 feet?
  36. LIMITATIONS
    36. Under what circumstances should a pilot disregard a TCAS RA?
  37. LIMITATIONS
    37. May a pilot deviate from an ATC clearance to comply with a TCAS RA?
  38. LIMITATIONS
    38. What is the minimum altitude the autopilot may be turned on after takeoff or go around?
  39. LIMITATIONS
    39. What is the minimum altitude the autopilot may be used on an ILS?
  40. LIMITATIONS
    40. What is the minimum altitude the autopilot may be used while flying a visual approach?
  41. LIMITATIONS
    41. What is the minimum altitude the autopilot may be used while flying a non-precision approach?
  42. LIMITATIONS
    42. By what altitude must the aircraft be configured for landing and on a stable approach during a Category II approach?
  43. LIMITATIONS
    43. May you accept a Category II approach with reports of Braking action fair or poor?
  44. LIMITATIONS
    44. What are the maximum wind components for Category II operations?
  45. LIMITATIONS
    45. In order to takeoff with more than 500 lbs. of fuel in the center tank, how much fuel needs to be in the wing tanks?
  46. LIMITATIONS
    46. What is the minimum fuel quantity in each wing for a go around?
  47. LIMITATIONS
    47. During a minimum fuel go around, what is the pitch limit?
  48. LIMITATIONS
    48. What is the minimum bulk fuel temperature for takeoff?
  49. LIMITATIONS
    49. What is the maximum engine ITT allowed during engine start?
  50. LIMITATIONS
    50. What is the max N2 split (engine to engine) at idle power?
  51. LIMITATIONS
    51. After starting the left engine you note the N2 stable at 60%. What is the acceptable N2 range for the right engine?
  52. LIMITATIONS
    52. During cold weather operation (OAT −20°C or less) what minimum N2 is required to accelerate above idle?
  53. LIMITATIONS
    53. What is the minimum engine oil temperature for starting?
  54. LIMITATIONS
    54. What is maximum permissible oil temperature?
  55. LIMITATIONS
    55. For how long may engine oil temp be above 155° C?
  56. LIMITATIONS
    56. What is the minimum idle oil pressure?
  57. LIMITATIONS
    57. What minimum oil pressure is required for takeoff?
  58. LIMITATIONS
    54. What is the maximum continuous engine oil pressure?
  59. LIMITATIONS
    55. What is the maximum transient oil pressure during a cold engine start?
  60. LIMITATIONS
    56. How long must the engines be running prior to takeoff?
  61. LIMITATIONS
    57. How long must the engines stabilize at idle prior to shutdown?
  62. LIMITATIONS
    58. Does taxi time count towards the stabilization time and if so under what conditions?
  63. LIMITATIONS
    59. For how long must the engine starter cool after the first start attempt?
  64. LIMITATIONS
    60. Are engine start malfunctions corrective actions considered 'memory items'?
  65. LIMITATIONS
    61. After completing the engine start malfunction procedure from memory what should you do next?
  66. LIMITATIONS
    62. Unless the cause for the abnormal start is obvious to the crew and it is determined that another start may be attempted safely, what should the crew do?
  67. LIMITATIONS
    63. What is the 'committed to memory' procedure for Hot Start, Interrupted start, No Light Off, and N2 Stagnation?
  68. LIMITATIONS
    64. What the abnormal engine start malfunctions addressed in the CR2 OM that must be committed to memory?
  69. LIMITATIONS
    65. What should you do after ANY start malfunction prior to another start attempt?
  70. LIMITATIONS
    60. (No longer in guide) For how long must the engine starter cool after the second start attempt?
  71. LIMITATIONS
    61. (No longer in guide) For how long must the engine starter cool after the third start attempt?
  72. LIMITATIONS
    62. (No longer in guide) How long may the starter remain on during a start attempt?
  73. LIMITATIONS
    66. What is the maximum ITT for fuel introduction during ground engine starts?
  74. LIMITATIONS
    67. What is the maximum ITT for fuel introduction during in-flight engine start attempts?
  75. LIMITATIONS
    68. What is the maximum N2 for starter engagement?
  76. LIMITATIONS
    69. What is the maximum starter time allowed for the first dry motor?
  77. LIMITATIONS
    70. How long must the starter cool after a dry motor?
  78. LIMITATIONS
    71. What distinguishes a dry motor from a start attempt?
  79. LIMITATIONS
    72. When must continuous ignition be turned on?
  80. LIMITATIONS
    73. To what minimum speed may max reverse thrust be applied?
  81. LIMITATIONS
    74. At what speed must reverse thrust be reduced to idle?
  82. LIMITATIONS
    75. What is the thrust reverser operation procedure for a normal landing on a dry runway in ATL?
  83. LIMITATIONS
    76. What additional preflight checks are required when the airplane is cold soaked at an ambient temperature of −30° C or colder for more than 8 hours?
  84. LIMITATIONS
    77. What is the minimum temperature for starting a cold soaked APU?
  85. LIMITATIONS
    78. What is the MAX TIME ON for the APU starter on the first start attempt (on battery)?
  86. LIMITATIONS
    79. What is the MAX TIME ON for the APU starter on the first start attempt (using ground power)?
  87. LIMITATIONS
    80. (No longer in guide) How long must the APU starter cool after the first start attempt (on battery)?
  88. LIMITATIONS
    81. (No longer in guide) How long must the APU starter cool after the second start attempt (on battery)?
  89. LIMITATIONS
    80. (Duplicate question) How long may the APU starter remain engaged (on battery)?
  90. LIMITATIONS
    81. What should you do after the first failed attempt to start the APU?
  91. LIMITATIONS
    82. What restriction is placed on bleed loading after APU start?
  92. LIMITATIONS
    83. To what altitude may the APU be used for engine starts?
  93. LIMITATIONS
    84. To what altitude may the APU bleed air supply the PACKS?
  94. LIMITATIONS
    85. How would you know the maximum altitude during single pack operations?
  95. LIMITATIONS
    86. What must be ensured prior to opening any of the airplane doors?
  96. LIMITATIONS
    87. When must the 10th stage bleed valves be closed for takeoff and landing?
  97. LIMITATIONS
    88. What is the time limit for DC power only, during ground operations?
  98. LIMITATIONS
    89. What is the procedure for resetting a circuit breaker in flight?
  99. LIMITATIONS
    90. What is the restriction/limitation on the use of IAS DES submode ?
  100. LIMITATIONS
    91. What limitation is placed on FMS usage as relates to calculated thrust settings?
  101. LIMITATIONS
    92. When should the GRND PROX TERRAIN switch be selected to off?
  102. LIMITATIONS
    93. What is the maximum altitude for flap extension?
  103. LIMITATIONS
    94. To what minimum altitude may the flight spoilers be used?
  104. LIMITATIONS
    95. What is minimum speed for flight spoiler use?
  105. LIMITATIONS
    96. What maximum flap setting is the use of flight spoilers permitted?
  106. LIMITATIONS
    97. When must wing anti-ice be used during ground operations and for takeoff?
  107. LIMITATIONS
    98. When must cowl anti-ice be used during ground operations and for takeoff?
  108. LIMITATIONS
    99. What is the definition of icing conditions in flight?
  109. LIMITATIONS
    100. When must cowl anti-ice be used in flight?
  110. LIMITATIONS
    101. When must wing anti-ice be used in flight?
  111. LIMITATIONS
    102. If you have been deiced with Type II or Type IV fluids, what is the restriction to wing anti-icing?
  112. PRE-FLIGHT
    1. What precaution must be taken prior to removing gear pins?
  113. PRE-FLIGHT
    2. Which items will be checked on the nose gear?
  114. PRE-FLIGHT
    3. What action should be taken if you find the ADG safety pin installed?
  115. PRE-FLIGHT
    4. What precaution should be taken before selecting the nose gear door switch on the External Service Panel from OPEN to FLT/NORM?
