2A656 VOL 1 Q&A

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2A656 VOL 1 Q&A
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2A656 VOL 1 Q&A
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  1. What’s the mission of maintenance?
    a. Provide aircraft systems that are ready to fly and fight.
  2. Explain how the categories of maintenance are divided.
    a. Into two basic parts, on- and off-equipment maintenance
  3. What is intermediate level maintenance and who performs this level of maintenance.
    a. Off-equipment or in-shop maintenance; personnel at the field level.
  4. Who allocates maintenance resources to meet mission requirements?
    a. WG/CC Wing commander
  5. Which AFI covers duties and responsibilities of key leadership within a maintenance organization?
    a.21–101.
  6. Who manages the wing’s QAPs?
    a. GP/CC Group commander
  7. Who ensures compliance with the wing EPA program?
    a. Squadron commander.
  8. Who is responsible to the squadron commander for maintenance production?
    a. MS Maintenance supervisor
  9. Who is the first-line manager and technical authority in their area of maintenance supervision?
    a. Section chief.
  10. Which three squadrons exist under the MXG?
    a. (1)MXS, (2)AMXS, (3)MOS.
  11. The MXS is comprised of which flights?
    a. Propulsion, avionics, TMDE, accessory maintenance, AGE, fabrication, armament systems, maintenance, and munitions.
  12. Who maintains off-equipment aircraft and support equipment components, performs onequipment maintenance of aircraft, and provides repair and calibration of TMDE?
    a. MXS.
  13. What is the AMXS responsible for?
    a. Servicing, inspecting, maintaining, launching, and recovering assigned and transient aircraft.
  14. What is PMEL responsible for?
    a. Maintaining, calibrating, and certifying TMDE.
  15. Who is responsible for quality maintenance?
    a. Individual maintenance technicians, supervisors, and commanders.
  16. What is the role of QA?
    a. To assess, analyze, and identify problem areas that may exist; assess the quality of training; determine aircraft and equipment condition; and increase reliability and maintainability.
  17. How does QA identify trends and problem areas?
    a. By performing inspections and special assessments, collecting performance data, recommending possible corrective actions to supervisors, and providing on-the-spot assistance.
  18. What are the three general functions of IMDS CDB?
    a. (1)Updating of the database, (2)Retrieval of data from the database for local use, (3)Reporting of data required for use by higher headquarters.
  19. Why is it important for a scheduler to have access to accurate information, entered by maintenance personnel, in the IDMS CDB?
    a. In order to correctly schedule a flyable aircraft for the flying schedule, and prevent a grounded aircraft from being scheduled erroneously.
  20. How does higher headquarters use aircraft status, configuration changes, inventory and utilization data entered by maintenance personnel?
    a. To assign taskings to different units.
  21. How do engine inventory managers accomplish CEMS reporting?
    a. Through an interface with the CEMS CDB at Oklahoma City Air Logistics Center (OC-ALC).
  22. Which IMDS CDB subsystem lets you track maintenance actions?
    a. Maintenance events subsystem.
  23. What IMDS CDB subsystem allows the user to establish locally defined location codes meaningful for use within the maintenance complex?
    a. Location subsystem.
  24. What IMDS CDB subsystem provides an on-line capability for maintenance personnel to document, inquire, and produce retrievals of maintenance actions?
    a. Job data documentation.
  25. Which individual is assisted by the IMDS CDB status and inventory reporting subsystem?
    a. Maintenance controller.
  26. What phase of the operational events subsystem provides the capability for periodic reports of mission accomplishment?
    a. Analysis (phase 3).
  27. What IMDS CDB subsystem provides the user with the capability to automate the recordskeeping function?
    a. Inspections and time change systems.
  28. What procedures provide the IMDS CDB user the ability to identify personnel and or equipment that are to be transferred in mass?
    a. Equipment/personnel transfer and rehome procedures.
  29. What subsystem do users monitor to determine the status of specific TCTOs, by TCTO data code, equipment serial number, or equipment end item?
    a. TCTO subsystem.
  30. In which IMDS CDB subsystem is personnel data maintained? How is the information accessed?
    a. Maintenance personnel subsystem. Accessible online.
