Pharm exam 1 part 4.txt

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Pharm exam 1 part 4.txt
2012-02-11 07:26:22
Pharm Exam

Part 4
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  1. Are the two types of propellants used w/ pMDIs.
    CFCs and HFAs
  2. Which are used today as a propellant in pMDIs?
  3. have been identified as propellants that are nontoxic to the atmosphere and to the patient and that have properties suitable for MDI aerosol generation
  4. HFA stands for
  5. CFC stands for?
  6. pMDIs can be divided into two categories:
    conventional pMDIs and Breath-actuated pMDIs
  7. the conventional pMDI has what kind of design?
    press-and-breath desgn
  8. A type of device to simplify MDI use is
    a breath-actuated adapter
  9. inhalers offer an alternative for individuals who find it difficult to coordinate pMDI actuation with inhalation
    breath- actuated
  10. Research on the drug content of sprays of albuterol by pMDI has shown that various factors affect
    dose consistency
  11. refers to the loss of drug content in the valve even though propellant may seem to discharge a normal dose.
    Lose of dose
  12. The MDI should be ______ before the first actuation after standing, so that the metering valve refills with adequately mixed suspension from the canister
  13. Whsy shour the MDU be shaken?
    There can be a seperation of suspensions when left standing.
  14. A pause of ________ minutes has been advocated between each puff of a bronchodilator from an MDI, in an attempt to improve distribution of the inhaled drug in the lung
  15. refers to the loss of propellant from the metering valve of the MDI
    Lose of prime
  16. Data indicate that dose delivery from CFC-propelled MDIs of albuterol decreases at lower temperatures. A significant decrease of 65% to 70% of the usual dose has been observed at
  17. Aerosol drug delivery with a pMDI is dependent on
    Nozle size, sleanliness, and lack of moisture
  18. The two primary techniques for using a pMDI without a spacer are:
    The open mouth tech. and the closed mouth tech.
  19. allows for slowing of the particle velocity and evaporation of aerosol droplets, resulting in less oropharyngeal impaction and loss
    Spraying a few cm infront of the open mouth
  20. Characteristics of the patient using the pMDI leads to a variability of
    aerosol deposition
  21. The most common error noted is the failure to coordinate
    inhaltion w/ actuation
  22. devices were introduced primarily to simplify the complex coordination of aiming, actuation, and breathing with a pMDI
    Extentions or reservoirs
  23. is similar to a pMDI except that the drug is in powdered form
  24. requires a high inspiratory flow rate from the patient to dispense the drug. The flow rate needed is usually 30 to 90 L/min
  25. DPIs can be divided into three categories based on the design of their dose containers:
    unit-dose DPIs, multiple unit-dose DPIs, and multiple-dose DPIs
  26. These DPIs have individually wrapped capsules that contain a single dose of medication and deliver powder medication from a punctured capsule
    Unit-dose or single-dose
  27. What is the lung depostition for MDI (CFC)?
  28. What is the lung depostition for MDI (HFA)?
  29. What is the lung depostition for MDI and Spacer (CFC)?
  30. What is the lung depostition for SVN?
  31. What is the lung depostition for DPI?
  32. The loss with an SVN is primarily in the delivery apparatus (66%), with most of that remaining in
    the nebulizer
  33. MDI loses about _____ in the actuator.
  34. What is the dose of albuterol in MDI form?
    2 puffs or 0.2 mg
  35. what is the dose of albuterol in SCN?
    0.5cc or 2.5mg
  36. The ratio of MDI to SVN dose is approximately
  37. 1 tsp =
  38. 1Tbs =
    15 mL or 3 tsp
  39. how many drops in 5mL?
  40. 1 cup =
  41. what are the two types of drug dose calulations that are generally made?
    Those involving fluids, tabs., or caps, and thos involving sols. or a %.
  42. contains a solute, which is dissolved in a solvent, giving a homogeneous mixture
  43. The strength of a solution is expressed as the percentage of solute relative to
    total solvent and solute
  44. means parts of the active ingredient (solute) in a preparation contained in 100 parts of the total preparation (solute and solvent).
  45. Nerve impulses are conducted by electrical and chemical means; the chemical portion of nerve transmission is referred to as a
  46. The neurotransmitter is __________ at the myoneural (neuromuscular) junction, at ganglia, and at parasympathetic end sites
  47. The neurotransmitter at sympathetic end sites is generally __________ except at sweat glands and the adrenal medulla, where acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter
  48. control is essential to life and is considered a more discrete, finely regulated system than sympathetic control. effects control the day-to-day bodily functions of digestion, bladder and rectal discharge, and basal secretion of bronchial mucus
  49. verstimulation of the parasympathetic branch would render the body incapable of violent action, resulting in what is termed the SLUD syndrome:
    Salvation, lacrimation, urination, and defecation
  50. effects are widespread, mediated by norepinephrine at nerve endings and by circulating epinephrine released from the adrenal medulla.