  116. PRE-FLIGHT
    5. What should you be checking from the front view of the main landing gear?
  117. PRE-FLIGHT
    6. How many static wicks should be intact on each wing?
  118. PRE-FLIGHT
    7. What should you be checking from the rear view of the main landing gear?
  119. PRE-FLIGHT
    8. When will the brake wear pins require an inspection from maintenance?
  120. PRE-FLIGHT
    9. For what should the anti-ice blow out plug (engine 14th stage pressure relief valve) be checked?
  121. PRE-FLIGHT
    10. For what should the engine jet pipe be checked?
  122. PRE-FLIGHT
    11. Which aircraft doors are monitored by the PSEU and indicated on the EICAS DOORS page?
  123. PRE-FLIGHT
    12. How many emergency exits are in the CRJ?
  124. PRE-FLIGHT
    13. Which aircraft doors have mechanical/visual indicators for door closure?
  125. PRE-FLIGHT
    14. What is the visual indication that the passenger door is closed?
  126. PRE-FLIGHT
    15. In addition to the general inspection of the aircraft for suspicious items, which compartments must be inspected in accordance with the “Exterior Accessible Compartments Security Search” in the FOM?
  127. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    1. Which pilot (PF or PM) completes the flow on a challenge and reply checklist?
  128. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    2. How should a pilot respond when a checklist action has not been completed during a challenge and reply checklist?
  129. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    3. In what order should a checklist flow be completed?
  130. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    4. How should a pilot respond to an “AS REQUIRED” checklist response?
  131. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    5. Explain how a “SILENT” checklist should be accomplished?
  132. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    6. Who is responsible for ensuring pilot currency/legal requirements. The company will endeavor to monitor legal requirements, however it is each pilots responsibility to monitor their own individual requirements and notify Flight Operations if any legal limit or requirement is expected to be exceeded.
  133. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    7. What checklist should be accomplished prior to conducting the preflight inspection?
  134. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    8. When must the Safety Check be completed?
  135. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    9. When must the “Exterior Accessible Compartments Security Search” be completed?
  136. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    10. Is it ever appropriate for the First Officer to complete the Safety Check?
  137. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    11. If the First Officer completes the safety check, does the Captain have to re-accomplish the check?
  138. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    12. What should you do immediately after turning the BATTERY MASTER switch ON during the Safety Check?
  139. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    13. What precaution must be taken prior to turning hydraulic pump 3A on during the Safety check?
  140. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    14. How quickly must AC electrical power be established after the Battery Master switch has been turned on?
  141. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    15. When must a Originating Check be accomplished?
  142. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    16. What precaution must be taken prior to moving the flap lever to the anticipated takeoff flap setting?
  143. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    17. When should the Before Start Check be accomplished?
  144. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    18. When is FMS Status page data verification required?
  145. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    19. When must both pilots verify FMS navigation changes before pressing the EXEC function key?
  146. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    20. What does the “STANDARD” response to ANTI-ICE during the Before Start Check indicate?
  147. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    21. Reference the Before Start Check response to “PAPERS.”... “ABOARD.” What papers must be aboard?
  148. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    22. Under what condition may an engine be started prior to ALL aircraft doors being closed?
  149. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    23. What is HOT fueling?
  150. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    24. Are we authorized to HOT Fuel?
  151. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    25. Where do you find the procedures for HOT fueling?
  152. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    26. Prior to aircraft Pushback from the gate, what items must be complete?
  153. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    27. During pushback who is responsible for communication with the tug operator and ATC/Ramp Control?
  154. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    28. The Engine Start Check assumes an operable APU, to what should the pilot refer for other start methods/procedures?
  155. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    29. What does the “PACKS & BLEEDS.”..“SET FOR START” response during the Engine Start Check indicate?
  156. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    30. Which engine should normally be started first on the first flight of the day?
  157. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    31. Under what conditions must an engine start be aborted and Maintenance notified?
  158. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    32. What is the First Officer’s indication to begin his/her after start flow?
  159. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    33. What precautions should be taken prior to checking the rudder on the after start check in a pushback operation?
  160. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    34. What precaution must be taken prior to turning the nose wheel steering switch on?
  161. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    35. Before clearing the Pushback driver Off Headset, what action should be completed?
  162. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    36. What signal must the Captain receive prior to taxiing the aircraft?
  163. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    37. What is the “All Clear” Signal?
  164. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    38. When should single engine taxi be considered?
  165. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    39. What things should be considered prior to single engine taxi?
  166. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    40. What fuel system considerations must be taken during single engine taxi?
  167. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    41. What should occur before making any steering inputs when starting to taxi?
  168. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    42. Which lights must be ON for all night taxi operations?
  169. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    43. When may the taxi light be turned OFF during night taxi operations?
  170. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    44. When must the taxi light be turned OFF during operations?
  171. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    45. When is it acceptable to use reverse thrust during taxi?
  172. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    46. What procedures must the crew adhere to during low visibility (< 1200 RVR) taxi?
  173. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    47. During single engine taxi, when the Captain is ready for the engine to be started he will call for what check list?
  174. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    48. What must be completed prior to calling for the Before Takeoff Check?
  175. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    49. Which pilot completes the takeoff briefing?
  176. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    50. Briefly explain “CRJ Standard.” Any abnormality before V1, the PM will state the malfunction. The Captain will state “Continue” or “Abort.” If an abort is required, the Captain will carry out the “Rejected Takeoff” procedure. Any abnormality after V1, state the malfunction. The PF will continue to fly the aircraft. Immediate actions as required. Hold all other checklists until reaching a safe altitude.
  177. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    51. How does the Flight Attendant indicate he/she is ready for takeoff?
  178. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    52. Which external lights must the Captain have ON when cleared “position and hold” at night or during low visibility?
  179. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    53. What does the “ALTIMETERS” check on the takeoff check mean?
  180. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    54. The Takeoff Check response “CAS.”..“CHECKED & CLEARED” indicates the First Officer has checked all EICAS messages, checked and cleared the status messages and checked for what green advisory message?
  181. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    55. Once the airplane has been cleared for takeoff and all checklist are complete, what must be accomplished just prior to the takeoff roll?
  182. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    56. Explain the Takeoff Runway Verification procedure
  183. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    57. What is meant by the “FUEL”…”CHECKED” item on the Takeoff check?
  184. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    58. How do you determine what flap setting to use for takeoff?
  185. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    59. When must continuous ignition be used during takeoff?