  31. What five types of training can be monitored by using the IMDS CDB training management subsystem?
    a. (1)Recurring courses, (2)One-time courses, (3)OJT courses, (4)Certification courses, (5)Upgrade training.
  32. What is provided by the maintenance-supply interface subsystem of IMDS CDB?
    a. The capability to order parts for unscheduled requirements, time change requirements, TCTOs, and thecapability to manage maintenance event validation of supply requisitions.
  33. What 781 series forms do the aircraft automated forms subsystem prefill and print?
    a. 781A, 781J, and 781K.
  34. Who is authorized to access IMDS CDB data?
    a. Maintenance personnel with the need to utilize the information in the system in performance of their official duties.
  35. Why are accuracy, neatness, and legibility stressed in the handling of aircraft and equipment forms?
    a. To reduce the possibility of errors caused by misinterpretation of your writing or careless entries.
  36. According to 00–20 series technical orders, what constitutes a minimum signature requirement on most aircraft forms?
    a. First name initial, complete last name, and employee number.
  37. What do red symbols in aircraft maintenance forms represent?
    a. Reflect the seriousness of the discrepancy in the opinion of the person making the entry. They indicate the mechanical condition, fitness for flight or operation, servicing, inspection, and maintenance status of the system concerned.
  38. Name the status symbols used on aircraft forms in descending order.
    a. Red X, red dash, and red diagonal.
  39. What does a red dash represent?
    a. An unknown condition.
  40. A discrepancy which may affect the flying efficiency or flying safety of the aircraft, but isn’t sufficiently urgent enough to ground the equipment, would be represented by what symbol?
    a. Red diagonal.
  41. Why is each aircraft discrepancy identified on the AFTO Form 781A?
    a. So that corrective action is taken to fix the discrepancy and also to provide historical data pertaining to the aircraft.
  42. What is the AFTO Form 781K used for?
    a. To record and keep track of inspections due, or completed and delayed discrepancies transferred from AFTO Form 781A.
  43. What is the purpose of the AFTO Form 244?
    a. To document equipment discrepancies and corrective actions. It also records service inspections, PE, and special inspections. The form essentially indicates to the operator and mechanic the current status of the equipment.
  44. Why should you review the AFTO Form 244 or 245 before using a piece of equipment?
    a. To check the status of the unit and to ensure it’s safe for operation.
  45. Match the concepts in Column B with the scheduled inspections in Column A. Column B items may be used more than once.
    • Column B (a)Phased, (b)Periodic, (c)Isochronal
    • Column A abc(1)Preflight , b(2)Periodic, c(3)Home station check, abc(4)End-of-runway, abc(5)Basic postflight, ab(6)Hourly postflight, abc(7)Thruflight, c(8)Minor, a(9)Phase
  46. What is the main objective of the phase inspection?
    a. To reduce the time an aircraft is out of commission for any given inspection.
  47. How many inspections are peculiar to the ISO inspection concept? What are they called?
    a. Three. Home station check, minor, and major inspections.
  48. State the purpose of training management.
    a. Ensure that a continuous, well-organized, training program is established and managed throughout the maintenance complex.
  49. What are the three elements of the maintenance-training program?
    a. Qualification training, management training, and upgrade training.
  50. After the supervisor’s initial qualification evaluation, when is reevaluation of personnel required?
    a. Only when an individual qualification deficiency is identified or when there’s a change in assignment or equipment.
  51. Who must be trained in the maintenance management system?
    a. All designated maintenance personnel excluding 3-level Airmen.
  52. What does upgrade training provide?
    a. The basic Air Force specialty training for Airmen to meet job knowledge and skill-level requirements.
  53. Explain the purpose of the material deficiency reporting system.
    a. To provide data to activities that are responsible for development, procurement, and other logistics management functions. This data may then be used to start action to correct materiel design and prevent quality deficiencies.
  54. What TO gives step-by-step procedures and instructions for reporting and handling deficiency reports and exhibits?
    a. TO 00–35D–54
  55. Cat I DR’s are used to report what type conditions?
    a. Emergency conditions pertaining to safety on all types of equipment.
