Delta PPT Flashcards.txt

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PublicStellar
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135821
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Delta PPT Flashcards.txt
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2012-02-16 15:53:19
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Delta A330 330 Airbus
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Delta Airbus 330 Flashcards
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  1. AIRCRAFT GENERAL
    QUESTION 1: What is the minimum pavement width required for a 180� turn on the -200 and the -300?
    • AIRCRAFT GENERAL
    • ANSWER 1: The -200 requires 142 feet and the -300 requires 157 feet.
  2. AIRCRAFT GENERAL
    QUESTION 2: Where are the cabin emergency exit doors located?
    • AIRCRAFT GENERAL
    • ANSWER 2: The cabin emergency exits are located at doors 3 Left and 3 Right.
  3. AIRCRAFT GENERAL
    QUESTION 3: What is the status of door 1 right?
    • AIRCRAFT GENERAL
    • ANSWER 3: Door 1 right is closed and the slide is disarmed.
  4. AIRCRAFT GENERAL
    QUESTION 4: With the flight deck EMER EXIT LT switch in the OFF position, can the flight attendants still turn on the emergency lights?
    • AIRCRAFT GENERAL
    • ANSWER 4: Yes, the emergency lights can still be turned on by pushing the EMER pb on the forward flight attendant panel.
  5. AIRCRAFT GENERAL
    QUESTION 5: What does the SYS ON light signify on the OXYGEN panel?
    • AIRCRAFT GENERAL
    • ANSWER 5: The SYS ON light illuminates white when either an automatic or manual signal has been sent to deploy the passenger masks.
  6. AIRCRAFT GENERAL
    QUESTION 6: What are the implications of selecting the CREW SUPPLY pb OFF?
    • AIRCRAFT GENERAL
    • ANSWER 6: The supply valve closes. On the DOOR/OXY page the CKPT OXY indication becomes amber and a REGUL LO PR indication is displayed.
  7. AIRCRAFT GENERAL
    QUESTION 7: Why is an amber half frame to be depicted around the CKPT OXY psi value?
    • AIRCRAFT GENERAL
    • ANSWER 7: If the flight deck oxygen cylinder pressure drops below 1000 psi an amber half frame is displayed.
  8. AIR
    QUESTION 1: Is this the normal preflight position for the controls and indicators on the AIR panel?
    • AIR
    • ANSWER 1: No, the ENG BLEED pbs should be lights out and the PACK pbs show FAULT because there is no pneumatic air.
  9. AIR
    QUESTION 2: With the AIR panel in its current configuration, are the indications on the BLEED page correct?
    • AIR
    • ANSWER 2: No, When the APU BLEED pb is selected ON the crossbleed valve opens and the engine bleed valves close. The packs operate in HI flow.
  10. AIR
    QUESTION 3: The aircraft is in flight with the APU off. What would be the indications if the ENG 1 BLEED pb was selected to OFF?
    • AIR
    • ANSWER 3: The engine bleed and the pack flow valves close. An amber FAULT illuminates on the PACK 1 pb because the pack flow valve position disagrees with the selected position.
  11. AIR
    QUESTION 4: What is the significance of the white GND label on the BLEED page?
    • AIR
    • ANSWER 4: The white GND label is displayed at all times when the aircraft is on the ground. It also indicates where HP ground air enters the crossbleed duct.
  12. AIR
    QUESTION 5: PACK 1 and PACK 2 pb are selected OFF for an external air start. By referencing the BLEED page can it be determined if HP ground air connection is in use or not?
    • AIR
    • ANSWER 5: Yes, a PSI value is displayed. Therefore, with the engines off and the APU bleed pb OFF (lights out) the only possible source of bleed air is a HP ground connection.
  13. AIR
    QUESTION 6: ENG 1 BLEED is selected OFF for a crossbleed start. What would be the indications when the crossbleed switch is moved to OPEN?
    • AIR
    • ANSWER 6: The crossbleed valve opens and bleed air is supplied to Engine 1 and Pack 1. The amber FAULT light on the PACK 1 pb is extinguished.
