Exchange - short.txt

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Exchange - short.txt
2010-04-05 20:14:27

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  1. What stores partial replicas of the directories of other domains?
    • Global Catalog
    • (pg.4)
  2. Which 2 services does Exchange Server 2003 use to access the catalog server?
    • DSProxy & DSAccess
    • (pg.9)
  3. Which service is a Windows service that is used by Exchange Server 2003 to access the catalog server?
    • DSAccess
    • (pg.10)
  4. ________ functions as an intermediary between a client and the global catalog.
    • DSProxy
    • (pg.10)
  5. Which service uses a cache of recently accessed information to reduce the number of queries made to the global catalog server?
    • DSAccess
    • (pg.10)
  6. Which service does not examine request, and is transparent to the user?
    • DSProxy
    • (pg.10)
  7. ________ implements a directory access cache that stores recently accessed information for a configurable length of time.
    • DSAccess
    • (pg.10)
  8. Is POP3 used by Exchange Server 2003?
    • YES (Exchange will replace the default POP3 Server)
    • (pg.12)
  9. What is a list of IP addresses with owners who refuse to stop spamming called?
    • Realtime Blackhole List (RBL) (note: controlled by SMTP service)
    • (pg.12)
  10. What protocol provides user access to newsgroups either internally or on the internet?
    • NNTP
    • (pg.12)
  11. What is a new feature exclusive to Exchange Server 2003 running on Windows Server 2003 that give the ability to use Outlook 2003 to connect to Exchange Server 2003 servers using the HTTP protocol?
    • RPC over HTTP
    • (pg.13)
  12. What is responsible for informing certain objects that other objects have been moved, changed, or otherwise modified?
    • Infrastructure master
    • (pg.7)
  13. What security groups must you be a part of in order to install the first Exchange Server 2003 server in an organization?
    • Enterprise Admins and Schema Admins
    • (pg.23)
    • Which two services will be installed and enabled when you install Exchange Server 2003 on a computer running Windows 2000 Server?
    • ASP.NET and .NET Framework
    • (pg.25)
  14. Which utility updates the schema and configuration naming contexts in Active Directory?
    • ForestPrep
    • (pg.28)
  15. Where must ForestPrep be run?
    • The forest root domain.
    • (pg.28)
  16. Exchange Server 2003 can be installed on computers running ___________ or later.
    • Windows 2000 Server, Service Pack 3
    • (p.11/21)
  17. What is the minimum RAM you need?
    • 256MB
    • (p.22)
  18. Where must DomainPrep be run?
    • The forest root domain.
    • All domains containing Exchange Server 2003
    • All domains containing Exchange mailboxenabled objects
    • (pg.30)
  19. If you are going to uninstall what will you need to do with mailboxes?
    • Move to another server or delete
    • (p.39)
  20. What 3 Admin roles does Exchange Server 2003 support?
    • Exchange Full Admin
    • Exchange Admin
    • Exchange View Only Admin
    • (pg.53)
  21. Which kind of groups are used to implement functions that are linked to physical layout?
    • Routing groups
    • (pg.57)
  22. What are the 3 Administrative Models?
    • Centralized
    • Decentralized
    • Mixed
    • (pg.59)
  23. Which model would commonly be used in a small- to medium-sized network?
    • Centralized
    • (pg.59)
  24. What is the preferred connector to use when connecting routing groups?
    • Routing group connectors (RGC�s)
    • (pg.60)
  25. Which mode supports QDG�s and uses 8BITMIME data transfers?
    • Native mode
    • (pg.65)
  26. Which port does SSL use?
    • 443
    • (pg.68)
  27. Which port does NNTP use?
  28. 66r. What service runs the information store?
    • Microsoft Exchange Information Store
    • (p.52)
  29. What service provides maintenance?
    • Microsoft Exchange System Attendant
    • (p.52)
  30. If installing management tools on XP Pro what will be needed?
    • IIS (SMTP, WWW)
    • Windows Server AdminPack (NNTP and ADUC)
    • (p.55)
  31. If you have a small to medium what type of model?
    • Centralized Model
    • (p.59)
  32. If you have a Large business what type of model will you need?
    • Mixed Model
    • (p.59)
  33. What is the method to determine the amount of Routing Group Connectors that you will need for a fully meshed network?