  56. Who is the originating point for DRs’?
    a. In most cases it’s you or your shop.
  57. What two DD forms are used when identifying a deficiency exhibit?
    a. DD Forms 2332 and DD Form 1575.
  58. Why must cleaning never be done on a deficiency exhibit?
    a. Because valuable evidence may be lost during cleaning.
  59. Explain three characteristics of the supply system that determined the need to break the system into segments.
    a. First the supply system is worldwide. This suggests manageable segments on a geographical basis. Second, the supply mission depends on the performance of specialized functions, such as storage, distribution, and disposal. This suggests manageable segments on a functional basis. Third, the system contains millions of items that vary in size, use, complexity, and value. This suggests manageable segments based on a classification system.
  60. What’s an NSN?
    a. It’s a 13-digit number that identifies an item in the national supply system.
  61. Describe the designations of the three positions of an ERRC designator code.
    a. The first position identifies the expendability of the item; the second position identifies the highest authorized repair level; and the third position identifies the cost category.
  62. What are bench stocks?
    a. Bench stocks consist of working stocks of expendable items that are repetitive consumption items.
  63. Explain the two types of property responsibility.
    a. (1) Command; Commanders at any level have command responsibility for all property under their jurisdiction, (2) Custodial; custodial responsibility is assumed by any individual who has acquired physical possession of government property.
  64. What’s pecuniary liability?
    a. Pecuniary liability means the responsible person pays for the loss.
  65. How can you be relieved from property responsibility?
    a. One of two ways: turn-in or transfer.
  66. Explain three ways to settle an obligation to the Air Force whether or not pecuniary liability is admitted.
    a. (1)Report of Survey (AF Form 200) Used for explaining and recording circumstances that involve lost, damaged, or destroyed government property. A report of survey must be accomplished when the item cost exceeds $500 whether pecuniary liability is admitted or not, (2)Cash Collection Voucher (DD Form 1131) Used when pecuniary liability is admitted and a cash payment is made. The form gives a complete description of items and the purpose for which any collection was made, (3)Statement of Charges (DD Form 362) Used when pecuniary liability is admitted and payment is made by payroll deduction.
  67. What organization issues departmental publications?
    a. Headquarters USAF.
  68. Match the type of publication in column B with the types of information presented in column A. Column B items may be used only once.
    • Column B (a)Pamphlet, (b)Manual, (c)Instruction, (d)Recurring, (e)Specialized
    • Column A d(1) Informally written monthly publications, c(2) ACC directive, a(3) Voting information
    • e(4) Course on auto mechanics, b(5) Detailed instructions
  69. What TO index would you consult to ensure the shop file contains all of the TOs applicable to a particular aircraft?
    a. LOAPs for that particular aircraft.
  70. What types of information are found in operations and maintenance technical orders?
    a. Instructions pertaining to operations, service, maintenance, and inspection of complex weapon systems, and the overhaul of component parts.
  71. Why are TOs sectionalized?
    a. To make them easier to handle and enable you to efficiently locate needed information.
  72. What’s the function of methods and procedures TOs?
    a. To establish policies and prescribe procedures relating to such subjects as the TO system, preventive maintenance, scheduled inspections of equipment, maintenance management information, historical status, and configuration accounting documentation.
  73. A supervisor dispatches a mechanic to the phase dock to accomplish a power-off phase inspection. Which abbreviated TO would the mechanic use to accomplish the inspection?
    a. Inspection workcard.
  74. When will an immediate action TCTO be issued?
    a. When conditions exist that could result in fatal or serious injury to personnel. They’re also issued to prevent possible damage to, or destruction of, valuable property.
  75. Which type of TCTO has red Xs around the border of the first page?
    a. Immediate Action.
  76. What type of TCTO is used when a defect causes an unacceptable reduction in combat efficiency?
    a. Urgent Action.
  77. Why is a good numbering system needed for technical orders?
    a. Identify categories or groups, provide a means for users to identify TO’s, provide a means to identify and establish requirements for required distribution of TO’s, provide a sequence for filing TO’s.