  14. AIR
    QUESTION 7: What does the green arrow on Pack 1 represent?
    • AIR
    • ANSWER 7: The green arrow represents the pack bypass valve. If the compressor/turbine section of the pack fails the pack bypass valve opens and is displayed in green.
  15. AIR
    QUESTION 8: How would you increase the temperature in the cabin? What would be the indications on the COND page?
    • AIR
    • ANSWER 8: Increase cabin temperature by moving the CABIN switch to the 12 o�clock position [76�F]. The respective trim air valves will open and an increase in zone duct temperature will be observed.
  16. AIR
    QUESTION 9: What would be the effect on the air conditioning system if both channels of the zone controller fail?
    • AIR
    • ANSWER 9: The pack controllers set temperature at a fixed output of [68�F]. Flight deck and cabin zone temperature regulation is no longer possible. The PACK FLOW selector is inoperative.
  17. AIR
    QUESTION 10: How could you decrease the temperature in the FWD cargo compartment?
    • AIR
    • ANSWER 10: The temperature selector can be used to select the desired temperature. Another option would be to move the COOLING selector to MAX which opens the cold air valve fully and provides the maximum quantity of conditioned air.
  18. AIR
    QUESTION 11: How is the forward cargo compartment ventilated?
    • AIR
    • ANSWER 11: Cabin air is drawn through two inlet isolation valves and into the forward cargo compartment by an extract fan. Cold air is supplied by pack two through a cold air valve.
  19. AIR
    QUESTION 12: How is the aft cargo compartment heated?
    • AIR
    • ANSWER 12: An electric fan blows cabin air over an electric heating element and into the aft cargo compartment. An extract fan draws air out through an outlet isolation valve.
  20. AIR
    QUESTION 13: Which cargo compartment are suitable for live animals and plants?
    • AIR
    • ANSWER 13: Live animals and plants can be transported in either the forward or bulk compartments.
  21. AIR
    QUESTION 14: Prior to engine start, how is the avionics ventilation air vented overboard?
    • AIR
    • ANSWER 14: Prior to engine start the underfloor extract valve is closed and air is vented overboard through the overboard extract valve.
  22. AIR
    QUESTION 15: After engine start, how is the avionics ventilation air vented overboard?
    • AIR
    • ANSWER 15: After engine start the underfloor extract valve opens, the overboard extract valve closes and air is vented overboard through the FWD outflow valve.
  23. AIR
    QUESTION 16: What is the result of selecting the VENTILATION EXTRACT pb to OVRD?
    • AIR
    • ANSWER 16: Selecting the EXTRACT pb to OVRD partially opens the overboard extract valve closes the underfloor extract valve.
  24. AIR
    QUESTION 17: Lav and galley ventilation is fully automatic. How are the lavs and galley�s ventilated on the ground or when differential pressure is less than [1.0] psi?
    • AIR
    • ANSWER 17: On the ground or when differential pressure is less than [1.0] psi an electric extract fan draws cabin air from the lavs and galleys through an extract duct and exhausts it overboard.
  25. AIR
    QUESTION 18: How are the lavs and galley�s ventilated when the aircraft is pressurized?
    • AIR
    • ANSWER 18: When the aircraft is pressurized differential pressure forces air from the lavs and galleys through the extract duct and out the venturi.
  26. AIR
    QUESTION 19: What are the implications of selecting the DITCHING pb ON?
    • AIR
    • ANSWER 19: When the DITCHING pb is selected ON: Cabin fans shut off, Forward and aft outflow valves close, Overboard extract valve closes, Pack flow control valves close, Ram air inlet closes
  27. AIR
    QUESTION 20: You are diverting to an airport that is not in the NAV database. The airport elevation is 2000 feet. How would you select the proper landing elevation?
    • AIR
    • ANSWER 20: Move the LDG ELEV selector to 2000. The active pressurization controller then uses information from the LDG ELEV selector instead of the FMS.
  28. AIR
    QUESTION 21: Both pressurization controllers have failed. How would you gain manual control of the pressurization system?