  186. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    60. How do you determine if a rolling or static takeoff is required?
  187. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    61. Takeoff N1 must be set by what speed?
  188. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    62. The PF should advance power to approximately what ____% N1, before increasing power towards target N1?
  189. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    63. What precaution should be taken to prevent engine surge during takeoff in high crosswind conditions?
  190. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    64. When the First Officer is the PF during takeoff, at what point does he/she place both hands on the yoke?
  191. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    65. If the First Officer is the PF and a takeoff is rejected, which pilot will perform the rejected takeoff?
  192. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    66. When should the PM make the “Positive Rate” call?
  193. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    67. When should an AFCS lateral mode be selected after takeoff?
  194. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    68. What action should the PM take upon hearing “SPEED MODE”?
  195. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    69. At what AGL altitude may the PF call for the autopilot to be turned on after takeoff?
  196. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    70. For flaps 20 takeoff, what is the minimum speed for retracting flaps from 20° to 8°?
  197. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    71. For flaps 8 takeoff, what is the minimum speed for retracting flaps from 8° to 0°?
  198. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    72. To what speed should you accelerate in Class B airspace?
  199. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    73. When should acceleration be limited to 200 KIAS during the takeoff profile?
  200. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    74. When completing the After Takeoff Check, Flaps-Up requires what items to be checked?
  201. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    75. Describe the BLEEDS...Set item during the After Takeoff Check. R and L 10TH SOV - OPEN, 10TH ISOL - CLOSED, and APU LCV - CLOSED. Otherwise, state the switch configuration.
  202. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    76. APU...AS REQUIRED requires what 2 possible conditions during the After Takeoff Check. SHUTDOWN or OPERATING.
  203. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    77. Is the APU left running during normal operations?
  204. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    78. Describe the normal climb profile. 250 KIAS to 10,000 feet, then 290 KIAS until reaching 0.74 mach.
  205. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    79. Under what circumstances is it acceptable to deviate from the normal climb profile?
  206. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    80. What signals the Flight Attendant that the critical phase of flight has ended?
  207. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    81. Which pilot calls for the Climb Check?
  208. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    82. Except during an emergency or abnormal condition is it ever appropriate to set power higher than the FMS or QRH cruise setting?
  209. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    83. Under normal conditions is it acceptable to exceed the flight plan cruise speed?
  210. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    84. What action should be taken if the planned cruise speed cannot be maintained without exceeding the maximum cruise thrust?
  211. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    85. What are the equipment requirements for operation in RVSM airspace?
  212. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    86. In preparation for entering RVSM airspace, what actions should the crew take prior to and after entry?
  213. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    87. When should landing data be set and the approach briefing be completed if feasible?
  214. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    88. When should the Descent and Approach Check to the line be completed?
  215. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    89. What portions of the Descent and Approach checklist should be completed in cruise flight whenever possible?
  216. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    90. For what should the PF request before the approach briefing begins?
  217. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    91. Which airspeed reference pointers are set for landing?
  218. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    92. If given holding instructions, when should speed reduction be initiated?
  219. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    93. What is the appropriate indicated speed for holding at 13,000 feet?
  220. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    94. What is the appropriate indicated speed for holding at FL 180?
  221. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    95. What is the correct terminology for transfer of controls for the approach brief?
  222. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    96. Which pilot should select the approach in the FMS?
  223. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    97. What is the “APU AND BLEEDS....Set” configuration for the Descent and Approach Check, below the line?
  224. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    98. What signals the Flight Attendant of sterile cockpit during descent?
  225. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    99. Should the landing lights be turned ON during the Descent and Approach Check?
  226. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    100. Below what altitude must the PF command FMS entries and avoid making them himself?
  227. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    101. What is the nav source for an ILS approach?
  228. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    102. What is the VREF factor with winds of 27010G25?
  229. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    103. When should Green Needles be selected before an ILS approach?
  230. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    104. What is the nav source selection for LOC,LOC DME,LOC BC and LDA DME approaches?
  231. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    105. What is the nav source selection for a VOR approach?
  232. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    106. Which type of approach is flown with white needles and requires bearing pointers to be displayed?
  233. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    107. By what AGL altitude must the airplane be stabilized at approach speed on an ILS approach?
  234. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    108. To what altitude may the autopilot be used on a CAT II approach?
  235. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    109. You arrive at your destination and find that the control tower has closed. May we conduct a Category II approach?
  236. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    110. You arrive at your destination and the braking action is reported FAIR. Can you conduct a Category II approach?
  237. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    111. The maximum wind components for Category II operations are?
  238. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    112. Decision height for Category II approaches is determined by?
  239. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    113. ILS approach procedures may be divided into two categories which are?
  240. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    114. What are monitored approach procedures and when are they required?
  241. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    115. Explain the unmonitored approach procedure. The PF (Captain or First Officer) is responsible for control of the aircraft flight path and subsequent landing/missed approach. The aircraft may be controlled manually or with the aid of the flight director and/or autopilot.
  242. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    116. When shall monitored approach procedures be used?
  243. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    117. Which pilot accomplishes the approach brief for a monitored approach?
  244. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    118. Who is the PF on a monitored approach?
  245. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    119. When must the autopilot be used during a monitored approach?
  246. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    120. On a monitored approach, who is the PF below DH?
  247. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    121. On a monitored approach, which pilot will be PF in the event of a rejected landing?
  248. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    122. On a monitored approach, describe the duties of the Captain upon completion of the landing check below the line. The Captain will ensure the missed approach altitude is set in the Altitude Alerter and the Heading Bug is set to the initial missed approach direction. 1,000 feet above TDZE, the Captain will cross check all three (3) altimeters and navigation instruments and call “ALTIMETERS AND INSTRUMENTS CROSS CHECKED.” At this point the Captain will transition to begin looking for visual references.
  249. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    123. Describe the duties of the First Officer at 500’ above TDZE on a monitored approach. 500 feet above TDZE the First Officer will check for flight instrument and navigation warning flags, verify landing gear is down and locked, ensure the flight spoilers are retracted, ensure landing clearance has been received, and call “NO FLAGS, GEAR CHECKED DOWN, CLEARED TO LAND.” 200 and 100 feet above DH the First Officer will call “200 FEET ABOVE MINIMUMS” and “100 FEET ABOVE MINIMUMS.”
  250. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    124. Explain the duties and callouts of the Captain and FO at DH on a monitored approach. Prior to or by DH, the Captain will call “VISUAL” if external visual references are sufficient, or make no callout if external visual references are insufficient. If the Captain announces “VISUAL”, the Captain will select AP off at or above 80’ and continue to a landing or go-around if external visual references should subsequently become insufficient. The First Officer will continue to monitor flight instruments and announce “AUTOPILOT” at 80’ for CAT II or at 50’ below DA for CAT I. If the Captain makes no callout, the First Officer will simultaneously advance the Thrust Levers towards TOGA, press the TOGA switch, call “SET GO AROUND POWER, SPOILERS IN” and rotate into the command bars. When at or above VREF (bottom of the speed bucket), the PF will call “FLAPS 8.” The Captain will ensure thrust levers are in the TOGA detent and ensure the First Officer rotates to 8 degrees nose up (into the command bars), select Flaps 8 and ensure the Flight Spoilers are retracted.