  78. What part of the TO numbering system identifies the equipment category and mission of the aircraft?
    a. The first part of the TO number, the number identifies the category and the letter identifies the mission.
  79. What is meant by the term basic mission symbol?
    a. The TO symbol which represents the mission the aircraft was built to perform.
  80. When a TO number has four parts, what does the fourth part indicate?
    a. The section of the TO.
  81. Where would you look first for a brief description of the F–16 systems?
    a. In the GV Manual.
  82. What should you read before operating any equipment or aircraft system?
    a. All WARNINS, CAUTIONS, and NOTES.
  83. What do the digits of the MIDAS indicate?
    a. The first two digits indicate the major system. The second two digits indicate subsystem and subsubsystem, and the last two digits indicate the function number tied to the job guides.
  84. What do the digits in the different parts of the FI code indicate?
    a. The first two digits represent the major system. The second two digits indicate the subsubsystem. The third two digits show the specific fault. The last two digits show the specific location of the fault.
  85. Which manual is a master listing of all F–16 schematics?
    a. System Schematic Diagram Manual.
  86. Which TOs do you use for installing components and performing operational checks?
    a. Job Guides.
  87. If you know the part number, how would you locate the part in the IPB?
    a. Open the numerical index and find the numerically listed part; adjacent to the part number will be listed the volume figure and index number.
  88. If you don’t know the part number, how would you locate the part in the IPB?
    a. Look in the IPB that covers the system you’re working on; the Table of Contents will list the subsystem by title and page number.
  89. What part does the reference designation play in locating parts in the IPBs?
    a. Reference designators are provided throughout the entire maintenance manual system to help in troubleshooting. As a result, they are shown on all wiring diagrams. Simply look in the reference designator.
  90. Give five methods of updating used to keep TOs current.
    a. (1)Revisions, (2)Changes, (3)TOPS, (4)Supplements, (5)Rescissions.
  91. When are revisions normally issued?
    a. When changes pages total 80 percent or more of the basic TO
  92. How would you file a TO revision?
    a. Check the replacement note against the title page of the TO being replaced. If the date agrees, remove the old TO and file the new TO
  93. Changes to a TO should be checked against what page?
    a. Against the A page
  94. Name three types of TO supplements.
    a. Routine, operational and safety supplements
  95. How are operational and safety supplements filed?
    a. In reverse sequence, by date, in front of the TO. The safety supplement is always in front of an operational supplement with the same date
  96. What form is used to report a TO deficiency?
    a. AFTO Form 22
  97. What are the three types of improvement reports?
    a. Emergency, urgent, and routine
  98. What types of errors should an AFTO Form 22 not be submitted for and why?
    a. Word omission, typographical, or printing errors that don’t cause misinterpretation, these errors are corrected during scheduled reviews
  99. What types of precautions should you take when you’re working with oxygen?
    a. Keep oxygen equipment clean and free of moisture, oil and grease; use anti seize tape for oxygen fitting, and never park oxygen carts in areas that are sodded, grassy, or asphalt covered or in buildings. Parking LOX carts in hangars, nose docks, or other buildings is prohibited; they must be a specified distance from these structures.
  100. In what position do you place the vent valves when parking LOX carts?
    a. Open.
  101. What safety radius is prescribed for personnel not involved with servicing oxygen?
    a. A 50-foot radius.
  102. Describe the types and properties of oxygen.
    a. The types are gaseous (O2) and liquid oxygen (LOX). O2 is a colorless, odorless, tasteless gas, slightly heavier than air. It isn’t flammable; however, it will support the rapid combustion of most materials. It reacts violently with petroleum products such as jet fuel and lubricants if an energy source such as a fire or spark from static electricity is present. LOX is a pale blue liquid which exists in the liquid state only at an extremely low temperature (–182.50*C or –297*F). Like gaseous oxygen, it isn’t flammable; but it will support the rapid combustion of most materials, and reacts violently with petroleum products such as jet fuel and lubricants.
  103. What provides the bond between the LOX cart and the aircraft?
    a. The LOX cart servicing hose.