    • N*(N-1)
    • (p.63)
  34. What connector is typically used to connect foreign (non-Microsoft) messaging systems?
    • X.400
    • (pg.62)
  35. What will reduce the amount of data sent over connections?
    • 8BITMIME data transfers
    • (p.65)
  36. What is a user account that has a mailbox in the Exchange organization and can send/receive email?
    • Mailbox-enabled User
    • (p.108)
  37. Who has email address but not account?
    • Contact
    • (p.109)
  38. Where are group mailboxes maintained?
    • they have no mailboxes
    • (p.110)
  39. If you email to a group were does it go?
    everyone in the group
  40. How do you hide email from group?
    • ADUC --> Group --> Exchange Advanced --> Hide from Exchange Address List
    • (p.119)
  41. What is checked it you have 2 SMTP addresses configured for a user?
    • "set as Primary"
    • (p.121)
  42. How you give someone "Send As" permission for email?
    • Exchange System Manager
    • (p.131)
  43. How do you configure a quick method of email properties?
    • (Recipient Policies)
    • (p.159-160)
  44. ________ are not associated with internal users and should not have internal e-mail addresses.
    • Contacts
    • (pg. 110)
  45. When you create a mailbox-enabled user what must you do to initialize the mailbox?
    • Send a message to it.
    • (pg.112)
  46. What is a new type of distribution group introduces in Exchange Server 2003?
    • Query-Based Distribution Group (QDG)
    • (pg.142)
  47. QDG can only be created in an organization running Exchange Server 2003 or later that is in ______ mode.
    • Native
    • (pg.142)
  48. How many storage groups ,per server, can Exchange Server 2003 Enterprise Edition support?
    • 4 (and 1 recover)
    • (pg.144)
  49. How many databases can each storage group contain?
    • 5
    • (pg.144)
  50. What types of backup will Circular logging NOT permit?
    • Differential and Incremental backups
    • (pg. 147)
  51. What are the 2 options you have when forcing the GAL to update?
    Update Now & Rebuild
  52. Does denying access to an address list prevent users from e-mailing the recipients in that address list?
    • No, they just cant view address list when using Outlook.
    • (pg.154)
  53. 108p. With regard to recipient policies, which policy will have highest priority?
    • The one with the highest number
    • (pg.160)
  54. A replicated public folder has fault tolerance and gives you the option to apply what to cut down on disk usage?
    circular logging
  55. If you are in the default public folder the content type is of what two types?
    • email items
    • post items
    • (p.170-172)
  56. What is the protocol used by Microsoft that is not "standard" to give us public folders?
  57. What are the two protocols that give access to Public Folders?
  58. What are the three types of rights on public folders?
    • Client permissions
    • Directory rights
    • Administrative rights
    • (p.187)
  59. When is the ONLY time the child folder will inherit settings from the parent for Public Folders?
    • ONLY when created
    • (pg.186)
  60. If you see access to email, documents and applications what are the two protocols being used?
    • HTTP and WebDAV
    • (p.208)
  61. The first HTTP virtual server installed is also known as what?
    • Exchange Virtual Server
    • (p.209)
  62. What do you use to manage the first HTTP Virtual server?
    • IIS
    • (p.208/209)
  63. What port is used for secure HTTP?
    • port 443
    • (p.209)
  64. What are the two unique things you need to address when installing NNTP?
    • two paths (store for moderated approval and SMTP moderated groups)
    • (p.219/225)
  65. What are the 3 criteria you can use to limit access?
    • Specified Computer - IP Address
    • Group of Computers - Subnet (IP range)
    • Domain (
    • (p.223)
  66. What is the most common method of authentication?
    • anonymous
    • (p.229)
  67. What authentication method is only supported by Windows Clients?
    • Integrated Windows Authentication
    • (p.231)
  68. What protocol supports Integrated Windows Authentication?
    • HTTP
    • (p.231)
  69. What logging level just reports high-level events?
    • Minimum
    • (p.238)
  70. What is the default SMTP port?
    • 25
    • (p.246)
  71. What SMTP command will tell the server to send messages?
    • turn
    • (p.247)
  72. What is the ESMTP command for turn?
    • etrn
    • (p.248)
  73. What should you never configure SMPT server to do?
    • forward to each other as smart host
    • (p.)
  74. What are the 2 most common MIME encoding?
    plain text, HTML (or both)
  75. Why do you want to scan outgoing messages?
    • indication of problems on network
    • (p.301)
  76. What is a good tool for checking such things as missing patches, weak passwords, vulnerabilities, etc.?
    • MBSA - Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer
    • (p.305)
  77. What would you install to help with Windows Automatic Updates?
    • SUS
    • (p.305)
  78. What is the number assigned to a message that helps Outlook determine if the message is SPAM?
    SCL - SPAM Confidence Level (value 1-10)
  79. SCL (SPAM Confidence Level) can have a value of 1-10. If the value is low what is the probability the message is junk mail?
    • Higher
    • (p.308)
    • If you get an encrypted message what will you need?