  251. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    125. What is the correct response to hearing “AIRSPEED” during a monitored approach when below 1000 feet?
  252. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    126. What is the correct response to hearing “PITCH” during a monitored approach when below 1000 feet?
  253. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    127. What is the correct response to hearing “BANK” during a monitored approach when below 1000 feet?
  254. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    128. What is the correct response to hearing “EXCESS DEVIATION” during a monitored approach when below 1000 feet?
  255. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    129. What is the correct response to hearing “AUTO PILOT ERROR” during a monitored approach when below 1000 feet?
  256. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    130. What standard callout should the PM make at the first positive motion of the localizer bar?
  257. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    131. What standard callout should the PM make when the localizer captures on the FMA?
  258. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    132. When should flaps be selected to 20° during an ILS approach?
  259. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    133. When should flaps be selected to 30° during an ILS approach?
  260. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    134. When should flaps be selected to 45° during an ILS approach?
  261. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    135. By what AGL altitude must the airplane be stabilized at approach speed on an ILS approach?
  262. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    136. What is the goal of a Constant Rate Non-Precision Approach?
  263. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    137. How is the descent rate calculated for a CANPA approach?
  264. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    138. When conducting CANPA, what precautions apply to approaches with a step down fix?
  265. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    139. When should flaps be selected to 20° during a non-precision approach profile?
  266. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    140. When should flaps be selected to 30° during a non-precision approach profile?
  267. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    141. When should flaps be selected to 45° during a non-precision approach profile?
  268. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    142. What standard callout should the PM make at 1000 feet AGL on approach?
  269. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    143. What call out should the PM make at the final approach fix, during a non-precision approach profile?
  270. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    144. At what point during a non-precision approach should the missed approach altitude be set in the altitude selector?
  271. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    145. What Profile Deviation callout should the PM make for an ILS deviation?
  272. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    146. What Profile Deviation callout should the PM make for a VOR approach deviation?
  273. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    147. What Profile Deviation callout should the PM make for a NDB approach deviation?
  274. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    148. What Profile Deviation callout should the PM make when below 1000 feet AGL and the airspeed is 3 knots below target?
  275. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    149. How is an LDA with glide slope approach profile flown?
  276. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    150. In what configuration should you enter the traffic pattern for a visual approach?
  277. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    151. When glidepath information is not available on a visual approach, what must the pilot do?
  278. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    152. What weather minimums are required to initiate a circling approach?
  279. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    153. What are the differences between the circle to land profile and the normal approach profile. Maintain flaps 30° VREF + 10 (maneuvering speed) until on final approach and in a position from which a normal descent to landing can be commenced.
  280. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    154. During the circle to land profile what altitude should be set in the MDA window?
  281. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    155. During the circle to land profile what altitude should be set in the altitude alerter?
  282. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    156. What altitude should be referenced, when making the 100/200 feet to minimums calls during the circle to land profile?
  283. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    157. Which Landing Check item requires a response from the PF?
  284. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    158. At what speed can the First Officer expect the Captain to take the controls during the landing rollout?
  285. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    159. If the First Officer is PF what call does the Captain make when at approximately 60 knots?
  286. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    160. At what point should the Captain call for the After Landing Checklist?
  287. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    161. What type of checklist is the After Landing Checklist?
  288. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    162. Where is the Single Engine Turn checklist found?
  289. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    163. What precaution must be taken prior to selecting the thrust levers to shut off?
  290. NORMAL PROCEDURES AND PROFILES
    164. When is the Fuel Check Valve Check required to be performed?
  291. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
  292. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    1. Who is responsible for aircraft flight planning?
  293. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    2. Is a dispatch release required for a maintenance ferry flight?
  294. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    3. What is the time limitation for an originating dispatch release?
  295. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    4. When are you required to have either a new or an amended dispatch release?
  296. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    5. The PIC is responsible for ensuring compliance with the FOM. How does the PIC perform a dispatch release check?
  297. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    6. When is the PIC required to notify the Dispatcher about a change from the planned?
  298. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    7. What determines if a destination alternate is required?
  299. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    8. How are alternate airport weather minimums determined?
  300. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    9. When is a takeoff alternate required?
  301. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    10. List the minimum Fuel Requirements for a Domestic Dispatch Release (items, not pounds.)
  302. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    11. What is not listed in the fuel planning requirements?
  303. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    12. If you have a release with two destination alternates, how much fuel must be on board?
  304. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    13. How is reserve fuel planned?
  305. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    14. What is the acceptable fueling overage above ramp fuel?
  306. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    15. What performance guarantees does the MFPTW provide?
  307. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    16. What does the PMRTW take into account?
  308. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    17. What is your source for temperature while on the ground?
  309. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    18. Can the indicated SAT or TAT be used for takeoff data?
  310. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    19. What information is contained in the Header of the TLR?
  311. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    20. What are the V-Speeds listed in the Planned Line?
  312. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    21. When is Reduced Thrust used for takeoffs?
  313. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    22. What is the PTOW PLUS 1000 section used for in the TLR?
  314. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    23. What if the actual takeoff weight exceeds PTOW PLUS 1000?
  315. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    24. What is the minimum Reduced thrust value?
  316. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    25. Can reduced thrust be used for takeoff on a Wet Runway?
  317. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    26. How do you know that the performance adjustment for a MEL/CDL item has been accounted for in the TLR?
  318. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    27. According to the OM, what is the definition of a “wet” runway?
  319. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    28. When is a runway considered to be contaminated?
  320. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    29. Before entering the takeoff fuel load into the SEE GEE Calculator, what index(s) must be checked?
  321. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    30. Checking the ZFW + 4,000 on the SEE GEE Calculator ensures what criteria?
  322. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    31. Under what circumstances would you have to use the Maximum Permissible Quick Turn Land Weight chart?
  323. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    32. At what visibility does ASA consider Low Visibility Taxi in effect?
  324. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    33. During Low Visibility Taxi, what special procedures need to be followed?
  325. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    34. Are SMGCS charts available for all airports?
  326. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    35. How is the runway Hold Short line depicted on the taxiway?
  327. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    36. How is a runway displaced threshold marked?
  328. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    37. Should it become necessary to depart VFR (unable to communicate with ATC) where are the references and direction found?
  329. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    38. According to our approved deicing/anti-icing program, when does a “pre-takeoff check” have to be performed?
  330. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    39. When is it required that a “Holdover” time be established?
  331. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    40. A Holdover time has been established and a takeoff clearance is subsequently delayed until after the holdover time will expire. Can you depart without additional deicing?
  332. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    41. How is the Pre-takeoff Contamination Check conducted on the CRJ?
  333. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    42. What is the “representative surface” to be checked on the Pre-takeoff Check?
  334. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    43. What is bank angle limited to if you are below approach maneuvering speed?
  335. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    44. Unless otherwise directed, turns during takeoff are considered to begin where ?
  336. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    45. What does maneuvering speed ensure?
  337. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    46. Describe the AeroData ‘Standard Engine Takeoff Path Procedure’
  338. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    47. What is “transition altitude”?
