Final Exam

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  1. Starting: After moving the starter switch to START postion, what sequence do yo look for?
    • 1. Starter Energized
    • 2. Ignition On
    • 3. Oil Pressure Rising
    • 4. Ng Stable (minimum 12%)
    • 5. Action: Fuel Condition Lever – Low Idle
    • 6. Fuel Flow 80-140
    • 7. Lightoff
    • 8. Stable 52% Ng
  2. Manual Electric Pitch Trim (MEPT) Test Sequence
    Put both sides of trim switch up and down and check correct movement of wheel, tab, and interupt with AP DISC switch

    Get Co-Pilot to trim up and down and check override with Captains side

    Reset Trim for Takeoff

  3. Prop Governor Test Sequence
    • Set Prop Lever to Max
    • Press and Hold Governor test switch
    • Advance power lever, stable 1750 +/- 50 Rpm
    • Power Lever Idle
    • Release Test Switch
  4. What ITT should you move Fuel Cond Lever to CUTOFF if a hot start is predicted?
  5. You have had 2 unsuccessful engine starts using EXTERNAL POWER. How long must you wait before a 3rd attempt?
    2 mins - 120 secs
  6. What acronym is used for HOLDING? Briefly explain each letter
    • T - Type of Entry
    • S - Speed
    • A - Altitude
    • F - Fuel available to hold before Diversion
    • E - Expected time till onward clearance
  7. List 3 “critical phases of flight” in which the “sterile cockpit” must be adhered to?
    • All Ground ops, Taxi- Takeoff-Landing
    • Flight below 5000 ft
    • Within 1000ft of assigned altitude
  8. List 4 Elements of a stable approach
    • Aircraft on Correct Flight Path
    • Only small changes in heading and Pitch required
    • Speed Vref +20 - Vref
    • Aircraft Fully configured
    • Max 800fpm decent unless briefed otherwise
    • All briefings and checklists completed
    • ILS 1 dot of LOC & SLOPE
    • Wings Level by 300ft
  9. When operating the standby flap system, what precaution must you take?
    No, metallic type brakes. Continual soft braking detrimental.
  10. When operating the standby flap system, what precaution must you take?
    No limit switches so must stop before full up and down positions
  11. Fuel Condition Lever low idle ___%, High Idle ___%
    52% & 65%
  12. How do you test the stall warning system?
    • Battery On,
    • Stall vane push up,
    • control column pull back
  13. Max fuel imbalance in flight?
    200 lbs
  14. What is an indication of an FCU failure?
    Power falls back toward idle (48% increasing with altitude)
  15. Min %Ng for running Air Con? (G1000)
  16. You are circling at Medan for Rwy 23, you lose visual on base to final. What should your actions be?
    Turn towards center of airport, carry out the missed approach for the rwy 23 approach
  17. What terrain clearance does 25 mile MSA give you?
  18. MORA on the Chart shows 86. What Terrain Clearance
    does this give you?
  19. What is the difference between a PFD 1 failure and a
    PFD 2 failure?
    • PFD 1 fails = automatic reversion to MFD,
    • PFD 2 fails = no reversion
  20. What button must be pressed when the PFD 2 has failed?
    Manual Reversion Button (BIG RED BUTTON)
  21. What causes the Actual Airspeed to turn YELLOW or RED?
    • Yellow - Trend Vector past 175 KIAS
    • Red - Actual Airspeed past 175 KIAS
  22. What indications (Sounds & Colours) do you get for "Warning" "Caution" and "Advisory"
    • Warning - Continuous chimes and red flashing
    • Caution - Single Chime and yellow flashing
    • Advisory - No chime and white flashing
  23. What is the difference between NO COMP and MISCOMP
    • No Comp = nothing to compare to,
    • MISCOMP = difference beyond prescribed limits between # 1 and #2
  24. What does the light blue bug on the torque gage indicate?
    Recommended Cruise torque setting, also at altitude = max cruise torque setting
  25. If GPS mode is selected in the HSI, what will be the color of the NAV frequencies?
  26. What does “WATCH” stand for and what does it do?
    Weather ATtenuated Color Highlighting. Identifies areas of possible radar shadows
  27. What is “attenuation” and what 2 factors contribute to it?
    Weakening of radio waves or returns, caused by distance and precipitation
  28. Why should you have the weather radar antenna in STBY mode prior to taxi?
    Prevent the antenna from being damaged bouncing off the bottom stop whilst taxiing
  29. You adjust the gain to detect embedded CB’s. Are the
    colors still representative of true intensity? What must you do when finished with gain?
    No, return to detent
  30. What is an indication of a weather alert?
    Red Arc at edge of radar display in direction of severe weather
  31. Automatic transition from armed to active mode is
    indicated by what?
    Moving from outside to inside and flashing
  32. In flight you push the XFR key with the autopilot
    engaged in HDG and ALT, what happens to the lateral and vertical modes?
    ROL & PIT
  33. What is the difference between ALTS and ALTV?
    • ALTS = your next constraint is a selected constraint
    • ALTV = your next constraint is a VNAV constraint (obviously only possible while descending in VNAV)
  34. You press CWS while in ROL mode and bank the aircraft
    to 30 degrees and let go of the CWS button. What will happen?
    Roll out to 22o
  35. The system disengages the Autopilot. What color does
    the AP annunciation turn?
  36. What does a red annunciator indicate?
    Hazardous condition immediate action
  37. What precaution if you use the fire extinguisher?
    Ventilation of the cabin
  38. What should you never touch with bare hands?
    Output connectors or coupling nuts of the ignition leads
  39. Reservoir Fuel Low annunciator indicates what?

    What are your actions?
    That the reservoir has less than half fuel

    • Fuel tanks - On
    • Fuel boost - On
    • Ignition - On
    • Land at the earliest opportunity
  40. What does the avionics bus tie switch do?
    Its ties avionics 2 bus and avionics 1 bus together to allow standby alternator power to equipment on Avionics bus 2 rather than battery power.
  41. Airspeed Pressure switch activated at what speed?
    175Kts located within the pitot static system
  42. Whatare alternate airport weather minimums for an airport with a non-precision approach only?
    Ceiling = 800ft

    Visibility = 2 statute miles (3.2km)
  43. List 3 post flight duties
    • A/C is properly secured
    • Navigation equipment is properly stowed
    • Flight records are completed and signed by PIC/FO and give to appropriate staff
  44. What is the maximum flaps you can use the autopilot with?
    20 deg
Card Set:
Final Exam
2012-03-05 07:55:17
Final Exam

Final Exam
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