    • Their Public/Your Private
    • (p.315)
  80. What are the 3 things needed to use PKI effectively?
    • Certificate
    • CRL (Certificate Revocation List)
    • Public Key
    • (p.315)
  81. What Administration level used for everyday tasks in Exchange Server?
    • Exchange Administrator
    • (p.323)
  82. What is your primary security boundary in Active Directory?
    • Forest
    • (p.2)
  83. What is meant by well-connected (reliable high-bandwidth network links)?
    • Site
    • (p.3)
  84. What is a type of schema definition can share attributes?
    • Class
    • (p.3)
  85. What provides universal group membership information for user accounts attempting to log on the network?
    • Global Catalog
    • (p.5)
  86. What is implemented on an Exchange/Global Catalog server that cuts down on traffic?
    DSaccess/cache access (note #21)
  87. MAPI clients will get access from what service?
    • DSProxy
    • (p.10)
  88. What is the process of extending the SCHEMA before installing Exchange?
    • ForestPrep
    • (p.28)
  89. How do you create an Unattended install file?
    • d:\setup\i386\setup.exe /createunattend c:\filename.ini
    • (p.32)
  90. Exchange install Wizard is used to do what for Exchange?
    • Install/Uninstall
    • (p.31/39)
  91. What must you do if you forcibly remove Exchange Server before reboot?
    • remove REGISTRY Keys
    • (p.40)
  92. Where do you determine the registry keys to remove after forcible removal of Exchange Server?
    • Help File
    • (p.??)
  93. What is used to manage the mailbox and Public Folder stores?
    • Exchange Information Stores
    • (p.50)
  94. When talking about 2000 always keep what in mind in regrades to Exchange?
    • SP3
    • (p.55)
  95. What Routing Group Connector would you use if connecting unreliable locations or non-Microsoft (foreign) systems?
    • x.400
    • (p.62)
  96. Mixed Mode is used for compatibility to what?
    • Exchange Server 5.5 with Exchange Server 2003 (NOT Exchange Server 2000)
    • (p.63)
  97. What is the minimum upgrade needed to move Exchange server(s) to Native Mode with Exchange Server 5.5, Exchange Server 2003 and Exchange Server 2000 in the mix?
    • Upgrade Server 5.5 to 2000
    • (p.63)
  98. What are the advantages of Native Mode?
    • Flexibility defining routing and administrative groups
    • Move mailboxes between servers in different admin groups
    • Move Servers between routing groups
    • QDGs 0 Query-based distribution groups
    • MIME data transfers at 8BITMIME
    • (p.65)
  99. User that has account but not mailbox?
    • Mail-Enabled User
    • (p.109)
  100. User that has that has user account and mailbox in the Exchange Server?
    • Mailbox-Enabled User
    • (p.108)
  101. Do groups have mailboxes?
    • no
    • (p.110)
  102. If you want to delete just the mailbox and not the user what tool would you use?
    • Exchange Task Wizard (ADUC)
    • (p.112)
  103. On what tab do you hide email address from list?
    • Exchange Advanced Tab
    • (p.119)
  104. Who is the only one that can grant "Send As" permission?
    • administrator
    • (p.131)
  105. What is the only group scope that is published to the Global Catalog?
    • Universal
    • (p.141)
  106. What type of distribution group can be created dynamically and make the job easy on administrator?
    • QDG - Query-Based Distribution
    • (p.142)
  107. What provides a quick and effective method of defining different e-mail addresses for different users in your organization?
    • Recipient Policies
    • (p.159)
  108. If you what to create non-default items in Public Folders what must you use?
    • Outlook
    • (p.169/172)
  109. General purpose Public Folder trees do not support what kind of email client?
    • Outlook (MAPI)
    • (p.174)
  110. After creating an email address for a Public Folder in the E-Mail Address Tab what tab would you use to create an alias?
    • Exchange General Tab
    • (p.177)
  111. What is the setting that determines the amount of time a folder remains before automatically deleting?
    • Age Limits
    • (p.180)
  112. Permissions of users access to Public Folder are what kind of permissions?
    • Client Permissions
    • (p.187)
  113. What are the 3 categories of permissions for Public Folders?
    • Client Permissions
    • Directory Rights
    • Administrative Rights
    • (p.187)
  114. What type of Public Folder must have messages approved?
    • Moderated
    • (p.190)
  115. Who has rights to Public Folder by default?
    • Administrator
    • (p.192)
  116. What service controls the creation and deletion of all resources in the virtual server?
    • System Attendant
    • (p.201)
  117. HTTP and WebDav provide what functions?
    • Document
    • Email
    • Application
    • (p.208)
  118. What Virtual server will be on and configured by default on an Exchange server by default?
    • HTTP
    • SMTP
    • (p.200)
  119. What is another name for the first Virtual HTTP server?
    • Exchange Virtual Server
    • (p.209)
  120. Controlling Access to the server and Securing Access is done using what method(s)?
    • Controlling - Authentication
    • Securing - IP, Subnet, Domain Name
    • (p.221)