  339. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    48. Is the PMRLW considered in the MFPTW? Yes. The planned maximum landing weight (PMRLW) for the runway and approach climb is considered when generating the MFPTW in the takeoff data section. Generally, crews are only responsible for checking the overall validity of the landing data. Obviously, if the airport is wrong, the planned runway is out of service, or an MEL/CDL item is not accounted for, then a new report must be generated.
  340. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    49. How do you know what contaminant the Dispatcher used in planning?
  341. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    50. If any of the header information is incorrect what should you do?
  342. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    51. You are cruising at FL 310 at .74 mach, ISA + 10 at a weight of 46,000 pounds. ATC asks if you can accept FL 350. Can you?
  343. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    52. To use the Planned Takeoff Data, what are the limits for the PQNH?
  344. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    53. How do you determine if Dispatch has programmed a Step Climb along your route of Flight?
  345. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    54. If the actual OAT is higher than the POAT can you use the Contaminated Data?
  346. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    55. How is the ‘relief’ or adjustment for airport elevation of 2000’ PA and below with temperature of 0ºC to 5ºC applied?
  347. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    56. How does the Simple Special Procedure differ from the Standard Procedure?
  348. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    57. When are Simple Special Procedures mandatory? Simple-Special Procedures are mandatory in IMC. They are also mandatory in VMC until reaching 1,000' AFE. The turn to the NAVAID or heading is to be made at the highest bank angle appropriate for aircraft speed. In IMC, if radar vectors are not available, comply with the special procedure until 3,000’ AFE.
  349. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    58. When on a Simple Special Procedure, in IMC and radar vectors are not available, you must comply with the procedure to what altitude? At 3,000’ AFE, the airplane is now in a position to continue climbing on the heading or in the holding pattern to a minimum safe altitude. The crew is responsible during pre-flight planning to determine this minimum safe altitude based upon continuing enroute or returning to the departure airport.
  350. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    59. Where do you find the Simple Special Procedure?
  351. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    60. What is the standard engine out speed for the CRJ?
  352. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    61. When are Complex Special Procedures issued? The Complex-Special Procedure is issued when an engine failure procedure is too complex to fit in the Simple-Special table and/or other considerations must be taken into account. FRA remains at 1,000' AFE unless otherwise specified in the procedure. Often, all-engine procedures are also specified in order to ensure that the aircraft will remain in the obstacle protected area until reaching a safe engine failure altitude. Ref: CR2 OM Vol 1, 6-1.13
  353. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    62. Are Complex Special Procedures ever designed for a published instrument departure procedure? If so, where are they found? Complex-Special Procedures may be specifically designed for a published instrument departure procedure. In these cases, the name of the applicable instrument departure procedure will be indicated on the Complex-Special and the Complex-Special is only valid for the instrument departure procedure specified. Complex- Special Procedures are mandatory under IMC and VMC. These procedures can be found in the 10-10 pages for the specified airport.
  354. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    63. If the actual temperature is warmer than POAT what must you do?
  355. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    64. Explain the theory and usage of “Constant Mach” power settings. The theory of a constant MACH cruise is that as fuel is burned and weight decreases, power is reduced, decreasing fuel consumption as the flight progresses.
  356. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    65. Your computerized flight plan does not show a Mach cruise number and you are filed at FL 180. What is your target cruise airspeed?
  357. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    66. What is a “shock wave”?
  358. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    67. What causes the phenomena referred to as “Mach tuck”?
  359. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    68. What does a load factor of 1.3 G before buffet onset mean?
  360. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    69. What is “Coffin Corner”?
  361. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    70. How does the CRJ Super-Critical wing delay the onset of Mach Buffet?
  362. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    71. When would you use the Drift Down speeds listed on the V Speed Card?
  363. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    72. What does “increase the actual landing distance by a factor of 1.25%” mean?
  364. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    73. Pilot controlled airport lighting is activated how?
  365. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    74. In the event the PF does not hear “Spoilers Green” after landing, what should the PF do?
  366. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    75. Explain the red runway centerline lights. Beginning with the last 3,000 ft. of the runway, the red lights are alternated with white lights for 2,000ft., then solid red for the last 1,000ft. of runway, indicating you are approaching the end of the landing runway.
  367. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    76. Enroute you have had a system malfunction, the QRH procedure is completed and you must land at the nearest suitable airport. How are you going to accomplish this?
  368. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    77. Departing ROA, the Tower clears you for takeoff, with instructions to “Fly Runway Heading.” An engine fails during rotation, what heading will you fly?
  369. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    78. Describe how to determine a Planned Descent Point without an FMS Altitude to lose x 3 = Distance
  370. FLIGHT PLANNING and PERFORMANCE
    79. When should a crewmember complete a Reportable Incident Form (RIF)?
  371. INTERIOR AND EXTERIOR INSPECTION
    1. What is the APU exhaust danger area?
  372. INTERIOR AND EXTERIOR INSPECTION
    2. How many PBEs are required for dispatch?
  373. INTERIOR AND EXTERIOR INSPECTION
    3. How are the cockpit Circuit Breaker panels numbered?
  374. INTERIOR AND EXTERIOR INSPECTION
    4. What test requires coordination between the Flight Attendant and Cockpit Crew during the interior inspection?
  375. SIDE PANELS
    1. What precaution must be taken before turning the NWS switch ON during the After Start Checklist?
  376. SIDE PANELS
    2. If one of the STALL PTCT PUSHER switches is selected OFF will the stall pusher be operational?
  377. SIDE PANELS
    3. How can the stick pusher be stopped?
  378. SIDE PANELS
    4. May you depart with one of the STALL PTCT PUSHER switches off?
  379. SIDE PANELS
    5. Can cross side NAV data be displayed on the PFD and MFD?
  380. SIDE PANELS
    6. How is TCAS information displayed on the MFD?
  381. SIDE PANELS
    7. How is EGPWS terrain information displayed on the MFD?
  382. SIDE PANELS
    8. How is the EGPWS display removed from the MFD?
  383. SIDE PANELS
    9. When the RA TEST button is pressed what should the radar altitude read?
  384. SIDE PANELS
    10. What is the function of the EICAS position on the Display Reversionary Panel?
  385. SIDE PANELS
    11. What does the response “Tested and Set” in reference to Side Panel... on the Originating Check indicate?
  386. SIDE PANELS
    12. When are you required to complete the Originating Check?
  387. SIDE PANELS
    13. To what figure should the MDA be set with a DA of 512 feet on a precision approach?
  388. ELECTRICS
    1. What are the primary sources of AC power?
  389. ELECTRICS
    2. What is the normal source of DC power?
  390. ELECTRICS
    3. How many batteries are installed and where are they located?
  391. ELECTRICS
    4. What are the individual components that make up an IDG (integrated drive generator)?
  392. ELECTRICS
    5. Under what conditions should an IDG automatically disconnect from the engine?
  393. ELECTRICS
    6. Under what conditions will a GCU remove itself from the bus system?
  394. ELECTRICS
    7. How can an IDG be manually disconnected from its engine?
  395. ELECTRICS
    8. Once disconnected, can the IDG be reconnected in flight?
  396. ELECTRICS
    9. What does a green AVAIL light illuminated on the AC External switchlight indicate?
  397. ELECTRICS
    10. What is the function of the AC ESS XFER switchlight?
  398. ELECTRICS
    11. When will power to the AC Essential Bus automatically switch from AC Bus 1 to AC Bus 2?
  399. ELECTRICS
    12. Is it normal for the AC Essential Bus switch/light to be illuminated while on battery power only, such as when at the gate prior to APU start?
