Quiz 2-Chapter 3 (partial)

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leo25
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132886
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Quiz 2-Chapter 3 (partial)
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2012-02-04 23:46:58
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Anti-Infectives
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  1. Garamycin
    Gentamicin
  2. Which Aminoglycolside has ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity?
    gentamicin
  3. What is an aminoglycoside?
    • bactericidal
    • gram negative agents
    • used for serious infections
  4. Tobrex, Tobi, TobraDex
    Tobramycin
  5. What drug should not be used as a monotherapy to treat pneumonia?
    tobramycin
  6. What aminoglycoside is used to treat exacerbations in cystic fibrosis patients?
    tobramycin
  7. Neosporin
    Neomycin-polymyxin B
  8. What is neosporin-polymyxin B used for?
    minor skin infections
  9. What 2 drugs are most highly effective against tuberculosis?
    • rifampin
    • isoniazid
  10. What are antimycobacterials?
    combat mycobacterium, which have a very different cell wall anatomy than other bacteria
  11. Laniazid, Nydrazid
    Isoniazid
  12. What is isoniazid (Laniazid, Nydrazid) used for?
    treatment of active and latent TB
  13. What are some common SE of isoniazid?
    • peripheral neuropathy
    • abdominal pain
    • elevated liver fxn tests
  14. What are some rare SE of isoniazid?
    • hepatitis
    • hypersensitivity
    • anemia
    • systemic lupus
    • thrombocytopenia
  15. What drug has the common abbreviation INH?
    isoniazid
  16. Which antimycobacterial should be coadministered with pyridoxine (vitamin B6)? Why?
    • isoniazid
    • to prevent peripheral neuropathy
  17. Rifadin, Rimactane
    Rifampin (g)
  18. What is rifampin used for?
    • active and latent treatment of TB
    • treating asymptomatic carriers of Neisseria meningitides
    • synergistic therapy for gram+ infections like endocarditis
  19. What are the most common SE rifampin?
    • nausea
    • vomiting
    • cramps
    • rash
    • fever
    • drowsiness
    • elevated liver fxn tests
  20. What are some rare SE of rifampin?
    • hypersensitivity
    • thrombocytopenia
    • hyperbilirubinemia
  21. _____ is a potent inducer of many hepatic enzymes, especially the CYP450 system?
    rifampin
  22. Which drug will turn your tears, urine and sweat orange/red?
    rifampin
  23. Which anti-infectives were the second class of antibiotics to be developed?
    penicillins
  24. Which anti-infective inhibits bacterial cell growth by inhibiting transpeptidase enzymes?
    penicillins
  25. What are the common SE of all penicillins?
    • nausea
    • vomiting
    • diarrhea
    • rash
  26. What are the rare SE of all penicillins?
    • hypersensitivity
    • anaphylaxis
    • seizures
    • pseudomembranous colitis
  27. What drug class should not be give to a patient who is allergic to cephalosporin antibiotics?
    penicillins
  28. What are the main drugs which interact with penicillins?
    • probenicid
    • chloramphenicol
    • macrolides
    • sulfonamides
    • tetracyclines
  29. Amoxil, Trimox
    amoxicillin (g)
  30. What is amoxicillin most commonly used for?
    • URI
    • UTI
    • skin and skin structure infections
    • H. pylori infection in gut
  31. T/F: amoxicillin and ampicillin have the same antimicrobial spectrum.
    true
  32. Which has better oral absorption- amoxicillin or ampicillin?
    amoxicillin
  33. Augmentin
    amoxicillin/clavulanate (g)
  34. What is augmentin used for?
    • upper and lower respiratory infections
    • skin infections
    • UTI
    • mixed aerobic and anaerobic infections
  35. How can you minimize adverse GI effects when taking augmentin?
    take at start of a meal
  36. T/F: amoxicillin has a broader antimicrobial spectrum than augmentin.
    false
  37. Beepen-VK, Pen-VK, Veetids
    penicillin
  38. What is penicillin used for?
    • strep
    • anthrax
    • prophylaxis of pneumococcal infections or recurrent rheumatic fever
    • necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
  39. Which anti-infectives are beta-lactam antibiotics? (resistant to beta-lactamase enzymes)
    cephalosporins
  40. What is the cephalosporin MOA?
    inhibits bacterial cell growth in susceptible bacteria by inhibiting transpeptidase enzymes (inhibit synthesis of cell wall)