    • AIR
    • ANSWER 21: Selecting the MODE SEL pb to MAN enables manual control of the outflow valves. Move the V/S CTL switch as required to maintain appropriate V/S and CAB ALT.
  29. ICE
    QUESTION 1: With the WING pb selected ON. What portion of the wing is heated?
    • ICE
    • ANSWER 1: Only the four outboard leading edge slats are deiced.
  30. ICE
    QUESTION 2: With the ENG pb selected ON. What portion of the engine is heated?
    • ICE
    • ANSWER 2: Only the nacelle leading edge is heated.
  31. ICE
    QUESTION 3: Under normal conditions what should be the indications on the BLEED page when the WING pb is selected to ON?
    • ICE
    • ANSWER 3: The inner and outer wing anti-ice valves are displayed in green and the ANTI ICE label is displayed in white.
  32. ICE
    QUESTION 4: What would be the indications if high or low pressure is detected at the left outer wing anti-ice valve when the WING pb is selected to ON?
    • ICE
    • ANSWER 4: On the BLEED page the left outer wing anti-ice valve and the ANTI ICE indication is depicted in amber. On the ANTI ICE panel a FAULT light illuminates on the WING pb.
  33. ICE
    QUESTION 5: The right inner wing anti-ice valve has failed open. Are the indications on the BLEED page correct?
    • ICE
    • ANSWER 5: No, the ANTI ICE label becomes amber when the position of a valve disagrees with the selected position.
  34. ICE
    QUESTION 6: With the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb in the AUTO (lights out) position. When are the windows and probes heated.
    • ICE
    • ANSWER 6: With the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb in the AUTO (lights out) position, the probes and windows are heated in flight and on the ground with at least one engine running (TAT probes are not heated on the ground).
  35. ICE
    QUESTION 7: Why would you select the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb to ON?
    • ICE
    • ANSWER 7: You would select the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb to ON if window and probe heat is required on the ground prior to engine start.
  36. ICE
    QUESTION 8: The ICE NOT DET memo indicates that ice has not been detected for approximately 3 minutes. What action should be taken?
    • ICE
    • ANSWER 8: Deselect the WING and ENG anti-ice pbs.
  37. ICE
    QUESTION 9: What parameters must be in place for the following ECAM caution messages to be generated?
    • ICE
    • ANSWER 9: Either probe has detected severe icing and all of the following condition are met: Aircraft altitude is greater than 1500 feet AGL., Total Air Temperature (TAT) is less then 10�C., Wing and ENG anti-ice is selected off (lights out).
  38. AUTOFLIGHT
    QUESTION 1: The Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) is arranged into five columns. What information does each column display?
    • AUTOFLIGHT
    • ANSWER 1:
  39. AUTOFLIGHT
    QUESTION 2: What is the significance of green, blue, and magenta indications on the FMA?
    • AUTOFLIGHT
    • ANSWER 2: Green = engaged modes, Blue = armed modes, Magenta = armed altitude constraints
  40. AUTOFLIGHT
    QUESTION 3: What is the significance of at white box around a FMA indication?
    • AUTOFLIGHT
    • ANSWER 3: Each new or changed annunciation is boxed in white for 10 seconds as an attention getter.
  41. AUTOFLIGHT
    QUESTION 4: The ILS approach has been armed and AP1 and AP2 are engaged. What is the preferred method for disengaging the autopilot? How will the indications on the FMA change as a result?
    • AUTOFLIGHT
    • ANSWER 4: To disconnect the autopilot, push the autopilot disconnect/takeover pb on the sidestick. The aircraft approach capability is reduced from CAT3 DUAL to CAT1 and the AP1+2 indication in FMA column 5 is removed.
  42. AUTOFLIGHT
    QUESTION 5: After an ILS approach is armed the landing capability is displayed in FMA column 4. CAT 3 DUAL indicates fail operational autoland capability. What would be the indications if AP 2 failed?
    • AUTOFLIGHT
    • ANSWER 5: CAT 3 DUAL would change to CAT 3 SINGLE indicating fail passive autoland capability. If there is a subsequent failure an autoland may not be possible.