  121. What is the most common type of authentication?
    • anonymous
    • (p.229)
  122. What is an extension of SSL?
    • TLS
    • (p.230)
  123. Exchange System Manager will display red circular white x when the virtual server is?
    • stopped
    • (p.237)
  124. Exchange System Manager will display white circle with two black bars when the virtual server is?
    • paused
    • (p.237)
  125. Exchange System Manager will display white circle only when the virtual server is?
    • disabled
    • (p.237)
  126. What level have you set diagnostic logging to get only high-level?
    • Minimum
    • (p.238)
  127. What is the command to request an SMTP session and identifies the sending SMTP host to receive?
    • helo
    • (p.246)
  128. What is the command to request an ESMTP session and identifies the sending SMTP host to receive?
    • ehlo
    • (p.247)
  129. What command triggers the recipient server to send queued messages destined for the sending server?
    • trum
    • (p.247)
  130. What are the three system folders used by SMTP to temporarily store messages in transit?
    • pickup
    • queue
    • bad mail
    • (p.250)
  131. Exchange Servers should NOT use each other as?
    • smart host
    • (p.260)
  132. What type of clients use SMTP for mail delivery?
    • ones using POP3 or IMAP4
    • (p.273)
  133. How do you configure IMAP for user?
    • ADUC --> Exchange Features Tab --> IMAP4
    • (p.281)
  134. What are the problems with filtering attachments?
    • you don't get the ones you want
    • (p.300)
  135. What is an SCL?
    • SPAM Confidence Level (1-10)
    • (p.308)
  136. What defines the content and purpose of a certificate?
    • Certificate Template
    • (p.315)
  137. What 3 services are running for backward compatibility to earlier Exchange versions?
    • Microsoft Exchange Event Service
    • Microsoft Exchange Site Replication Service
    • Exchange MTA Stacks (5.5 only)
    • (p.328)
  138. What are the extended log files?
    • W3C
    • (p.332)
  139. Transaction logs have what properties?
    • ACID (completed or not completed)
    • (p. 343)
  140. If you have a message that is sent to multi Exchange recipient how many times will it be stored?
    • Single-Instance
    • (p.349)
  141. What is the RAID level that consists of two striped arrays that are then mirrored? Must have a minimum of 4 drives.
    • RAID 0+1
    • (p.352)
  142. What type of storage has an IP address that you would not use in an Exchange environment?
    • NAS
    • (p.354)
  143. What has an IP address and would be used in an Exchange environment?
    • SAN
    • (p.355)
  144. What are 4 examples of static data that will not change and does not need to be backed up?
    • Operating System
    • Applications
    • Supporting Software
    • Management Scripts
    • (p.356)
  145. What is the hardest to recover for an admin if not backed up?
    • Management Scripts
    • (p.356)
  146. What type of backup gets all of the log files but not the database?
    • Incremental
    • (p.357)
  147. What type of backup gets new or changed log files?
    • Differential
    • (p.357)
  148. What type of backup will recover/save disk space?
    • Full Backup
    • (p.357)
  149. What will let you get to the a point-in-time recovery?
    • Volume Shadow Copy
    • (p.361)
  150. What needs to be deleted before doing a "roll-forward" restore?
    • CHK File (checkpoint file)
    • (p.369)
  151. How long do you have to recover deleted mailbox and restore to user?
    • 30 days
    • (p.369)
  152. To recover a user account?
    • authoritative (NTDSutil.exe)
    • (p.383)
  153. What event source will you look for SMTP message routing?
    • MSExchangeTransport
    • (p.400)
  154. If checking service status and find unreachable?
    • service down or connector does not exist
    • (p.404)
  155. Queue that is not sending messages out?
    • Freeze
    • (p.408)
  156. What will you use to check queue?
    • Queue Viewer
    • (p.407)
  157. If you think you are getting a DoS attack how can you determine?
    • Network Monitor
    • (p.428)
  158. If you want to configure diagnostics Exchange Virtual Server where would this be done?
    • IIS
    • (p.456)
  159. How do you clear negative caching in regards to DNS?
    • ipconfig /flushdns
    • (p.471)
  160. Backup that has no affect on the archive bit or logs?
    Copy Backup (p.358)
  161. What Service allows you to do online backup?
    Volume Shadow Service (p.359)
  162. Where is the mailbox manager defined?
    Recipient Policies
  163. What is the tool used to defragment the mailbox and public folder stores?
    ESEutil (p.424)
  164. What is the utility for monitoring clusters?
    MOM - Microsoft Operations Manager (p.431)
  165. What tool is use to test networks connections?
    NETdiag (p.441)
  166. IP to MAC address is resolved by what protocol?
    ARP (p.465)
  167. If you want to saturate network with ICMP packets for testing?
    • PathPing
    • (p.477)