  41. What are the most common SE of cephalosporins?
    • rash
    • diarrhea
    • hypersensitivity
  42. What are rare SE of cephalosporins?
    • anaphylaxis
    • bone marrow suppression
    • clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea
  43. Cefzil
    cefprozil (g)
  44. What is cefzil(cefprozil) used for?
    • upper and lower resp infections
    • skin infections
    • tonsilitis
  45. What are the most common SE of cefprozil?
    • nausea
    • vomiting
  46. What is the main drug that affects cefprozil?
    probenicid
  47. Cefprozil is a ____ generation cephalosporin?
    second
  48. If patient has PKU, what drug should they not use?
    cefprozil
  49. Rocephin
    ceftriaxone
  50. What 2 drugs can be used to treat gonorrhea, Lyme disease, UTIs and resp infections, etc?
    • rocephin
    • ceftin
  51. Which drug can cause biliary sludging in neonates?
    rocephin
  52. Rocephin is a _____ generation cephalosporin?
    third
  53. Ceftin
    Cefuroxime
  54. Which cephalosporin is available as both IV injection and oral tab/suspension?
    cefuroxime (ceftin)
  55. Keflex, Keftab
    cephalexin
  56. What is cephalexin used for?
    • skin infections
    • URI
    • UTI
  57. Cephalexin is a _____ generation cephalosporin?
    first
  58. T/F: cephalexin is effective against MRSA.
    false
  59. Cipro
    ciprofloxacin
  60. T/F: all fluoroquinolones are available IV and orally.
    true
  61. Name 3 fluoroquinolones.
    • cipro
    • levaquin
    • avelox
  62. levaquin
    levofloxacin
  63. avelox
    moxifloxacin
  64. vancocin
    vancomycin
  65. Name a glycopeptide.
    vanco
  66. What are common SE of vanco?
    • "Red Man's syndrome" (rash, flushing, tachycardia, hypotension)
    • phlebitis
    • nephrotoxicity
  67. Which drug can affect the actions of anesthesia?
    • vanco
    • can enhance histamine release and rash
  68. What is the drug of choice for treating MRSA?
    vanco
  69. There is only one commonly used lincosamide. What is it?
    clindamycin
  70. Cleocin
    clindamycin
  71. T/F: clindamycin can be used to treat some strains of MRSA.
    true
  72. Which antibiotic can actually cause psuedomembranous colitis instead of treat it?
    clindamycin
  73. Zithromax, Zmx, Z-pak
    azithromycin
  74. Biaxin, Biaxin XL
    clarithromycin
  75. Ery-Tab, E-Mycin, EES, Ilosone, EryPed
    Erythromycin
  76. What are some macrolides?
    • erythromycin
    • clarithromycin
    • azithromycin
  77. Which macrolide is used off-label for motility?
    erythromycin
  78. flagyl
    metronidazole
  79. What is the only common nitroimidazole used?
    metronidazole (flagyl)
  80. What is flagyl used for?
    • anaerobic infections (mostly)
    • C. difficile infections
    • pelvic inflamm disease
    • rosacea
    • GI surgery prophylaxis
    • bacterial vaginosis
    • trichomoniasis
    • giardiasis
    • H.pylori infection
  81. Which drug has a common SE of metallic taste?
    metronidazole (flagyl)
  82. Name a folic acid antagonist (sulfonamide as well)
    • bactrim
    • septra
  83. Bactrim, Septra
    trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
  84. Which antibiotic can be used to treat traveller's diarrhea?
    Bactrim
  85. Which antibiotics are the drug of choice for tick-borne diseases?
    tetracyclines
  86. Which antibiotic can cause tooth discoloration if used too long?
    tetracyclines
  87. Which antibiotics may render oral contraceptives less effective?
    tetracyclines
  88. Which drug must be thrown out if therapy is complete and do not use outdated because it could cause Fanconi syndrome (kidney damage)?
    tetracycline
  89. Vibramycin
    Doxycycline
  90. What drug can treat Rocky Mountain spotted fever, typhus fever, Lyme disease, plague, tularemia, Q fever, rickettsialpox?
    doxycycline (or minocycline)
  91. Minocin
    Minocycline
  92. What are 2 tetracyclines?
    • minocycline
    • doxycycline
  93. What is the only nitrofuran?
    nitrofurantoin
  94. Macrodantin, Macrobid
    Nitrofurantoin
  95. What is the antibiotic of choice for a UTI that is resistant to bactrim, septra, cipro, levaquin, or avelox?
    Nitrofurantoin
  96. T/F: nitrofurantoin should not be used for any other infection other than uncomplicated cystitis.
    true
  97. T/F: nitrofurantoin can be used in pregnant women.
    true
  98. Which antibiotic will give a false positive on a urine glucose test?
    nitrofurantoin

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