  400. ELECTRICS
    13. In the above scenario (Question 12...Is it normal for the AC Essential Bus switch/light to be illuminated while on battery power only) is the AC Essential Bus being powered?
  401. ELECTRICS
    14. What does the FAIL light illuminated in an AUTO XFER switchlight along with the amber EICAS message AUTO XFER FAIL indicate?
  402. ELECTRICS
    15. What is power source priority for AC Bus 1, AC Bus 2?
  403. ELECTRICS
    16. How can AUTO XFER be manually inhibited?
  404. ELECTRICS
    17. Which DC BUS TIE will not operate automatically?
  405. ELECTRICS
    18. What does a white closed light illuminated on the DC BUS TIE 1 or 2 switchlights indicate?
  406. ELECTRICS
    19. What is the ASA policy on crewmembers resetting cockpit electrical Circuit Breakers in flight?
  407. ELECTRICS
    20. What is the function of the DC SERVICE switch?
  408. ELECTRICS
    21. If AC external power is to be utilized, explain how AC power is properly established?
  409. FIRE PROTECTION PANEL
    1. What areas are monitored by the fire and overheat protection system?
  410. FIRE PROTECTION PANEL
    2. What are the benefits of the dual detection loop system?
  411. FIRE PROTECTION PANEL
    3. How many Firex bottles are provided for engine fire extinguishing?
  412. FIRE PROTECTION PANEL
    4. How many Firex bottles are provided for APU fire extinguishing?
  413. FIRE PROTECTION PANEL
    5. When will APU fire extinguishing activate automatically?
  414. FIRE PROTECTION PANEL
    6. What does the WARN position of the TEST toggle switch simulate?
  415. FIRE PROTECTION PANEL
    7. What does the FAIL position of the TEST toggle switch simulate?
  416. FIRE PROTECTION PANEL
    8. What are the aural and visual indications of a successful APU Fire Warning test prior to APU start?
  417. FIRE PROTECTION PANEL
    9. What are the aural and visual indications of a successful Fire protection test during the Originating Check?
  418. FUEL PANEL
    1. What powers the fuel system ejector pumps (transfer, scavenge, main)?
  419. FUEL PANEL
    2. What does selecting both of the fuel boost pump switch lights on cause?
  420. FUEL PANEL
    3. How can fuel be manually transferred from the left wing tank to the right wing tank?
  421. FUEL PANEL
    4. When is automatic fuel transfer initiated (wing tank to wing tank)?
  422. FUEL PANEL
    5. How is fuel heated?
  423. FUEL PANEL
    6. In flight, if low pressure is detected in the left engine feed line, which boost pump ON light will illuminate?
  424. FUEL PANEL
    7. On the ground, if low pressure is detected in the left engine feed line, which boost pump ON light will illuminate?
  425. FUEL PANEL
    8. How is fuel transferred from the center tank to the wing tanks?
  426. FUEL PANEL
    9. Why are both fuel boost pumps selected off for single engine taxi?
  427. FUEL PANEL
    10. An Amber FUEL IMBALANCE caution message is displayed when?
  428. FUEL PANEL
    11. Where is engine fuel feed temperature displayed?
  429. FUEL PANEL
    12. Where is bulk fuel temperature displayed?
  430. FUEL PANEL
    13. Can fuel be transferred from the center tank to the wing tanks with the engines shut down?
  431. FUEL PANEL
    14. Are the fuel check valves that are checked during the first flight of the day checks depicted on the FUEL synoptic page?
  432. BLEED AIR PANEL
    1. What does 10th stage bleed air supply?
  433. BLEED AIR PANEL
    2. What does 14th stage bleed air supply?
  434. BLEED AIR PANEL
    3. Describe the function of the TEST position of the DUCT MONITOR SELECTOR switch?
  435. BLEED AIR PANEL
    4. Describe the function of the LOOP A/B positions?
  436. BLEED AIR PANEL
    5. What does a red DUCT FAIL in the 10th or 14th stage switchlight indicate?
  437. BLEED AIR PANEL
    6. What does the amber FAIL light in the LCV switchlight indicate?
  438. BLEED AIR PANEL
    7. Will the APU LCV open when the left 10th stage bleed switchlight is OPEN?
  439. BLEED AIR PANEL
    8. Will the APU LCV open if the right 10th stage bleed switchlight is pressed OPEN with the ISOL valve CLOSED?
  440. BLEED AIR PANEL
    9. What prevents backflow of high pressure bleed air from the manifold?
  441. AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
    1. What is the primary function of the APU?
  442. AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
    2. What is the secondary function of the APU?
  443. AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
    3. What DC voltage is required to start the APU from battery power?
  444. AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
    4. How is the APU fuel feed SOV opened?
  445. AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
    5. Under what conditions will the APU SOV close automatically?
  446. AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
    6. What does the amber PUMP FAIL light illuminating in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicate?
  447. AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
    7. What does the amber SOV FAIL light illuminating in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicate?
  448. AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
    8. What does the white START light illuminating in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicate?
  449. AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
    9. What does the green AVAIL light illuminating in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicate?
  450. AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
    10. What indications are you looking for when the START/STOP switch is pressed for APU start?
  451. AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
    11. What 4 indications are you looking for when the APU PWR FUEL switch is pushed?
  452. AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
    12. During APU start at what RPM should the white Status APU START and the START light in the START/STOP switch/light go out?