  104. Describe the properties of gaseous and liquid nitrogen.
    a. Gaseous nitrogen (N2) is a colorless, odorless, tasteless gas, slightly lighter than air. It’s inert and does not react with other substances nor will it support combustion. Liquid nitrogen (LIN) is a colorless, odorless liquid which exists in the liquid state only at an extremely low temperature (–196*C or –320.8*F).
  105. Describe the nitrogen-servicing events.
    a. It’s not necessary to ground or bond nitrogen servicing carts, anyone not involved with servicing operations should stay outside a 20-foot radius, and only qualified personnel will operate nitrogen equipment or service aircraft systems.
  106. What effect does nitrogen have on the oxygen supply in a confined space?
    a. Nitrogen can dilute and displace oxygen to a point where life support is endangered.
  107. What precaution should be remembered about treating skin frozen by liquid nitrogen?
    a. Don’t try to rewarm parts of the body that have been frozen; instead, seek medical attention immediately.
  108. What’s the first thing you should remember when working with or around explosives?
    a. Don’t perform unnecessary tasks in the immediate area of an explosive operation.
  109. Explain how explosives are classified.
    a. By the net explosive weight and type.
  110. What’s the explosive classification for fire extinguisher squibs?
    a. Class/Division 1.4.
  111. Explain why personnel are always exposed to shock hazards.
    a. The wide use of electronic equipment and improper use of electrical facilities and equipment exposes one to danger.
  112. What factors determine the resistance of the human body to current flow?
    a. The path of the current, duration of current flow, condition of skin, and the area of contact
  113. Why should you always keep one hand behind your back when working with electricity?
    a. The body paths of current are a vital factor, and any route involving the heart or brain is extremely dangerous. Placing one hand behind the back reduces the possibility of current passing in one hand through the heart or respiratory system and out the other hand.
  114. Explain the harmful effects of electrical shock to the human body.
    a. Damage to nerve tissue, personality changes, amnesia, mental inertia, blood vessel disease, cataracts, destruction of the pancreatic tissue, and heart conditions.
  115. What’s static electricity?
    a. An electrical charge at rest.
  116. Why is it easy to damage integrated circuits with ESD?
    a. The metal oxide film used as a dielectric is very thin; hence the smallest ESD blows a hole in the dielectric damaging the component.
  117. How can you prevent damage to ESDS equipment during shipping and storing?
    a. Use containers made of barrier material conforming to TO specifications. If cushioning is required, pack with a static-free conductive material. Ensure each container has an ESD caution marker attached and keep equipment in containers until ready to use.
  118. What’s the philosophy of a hazard communication program?
    a. Awareness. When people are informed of hazardous materials and controls, they’ll be less likely to be injured by the physical and health hazards present.
  119. What two general categories of material hazards are found in most air Force operations?
    a. Health hazards and physical hazards.
  120. Who makes the hazard determination for a potentially hazardous material purchased by the Air force?
    a. The supplier or manufacturer of the materials.
  121. What information must be identified on the container of a hazardous material used in your work area?
    a. The identity of the hazard material; appropriate hazard warnings; and the name, address, and phone number of the manufacturer, supplier, or other responsible party.
  122. What regulation is a good source of information for prevention of accidents?
    a. AFI 91–202, The US Air Force Mishap Prevention Program.
  123. What consideration should be given a high priority in the layout of the shop area?
    a. Safety.
  124. List four safety items you should look for in the shop.
    a. Any four of the following: (1)A clean and orderly work area, (2)Floors free of obstructions and spills, (3)Tools and equipment put into their proper places, (4)Stockroom goods stored neatly in their prescribed locations, (5)Good ventilation, (6)Proper lighting, (7)Tools used for their intended purposes, (8)Proper guards and safety equipment in place and used when working with hazardous equipment and liquids, (9)Fire hazards, such as flammable materials or oil rags improperly stored, overloaded electrical circuits, personnel not observing no smoking signs, and cleaning solvents and combustible fluids stored in open containers.
  125. How can personnel aid in the safety process of the shop?
    a. If you find any of the mentioned discrepancies, correct them immediately or bring them to the attention of your supervisor.
  126. What are the major danger areas around an operating jet engine?
    a. The engine intake, the engine exhaust, and the engine turbine plane of rotation.