  43. AUTOFLIGHT
    QUESTION 6: Review the engagement status of the flight directors. Is this the normal indication? If not, what action must be taken?
    • AUTOFLIGHT
    • ANSWER 6: The normal flight director indication is 1FD2 (both flight directors engaged). The FD 2 must be selected on.
  44. AUTOFLIGHT
    QUESTION 7: With two engines operating. What is the active range of the autothrust system?
    • AUTOFLIGHT
    • ANSWER 7: With two engines operating, the active range is from just above idle up to and including the CL detent. NOTE: Following an engine failure the autothrust active range is extended up to the FLX/MCT detent.
  45. AUTOFLIGHT
    QUESTION 8: After takeoff, when does the autothrust system change from armed to active? What are the FMA indications?
    • AUTOFLIGHT
    • ANSWER 8: At the thrust reduction altitude (1500� AGL), the thrust levers are moved into the CL detent. The A/THR indication in FMA column 5 changes from blue (armed) to white (active) and the active autothrust mode is displayed in FMA column 1.
  46. AUTOFLIGHT
    QUESTION 9: THR CLB is indicated in FMA column 1. Is the airplanes flight guidance using pitch or thrust to control airspeed?
    • AUTOFLIGHT
    • ANSWER 9: THR CLB indicates a fixed thrust setting. Airspeed is being controlled by pitch. NOTE: View some common fixed autothrust indications on the FMA.
  47. AUTOFLIGHT
    QUESTION 10: SPEED is indicated in FMA column 1. Is the airplanes flight guidance using pitch or thrust to control airspeed?
    • AUTOFLIGHT
    • ANSWER 10: SPEED indicates a variable thrust setting. Airspeed is being controlled by thrust. NOTE: View the possible variable autothrust indications on the FMA.
  48. AUTOFLIGHT
    QUESTION 11: What would be the FMA indications if both flight directors were selected OFF?
    • AUTOFLIGHT
    • ANSWER 11: If flight guidance is selected off while in a fixed thrust mode (THR CLB), autothrust changes to a variable thrust mode (SPEED) and 1FD2 is removed from FMA column 5.
  49. AUTOFLIGHT
    QUESTION 12: During approach you are flying a managed speed of 143 knots. What would be the indications if you change from managed to selected speed?
    • AUTOFLIGHT
    • ANSWER 12: Pulling the FCU speed knob changes the speed from managed to selected speed. The speed target changes from magenta to blue, the current speed is indicated on the FCU and the managed speed dot is no longer illuminated.
  50. AUTOFLIGHT
    QUESTION 13: The airplane is in managed NAV. ATC requests a heading of 270�. How would you comply and what would be the indications.
    • AUTOFLIGHT
    • ANSWER 13: Comply by pulling the FCU heading knob and selecting 270�. FMA column 3 changes from NAV to HDG, the selected heading is displayed on the FCU and the managed guidance dot is no longer displayed.
  51. AUTOFLIGHT
    QUESTION 14: The airplane is level at FL330. How would you initiate a managed descent to FL180? What would be the indications?
    • AUTOFLIGHT
    • ANSWER 14: To initiate a managed descent, select 18000 on the FCU and push. FMA column 2 changes from ALT to DES and thrust changes from a variable to a fixed thrust mode. The green light is extinguished from the ALT hold pb and a managed guidance dot is displayed on the FCU.
  52. AUTOFLIGHT
    QUESTION 15: The airplane is flying a selected vertical speed of +500 fpm. How would you increase your vertical speed to +800 fpm? What would be the indications?
    • AUTOFLIGHT
    • ANSWER 15: Adjust vertical speed by selecting +800 with the vertical speed knob. The selected vertical speed is displayed in FMA column 2 and on the FCU.
  53. FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS
    QUESTION 1: Describe the difference between a DMC failure and a Display Unit failure.
    • FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS
    • ANSWER 1: A DMC failure will be indicated by the words �INVALID DATA� in amber. A display unit failure will be indicated by a blank screen. NOTE: DMC failures are identified by ECAM while DU failures are not. See the QRH unannunciated tab for DU failures.