  453. AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
    13. What does amber - - - to the right of the APU DOOR status indicate (on the Status page)?
  454. AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
    14. If the APU is being used for air conditioning what are the proper bleed switch positions?
  455. AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
    15. When transferring the bleed source from the APU to the engines after takeoff, what is the correct switch sequence?
  456. AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
    16. During approach when transferring the bleed source from the engines to the APU, what is the correct switch sequence?
  457. START/IGNITION PANEL
    1. What is controlled by the START and STOP switchlights on the START/IGNITION panel?
  458. START/IGNITION PANEL
    2. Is AC electrical power required for engine starting?
  459. START/IGNITION PANEL
    3. When starting with DC power only, which engine is started first?
  460. START/IGNITION PANEL
    4. Above what RPM may the starter not be engaged?
  461. START/IGNITION PANEL
    5. Under what conditions will both ignition systems be activated regardless of switch position?
  462. HYDRAULIC PANEL
    1. How are the primary flight controls actuated?
  463. HYDRAULIC PANEL
    2. The rudder system is powered by which hydraulic system?
  464. HYDRAULIC PANEL
    3. How many hydraulic systems are on the CRJ?
  465. HYDRAULIC PANEL
    4. Which of the hydraulic systems have engine driven pumps as well as electric pumps?
  466. HYDRAULIC PANEL
    5. What does the AUTO position on the HYD 1, 2 and 3B do?
  467. HYDRAULIC PANEL
    6. Do the B pumps activate automatically after an engine failure?
  468. HYDRAULIC PANEL
    7. What happens to ACMP 2B if the left engine fails?
  469. HYDRAULIC PANEL
    8. Which ACMP runs continuously during normal operations?
  470. HYDRAULIC PANEL
    9. How is hydraulic system fluid cooled?
  471. HYDRAULIC PANEL
    10. With both IDGs operating and pumps 1B and 2B selected to the AUTO position, when will the pumps operate?
  472. HYDRAULIC PANEL
    11. Which hydraulic pump automatically operates from the ADG Bus during ADG deployment?
  473. HYDRAULIC PANEL
    12. How does the crew know there is adequate hydraulic fluid quantity?
  474. HYDRAULIC PANEL
    13. What is the Normal/usual Hydraulic quantities?
  475. HYDRAULIC PANEL
    14. If the left engine fails or is shutdown, which hydraulic pumps will be unavailable?
  476. HYDRAULIC PANEL
    15. Can the APU generator power hydraulic pump 1B and/or pump 2B?
  477. HYDRAULIC PANEL
    16. Does the associated electric hydraulic ‘B’ pump automatically activate during or after an engine failure?
  478. ELT
    1. What does the EICAS caution message “ELT ON” mean?
  479. ELT
    2. What is the correct position for the ELT switch?
  480. PASSENGER OXYGEN
    1. When will passenger oxygen automatically deploy?
  481. PASSENGER OXYGEN
    2. How is oxygen supplied to the passengers?
  482. PASSENGER OXYGEN
    3. At what cabin altitude does the amber CABIN ALT caution activate?
  483. PASSENGER OXYGEN
    4. At what cabin altitude does the red CABIN ALT warning activate?
  484. PASSENGER OXYGEN
    5. At what cabin altitude do the oxygen masks auto deploy?
  485. PRESSURIZATION PANEL
    1. How is cabin pressurization maintained?
  486. PRESSURIZATION PANEL
    2. What does the LDG ELEV knob on the pressurization control panel do?
  487. PRESSURIZATION PANEL
    3. What happens when EMER DEPR switchlight is pressed in (on)?
  488. PRESSURIZATION PANEL
    4. What does pressing the PRESS CONTROL switchlight twice do?
  489. PRESSURIZATION PANEL
    5. Flying at FL 200, the EMER DEPRESS switch/light is pressed, what pressure altitude should the cabin reach?
  490. PRESSURIZATION PANEL
    6. Where is the unpressurized takeoff procedure found?
  491. PRESSURIZATION PANEL
    7. Where is the unpressurized landing procedure found?
  492. PRESSURIZATION PANEL
    8. When might you be required to perform an unpressurized takeoff?
  493. PRESSURIZATION PANEL
    9. Under what conditions might you have to perform an unpressurized landing?
  494. PRESSURIZATION PANEL
    10. What is the maximum cabin pressure differential for opening the cabin door at the gate?
  495. AIR CONDITIONING PANEL
    1. What does the FAN position of the CARGO switch provide?
  496. AIR CONDITIONING PANEL
    2. What does the COND AIR position of the CARGO switch provide?
  497. AIR CONDITIONING PANEL
    3. When is COND AIR required to be used in the CARGO compartment?
  498. AIR CONDITIONING PANEL
    4. Why does the “CARGO OVERHEAT” abnormal procedure have you select the Fan position?
  499. AIR CONDITIONING PANEL
    5. When would the Ram Air switch be used?
  500. AIR CONDITIONING PANEL
    6. What happens to the pack during a “PACK HI PRESS” condition?
  501. AIR CONDITIONING PANEL
    7. What happens to the pack during a “PACK HI TEMP” condition?
  502. AIR CONDITIONING PANEL
    8. How are the pack heat exchangers cooled?
  503. ANTI-ICE PANEL
    1. What is the bleed air source for the wing and cowl anti-ice?
  504. ANTI-ICE PANEL
    2. With the APU deferred what procedures need to be used when operating in icing conditions?
  505. ANTI-ICE PANEL
    3. What is the difference between the Wing Anti-Ice switch NORM and STBY positions?
  506. ANTI-ICE PANEL
    4. What does the red OVHT light in the wing OVHT/DUCT FAIL indicate?
  507. ANTI-ICE PANEL
    5. What is the function of the WING OVERHEAT/DUCT FAILURE switch/light?
  508. MISCELLANEOUS LIGHTS PANEL
    1. What besides the beacon is turned on with the Beacon switch while on the ground?
  509. MISCELLANEOUS LIGHTS PANEL
    2. Where are the Recog/Taxi lights located?
  510. MISCELLANEOUS LIGHTS PANEL
    3. Which external lights must be on for all night taxi operations?
  511. MISCELLANEOUS LIGHTS PANEL
    4. Why is the Cockpit Dome light turned off on the Shut Down Check?
  512. EMERGENCY LIGHTS
    1. With the Emergency Lights switch in the ARM position, when would the Emergency lights activate?
  513. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    1. What functions do the LH/RH ENG FIRE PUSH switchlights perform when pressed in?
  514. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    2. Pushing the APU Fire PUSH switch, on the glareshield, performs what functions?
  515. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    3. What stall warnings are provided to warn the pilot of approaching stall?
  516. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    4. How is the stall warning system tested?
  517. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    5. What happens when the angle of attack is increased beyond normal limits?
  518. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    6. What aural messages should be heard during the EGPWS test?
  519. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    7. How is a Windshear Alert provided to the flight crew?
  520. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    8. How is a Windshear Warning provided to the flight crew?
  521. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    9. Is Windshear escape guidance provided?
  522. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    10. Is the proper Pilot reaction to Windshear alerts to follow the Flight Director Command Bars or to follow the AMI indicators?
  523. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    11. What is the purpose of the ROLL SEL switchlight on the glareshield panel?
  524. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    12. During a jammed aileron condition what does the amber ROLL SEL light in the ROLL SEL switch come on to indicate?
  525. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    13. Does the ROLL SEL switch have to be selected for the operable aileron circuit after an aileron PCU runaway?
  526. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    14. What guidance does the Flight Director provide in Takeoff mode?
  527. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    15. When is SPEED mode selected on takeoff?
  528. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    16. When should APPR mode be selected when being vectored for an ILS approach?
  529. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    17. How can you center the Heading Bug on the FCP?
  530. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    18. Pushing the button on the FCP SPD knob performs what function?
  531. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    19. Pushing the button in the FCP CRS knob performs what function?
  532. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    20. What is the function of the B/C button on the FCP?
  533. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    21. Selecting APPR mode enables what?
  534. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    22. What is the function of the XFR switch?
  535. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    23. What is the primary means to turn OFF the Autopilot?