  127. What condition causes the danger area around an operating jet engine intake?
    a. The suction effect of an operating jet engine.
  128. What conditions make the engine exhaust blast particularly dangerous?
    a. Its high velocity and high temperature.
  129. Why is the plane of rotation of the engine turbine wheel considered dangerous?
    a. Because of the possibility of turbine disintegration and high-velocity flying debris.
  130. Where is noise intensity greatest around operating jet aircraft engines?
    a. To the rear of the engines and at an angle of 45° on either side.
  131. What’s the greatest cockpit hazard on most aircraft?
    a. Accidental firing of the ejection seat, the canopy, or the escape hatches.
  132. When are the canopy, escape hatch and ejection seat safety pins installed, and how long do they stay installed?
    a. Immediately after flight, and they remain installed while the aircraft is on the ground.
  133. When are you authorized access to the cockpit area of an aircraft with an ejection seat?
    a. After you’ve completed the required cockpit safety familiarization and egress training.
  134. State the hazard present on aircraft having power-actuated surfaces.
    a. There’s always a danger of being caught between the aircraft surfaces and the actuated surface.
  135. When you approach an aircraft to perform maintenance, what are normally the initial indications you’ll have that the aircraft is armed?
    a. Warning signs placed near the cockpit and red streamers attached to the armed device.
  136. List some things you can do to prevent FOD.
    a. (1)Make spot checks of your tool box before and after jobs, (2)Make sure you and everyone involved in maintenance police the work area after a job is done, (3)Always use the special FOD containers provided, (4)Use intake screens when working around operating jet engines, (5)Secure personal effects, such as hats, gloves, pens, etc., or better yet, remove them when working near intakes, (6)Call for mechanical sweepers or organize the policing of ramp areas and taxi ways when you suspect FOD may be present.
  137. What dual purpose do FOD containers serve?
    a. They provide a receptacle for debris and remind you to practice FOD prevention.
  138. How should mishap prevention tags be secured to equipment?
    a. Secure mishap prevention tags to ensure visibility; that is, as close to the equipment as possible.
  139. When would you use a DANGER TAG (AF Form 979)?
    a. When an immediate hazard exists and specific precautions are required to protect personnel and property.
  140. What series of forms is used to report accidents?
    a. AF Form 711B and 711C.
  141. What are the restrictions concerning the release of accident information to the news media?
    a. Regulations prohibit divulging any information to local news media without proper release.
  142. What are three sources of high-frequency radiation?
    a. High-frequency radio transmitters, radar, and electronic countermeasure devices.
  143. What are the principal effects that high-frequency radiation has on the human body?
    a. It causes burns beneath human skin and cataracts over your eyes. Vital organs and tissue are damaged by excessive heat caused by RF radiation.
  144. What are the three types of nuclear radiation?
    a. Alpha and beta particles, and gamma rays.
  145. What material provides protection against each type of nuclear radiation?
    a. (1) Alpha radiation is stopped by almost any barrier, such as an inch of air or a sheet of paper, (2) Beta radiation is stopped by such barriers as ordinary clothing; additional protective equipment and respirators are required when you work in a contaminated area, (3) The best protection against gamma radiation is several inches of lead.
  146. Why should you wear a film badge or dosimeter in a contaminated area?
    a. To measure the amount of radiation (dosage) you receive.
  147. What colors are used on the radiation placard?
    a. Magenta (reddish purple) on a yellow background.
  148. What are the three minimum safety standards for nuclear weapons under the nuclear weapons surety program?
    a. (1)Weapons security, (2)Prevent unauthorized or accidental actions, (3)Prevent nuclear explosions.
  149. List your individual responsibilities under the nuclear weapons surety program.
    a. (1)Inform your supervisor if you’re not qualified to perform a particular task, (2)Report nuclear safety hazards or security problems to your supervisor, (3)Identify unreliable personnel to your supervisor.
  150. Who is responsible to certify or decertify individuals from the personnel reliability program?
    a. The unit commander.
  151. What should you do if one of your PRP certified co-workers has a substance abuse problem?
    a. Inform your supervisor or the certifying official.

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