  54. FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS
    QUESTION 2: What happens if the Captain�s outer DU fails?
    • FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS
    • ANSWER 2: The PFD will automatically switch to the inner DU because it is a higher priority.
  55. FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS
    QUESTION 3: Following the previous failure (Captain outer DU ), would it be possible for the Captain to view the ND?
    • FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS
    • ANSWER 3: Yes, the Captain can view the ND by pushing the PFD/ND pb.
  56. FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS
    QUESTION 4: In the normal DMC layout (all systems operational) DMC 1 provides data to the Captain�s instruments and DMC 2 provides data to the First Officer�s instruments. What happens if the Captain selects DMC 2 on the EFIS DMC selector?
    • FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS
    • ANSWER 4: The message �EFIS SINGLE SOURCE 2� will be displayed on both FMAs. EFIS selections are now made through the First Officer�s EFIS control panel.
  57. FLIGHT MANAGEMENT
    QUESTION 1: What does the �ON BAT� light indicate on the ADIRS panel?
    • FLIGHT MANAGEMENT
    • ANSWER 1: �ON BAT� illuminates when one or more IRs is supplied only by the aircraft batteries. It also illuminates for a few seconds at the beginning of a full alignment as part of the self test.
  58. FLIGHT MANAGEMENT
    QUESTION 2: What is the function of the ADR and IR pbs on the ADIRS panel?
    • FLIGHT MANAGEMENT
    • ANSWER 2: Selecting an ADR or IR pb OFF turns off only the respective ADR or IR. NOTE: Turning the Mode Selector (knob) to OFF turns BOTH the ADR and IR OFF.
  59. FLIGHT MANAGEMENT
    QUESTION 3: Identify the Air Data information on the PFD and ND.
    • FLIGHT MANAGEMENT
    • ANSWER 3:
  60. FLIGHT MANAGEMENT
    QUESTION 4: Identify the Inertial Reference information on the PFD and ND.
    • FLIGHT MANAGEMENT
    • ANSWER 4:
  61. FLIGHT MANAGEMENT
    QUESTION 5: While in cruise flight, a message �SELECT TRUE REF� is displayed on the ND and the MCDU scratchpad. What does this message mean?
    • FLIGHT MANAGEMENT
    • ANSWER 5: The crew should select the NORTH REF pb to TRUE. All headings will now be in reference to true heading.
  62. FLIGHT MANAGEMENT
    QUESTION 6: While in cruise flight, the message �GPS PRIMARY LOST� appears on the ND and the MCDU scratchpad. What does this message mean?
    • FLIGHT MANAGEMENT
    • ANSWER 6: This means that �GPS PRIMARY� is not available or the navigation mode is not GPS/IRS. NOTE: �GPS PRIMARY� on the PROG page will be absent in this condition.
  63. FLIGHT MANAGEMENT
    QUESTION 7: What does ACCY LOW on the PROG page indicate?
    • FLIGHT MANAGEMENT
    • ANSWER 7: LOW accuracy on the PROG page indicates that the ESTIMATED position is greater than the REQUIRED value.
  64. COMMUNICATIONS
    QUESTION 1: What happens when the NAV key (guarded) on the RMP is selected and illuminated?
    • COMMUNICATIONS
    • ANSWER 1: This indicates that back-up navigation tuning has been selected. The VOR, ILS and ADF receivers are now controlled by the RMP rather than the FMGECs.
  65. COMMUNICATIONS
    QUESTION 2: Describe the three positions of the INT/RAD switch on the ACP.
    • COMMUNICATIONS
    • ANSWER 2: INT (full forward): �Hot� mic. Hands-free ground and flight interphone transmission is available when using a boomset or oxygen mask microphone. For reception, the INT reception knob must be extended., Neutral: The boomset and oxygen mask microphones are disconnected for ground and flight interphone transmission. Reception is not affected., RAD (full aft): The spring loaded RAD switch must be pushed and held to operate. It is used as a push-to-talk on the boomset or oxygen mask microphones through the channel selected by the transmission key.