  536. GLARESHIELD PANEL
    24. What are the manual methods used to turn OFF the Autopilot?
  537. LEFT AND RIGHT INSTRUMENT PANELS
    1. What does the Airspeed Trend Vector indicate?
  538. LEFT AND RIGHT INSTRUMENT PANELS
    2. How is the stall speed displayed to the pilots?
  539. LEFT AND RIGHT INSTRUMENT PANELS
    3. If the pilot’s PFD CRT fails, how can the PFD be displayed on the MFD?
  540. EICAS AND STANDBY INSTRUMENTS
    1. In the event the Primary EICAS CRT (ED1) fails how is the information then displayed?
  541. EICAS AND STANDBY INSTRUMENTS
    2. How can the information normally displayed on ED2 be seen?
  542. EICAS AND STANDBY INSTRUMENTS
    3. What is unique about valve positions displayed on the A/ICE synoptic page?
  543. EICAS AND STANDBY INSTRUMENTS
    3. (No longer in Guide) After the loss of ED1 and the selection of EICAS on the Display Reversionary Panel, what may be done to reactivate the ECP?
  544. EICAS AND STANDBY INSTRUMENTS
    4. What does the aural warning “CONFIG TRIM” indicate on takeoff?
  545. EICAS AND STANDBY INSTRUMENTS
    5. What are the four levels of CAS messages?
  546. EICAS AND STANDBY INSTRUMENTS
    6. What happens and what can be done if ED1 fails?
  547. EICAS AND STANDBY INSTRUMENTS
    7. How are CAS Warnings indicated?
  548. EICAS AND STANDBY INSTRUMENTS
    8. Pushing the PRI Pushbutton on the EICAS Control Panel (ECP), performs what function?
  549. EICAS AND STANDBY INSTRUMENTS
    9. Pushing the CAS Pushbutton on the EICAS Control Panel (ECP), performs what function?
  550. UPPER PEDESTAL
    1. What is used to lower the landing gear if there is a failure in the gear control circuitry or HYD system 3?
  551. UPPER PEDESTAL
    2. Can the landing gear warning horn be muted?
  552. UPPER PEDESTAL
    3. How do you perform an Anti-Skid test?
  553. UPPER PEDESTAL
    4. At what brake temperature readout do the units turn white?
  554. UPPER PEDESTAL
    5. At what brake temperature readout do the units turn red?
  555. UPPER PEDESTAL
    6. Upon entering the cockpit you notice a BTMS indication of 1, but the boxes are red. What action do you take?
  556. THRUST LEVER QUADRANT
    1. What is the difference between a Huffer and a bottle, used for air starting?
  557. THRUST LEVER QUADRANT
    2. Can you operate the air conditioning from a bottle?
  558. THRUST LEVER QUADRANT
    3. What is a Crossbleed start?
  559. THRUST LEVER QUADRANT
    4. What are the necessary precautions when performing a Cross Bleed Start?
  560. THRUST LEVER QUADRANT
    5. What is the indication the starter has cutout?
  561. THRUST LEVER QUADRANT
    6. You aborted the engine start because you noticed a rapidly rising ITT. Must maintenance be notified?
  562. THRUST LEVER QUADRANT
    7. Describe the proper procedure for setting takeoff power.
  563. THRUST LEVER QUADRANT
    8. Which engine ignition system(s) are supplied continuous ignition with the CONT switch/light?
  564. THRUST LEVER QUADRANT
    9. Which ignition system does the DC Battery Bus power?
  565. THRUST LEVER QUADRANT
    10. When does continuous ignition come on automatically?
  566. THRUST LEVER QUADRANT
    11. What powers the Thrust reversers?
  567. THRUST LEVER QUADRANT
    12. What conditions must be met for the thrust reversers to deploy?
  568. THRUST LEVER QUADRANT
    13. What is the function of the EMER STOW switches?
  569. THRUST LEVER QUADRANT
    14. Pushing the TOGA button(s) before takeoff, performs what function?
  570. THRUST LEVER QUADRANT
    15. Pushing TOGA for a Go-Around provides what FD guidance?
  571. THRUST LEVER QUADRANT
    16. What is the function of the pitch and roll disconnect handles?
  572. THRUST LEVER QUADRANT
    17. What does the white status message FLAPS HALF SPEED indicate?
  573. THRUST LEVER QUADRANT
    18. What conditions must be met for GLD automatic arming?
  574. THRUST LEVER QUADRANT
    19. What conditions must be met for GLD deployment?
  575. AVIONICS
    1. What is the function of the VOICE/BOTH switch on the audio control panels?
  576. AVIONICS
    2. What is the function of the EMER position of the Emergency/Normal switch on the Audio Control Panels?
  577. AVIONICS
    3. In the event RTU 2 fails how can the # 2 radios be tuned?
  578. AVIONICS
    4. In the event RTU 1 fails how can the # 1 radios be tuned?
  579. AVIONICS
    5. What are the normal TCAS selections?
  580. AVIONICS
    6. What is the function of the XFR switch on the Radar Control Panel?
  581. AVIONICS
    7. What is the GCS (Ground Clutter Suppression) function?
  582. STAB TRIM/MACH TRIM
    1. What is the function of MACH trim?
  583. STAB TRIM/MACH TRIM
    2. What is the priority of the stabilizer trim system?
  584. AVIONICS COOLING AND COMPASS PANEL
    1. What does it mean when a DISPLAY COOL or ARINC COOL caution message is displayed in flight?
  585. AVIONICS COOLING AND COMPASS PANEL
    2. What can be done to extinguish a DISPLAY COOL or ARINC COOL caution message that is posted in flight?
  586. AVIONICS COOLING AND COMPASS PANEL
    3. What is the function of the NORM position for the DISPLY FAN on the AVIONICS COOLING panel?
  587. ENGINE CONTROL PANEL
    1. What is APR?
  588. ENGINE CONTROL PANEL
    2. What does APR provide?
  589. ENGINE CONTROL PANEL
    3. What conditions must be met for the APR system to arm?
  590. ENGINE CONTROL PANEL
    4. If APR is deferred, how would you know the TLR was calculated with APR Inoperative?
  591. ENGINE CONTROL PANEL
    5. What is the function of the Engine Speed switches?
  592. ENGINE CONTROL PANEL
    6. Engine N1 control (Speed Control) becomes effective when?
  593. ENGINE CONTROL PANEL
    7. When is N2 controlling engine speed?
  594. AILERON AND RUDDER TRIM PANEL
    1. What is checked on the Aileron and Rudder Trim panel during the Originating Check?
  595. YAW DAMPERS
    1. What does the amber EICAS “YAW DAMPER” message indicate?
  596. YAW DAMPERS
    2. Will the autopilot engage with the amber “YAW DAMPER” message posted?
  597. SOURCE SELECTORS
    1. What does the 1/2 selection on the ATTD/HDG, AIR DATA, and DISP CONT switch and ED1/ED2 on the EICAS do?
  598. OBSERVERS AUDIO PANEL
    1. How should the Observer’s Audio Panel be set?
  599. LOWER PEDESTAL
    1. When will the ADG automatically deploy?
  600. LOWER PEDESTAL
    2. What is the function of the PWR TXFER OVERRIDE switch?
  601. WATER & WASTE
    1. How many water systems are installed in the aircraft?
  602. WATER & WASTE
    2. Where are the water systems serviced?
  603. WATER & WASTE
    3. Where are the controls for the water systems?
  604. WATER & WASTE
    4. Are the water drain line(s) and drain mast(s) heated?

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