  51. reacts as a general alarm system and does not exercise discrete controls. This is sometimes characterized as a �fight-or-flight� system
  52. A nerve impulse signal is carried along a nerve fiber by
    electrical action potentials
  53. At gaps in the nerve fiber between neurons (synapses), the electrical transmission is replaced by a
    chemical neurotransmitter
  54. the chemical transmission of the electrical impulse, which occurs at the ganglionic synapses and at the end of the nerve fiber, termed the
    neuroeffector site
  55. The neurotransmitter conducting the nerve impulse at skeletal muscle sites is Ach, and this site is referred to as the
    neuromuscular junction or myoneural junction
  56. In the parasympathetic branch, the neurotransmitter is also Ach at both the ganglionic synapse and the terminal nerve site, referred to as the
    neuroeffector site
  57. The neurotransmitter acetylcholine is terminated by the enzyme
  58. neurotransmitter reuptake into the presynaptic neuron (uptake-1) and by the enzymes catechol O-methyltransferase (COMT) and monoamine oxidase (MAO) terminate what?
    norepinephrine and sympathetic transmission
  59. The autonomic system is generally considered an
    effernt system
  60. nerves run alongside the sympathetic and parasympathetic efferent fibers and carry impulses from the periphery to the cord
  61. These terms are used for acetylcholine and norepinephrine/epinephrine receptors in the two autonomic branches.
    cholinergic (cholinoceptor) and adrenergic (adrenoceptor)
  62. Indirect-acting cholinergic agonists inhibit the
    cholinesterase enzyme
  63. stimulates autonomic muscarinic receptors in the iris sphincter and ciliary muscle of the eye to produce pupillary constriction (miosis) and lens thickening
    echothiophate (Phospholine)
  64. useful in increasing muscle strength in a neuromuscular disease such as myasthenia gravis, in which the cholinergic receptor is blocked by autoantibodies
    Neostigmine and edrophonium
  65. is used in the Tensilon test to determine whether muscle weakness is caused by overdosing with an indirect-acting cholinergic agent (causing ultimate receptor fatigue and blockade) or undertreatment with insufficient drug.
  66. undesirable muscarinic effects can be blocked by pretreatment with a parasympatholytic or antimuscarinic drug such as
  67. are used as insecticides, and occasionally patients are seen with toxic exposure and absorption
  68. they have also been used as �nerve gas.� Because they affect Ach, they have an effect on neuromuscular function and muscarinic receptors; there is initial stimulation, then blockade if a high enough dosage is absorbed. Muscle weakness and paralysis can result.
    parathion and malathion and the drug echothiophate
  69. can be used in the treatment of organophosphate toxicity in the first 24 hours
    pralidoxime chloride or cholinesterase reactivator
  70. block Ach receptors and act as cholinergic antagonists
    Anticholinergic agents
  71. is usually considered the prototype parasympatholytic, and there is renewed interest in the use of aerosolized analogues
  72. Atropine occurs naturally as the levo isomer in Atropa belladonna, the nightshade plant, and in Datura stramonium, or jimsonweed. The drug is referred to as a
    belladonna alkaloid
  73. Sympathetic effects on the cardiopulmonary system include
    increased heart rate/contractile force, increased blood pressure, bronchodilation, and probable increased secretion from mucous glands in the airway
  74. In the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system, the usual neurotransmitter at the terminal nerve sites is
  75. In the presynaptic neuron, _______ is converted to dopa and then to dopamine, which is converted by dopamine �-hydroxylase to norepinephrine, in the storage vesicles.
  76. The primary method of terminating the action of norepinephrine at the postsynaptic membrane is through a reuptake process, back into the presynaptic neuron. This is termed
  77. Part of terminating norepinephrine. The neurotransmitter action can be ended by two other mechanisms as well: uptake into tissue sites around the nerve terminal, a process termed
  78. norepinephrine can stimulate autoreceptors on the presynaptic neuron, which inhibits further neurotransmitter release. These autoreceptors have been identified as
    alpha 2 - receptors
  79. It is a mediated transport system, It is a low-affinity but high-capacity system, It is not as stereochemically specific, it is specific to catecholamines.
  80. The order of affinity for uptake -2 is:
  81. Chemicals structurally related to epinephrine are termed
  82. Two enzymes are available that can inactivate catecholamines such as epinephrine:
    catechol O-methyltransferase (COMT) and monoamine oxidase (MAO)
  83. The action of both enzymes on epinephrine (Figure 5-6) is important because COMT is responsible for ending the action of
    catecholamine bronchodilators.
  84. The effects of adrenergic receptors are mediated by coupling with
    G proteins
  85. These are identified as G protein- linked recptors.
    adrenergic recptors