  66. COMMUNICATIONS
    QUESTION 3: What does the flashing ATT light indicate on the ACP panel?
    • COMMUNICATIONS
    • ANSWER 3: The ATT light on the ACP flashes amber, accompanied by a buzzer, when a call is received from a flight attendant station. For a normal call, the ATT light extinguishes after a short time. For an emergency call, the ATT light will only extinguish if the RESET key is pushed.
  67. COMMUNICATIONS
    QUESTION 4: What is the function of the voice key on the ACP?
    • COMMUNICATIONS
    • ANSWER 4: The VOICE key is used to inhibit the navaid Morse code audio identifier signals. The recorded voice navaid identifier will still be heard. When pushed, a green light above the key illuminates and the Morse code is filtered out. This configuration is used when voice reception is desired through a navaid.
  68. COMMUNICATIONS
    QUESTION 5: When would the audio switching knob be used?
    • COMMUNICATIONS
    • ANSWER 5: In case of a failure of the Captain�s or First Officer�s ACP, the AUDIO switching knob replaces the failed ACP with ACP 3. Moving the switch from NORM deactivates the third occupant�s boomset and oxygen mask microphone. EXAMPLE: If ACP 1 fails, select CAPT ON 3. The Captain will now make all ACP selections with ACP 3. This changes the active ACP only. The RMP, headset and push to talk switches are not affected.
  69. COMMUNICATIONS
    QUESTION 6: What are the cabin indications when the EMER pb is pushed on the CALLS panel?
    • COMMUNICATIONS
    • ANSWER 6: When pushed, an emergency call from the flight deck is initiated. A pair of red lights at all attendant call panels illuminate, A �CAPT PRIO CALL� message appears at all the attendant indicating panels. Three high/low chimes sound through all cabin speakers
  70. ELECTRICS
    QUESTION 1: Is the electrical panel is properly configured for the preflight checklist?
    • ELECTRICS
    • ANSWER 1: No. The GEN pbs should be selected (lights out). When selected, the amber fault lights will illuminate. This is a normal indication when the engine generators are NOT being driven by the IDG�s.
  71. ELECTRICS
    QUESTION 2: According to this ECAM ELEC DC page, what is the status of AC busses 1 and 2?
    • ELECTRICS
    • ANSWER 2: The amber AC 1 and AC 2 labels indicate that the AC buses are not powered, therefore, their respective TRs are also not powered.
  72. ELECTRICS
    QUESTION 3: According to the ECAM DC ELEC page, what is powering the DC ESS bus?
    • ELECTRICS
    • ANSWER 3: The EMER GEN is powering the DC ESS bus through the ESS TR.
  73. ELECTRICS
    QUESTION 4: What is the status of GEN 1?
    • ELECTRICS
    • ANSWER 4: GEN 1 has been selected to OFF. As a result, AC 2 is now powering AC 1, which in turn, powers the AC ESS bus.
  74. ELECTRICS
    QUESTION 5: What do the indications on the GALLEY pb mean?
    • ELECTRICS
    • ANSWER 5: AUTO (lights out): Galleys are powered unless a generator fails or an overload is detected., OFF: All galleys are shed and the water/waste drain mast ice protection is lost., FAULT: Illuminates amber if an overload is detected and shedding did not occur.
  75. ELECTRICS
    QUESTION 6: Currently, AC 1 is being powered by EXT B and AC 2 is being powered by EXT A. How will this change after the APU is started?
    • ELECTRICS
    • ANSWER 6: After the APU is started, AC 1 will be powered by the APU GEN and AC 2 would continue to be powered by EXT A. NOTE: The blue AUTO light on the EXT B pb remains illuminated
  76. ELECTRICS
    QUESTION 7: The aircraft is at the gate just prior to pushback with the APU running. Is it okay for the ground crew to remove external power at this time?
    • ELECTRICS
    • ANSWER 7: No, first deselect EXT power so that the EXT pbs indicate AVAIL in green.
  77. ELECTRICS
    QUESTION 8: What condition will cause the EMER GEN to activate automatically?
    • ELECTRICS
    • ANSWER 8: If both the AC 1 and AC 2 busses are lost, the EMER GEN automatically activates. The EMER GEN is powered by the GREEN HYD system. NOTE: This does NOT necessarily mean that the RAT is deployed.
  78. ELECTRICS
    QUESTION 9: Why is it important to turn the BAT pbs to OFF before conducting the BAT voltage check during preflight?
    • ELECTRICS
    • ANSWER 9: The BAT pbs must be turned OFF so that the volt meter will read the true voltage of the batteries in their natural state. With the pbs ON, the batteries could be charging or discharging.
  79. ENGINES
    QUESTION 1: The APU is off. What are indications when the APU is available to supply bleed air or electrical power?
    • ENGINES
    • ANSWER 1: When the APU is started and ready to supply bleed air or electrical power a green AVAIL light is displayed on the APU START pb and on the APU page. An APU AVAIL memo is also displayed on the E/WD.
  80. ENGINES
    QUESTION 2: The APU is running. What would be the indications if the APU BLEED pb was selected ON?
    • ENGINES
    • ANSWER 2: The APU bleed valve opens. EGT temperature increases and a APU BLEED memo is displayed on the E/WD.
  81. ENGINES
    QUESTION 3: Currently, the APU GEN is the only source of power to the airplane. Is APU fire protection available?
    • ENGINES
    • ANSWER 3: No, with the APU as the only source of AC power BAT 1 and BAT 2 must be ON (lights out) for fire protection to be available.
  82. ENGINES
    QUESTION 4: With the APU bleed ON and engines OFF, what are the indications on the ENGINE page when the ENG START selector is placed in IGN START.
    • ENGINES
    • ANSWER 4: When the ENG START selector is placed in IGN START, the start valve and air pressure indications replace the NAC temperature indications.
  83. ENGINES
    QUESTION 5: What are the indications on the ENGINE page when the ENG 1 MASTER switch is selected ON.
    • ENGINES
    • ANSWER 5: The start valve opens and fuel used is reset to zero for the engine being started.
  84. ENGINES
    QUESTION 6: Identify the circled indications on the ECAM E/WD.
    • ENGINES
    • ANSWER 6:
  85. ENGINES
    QUESTION 7: Based on the E/WD, is the FADEC being powered by AC power or by its own dedicated alternator?
    • ENGINES
    • ANSWER 7: The FADEC�s alternator takes over automatically when engine speed is above 5% N2.
  86. FIRE
    QUESTION 1: What is the significance of the SQUIB and DISCH lights on the APU and ENG fire panels?
    • FIRE
    • ANSWER 1: SQUIB illuminates white to indicate that the respective squib is armed. DISCH illuminates amber if the respective fire extinguisher bottle has discharged.
  87. FIRE
    QUESTION 2: The APU is running. Can an APU fire test be accomplished?
    • FIRE
    • ANSWER 2: Yes, pressing the TEST pb has no effect on a running APU.
  88. FIRE
    QUESTION 3: Under what circumstances would the SQUIB light illuminate on the CARGO SMOKE panel?
    • FIRE
    • ANSWER 3: SQUIB illuminates white briefly if the respective AGENT pb is pushed.
  89. FIRE
    QUESTION 4: Why is the BTL 1 DISCH indicator illuminated white?
    • FIRE
    • ANSWER 4: BTL 1(2) illuminates white when the respective bottle is completely discharged. The complete discharge of bottle 1 takes approximately 60 seconds. Discharge of Bottle 2 is metered over a period of 4 hours.
  90. FIRE
    QUESTION 5: A fire has occurred in the AFT/BULK cargo compartment. After discharging the bottles the red SMOKE light remains on the AFT AGENT pb. Why?
    • FIRE
    • ANSWER 5: After a smoke has been detected the respective compartment is not ventilated and the smoke detectors are actually particle detectors, the smoke warning my remain even if the smoke source is eliminated. NOTE: Checking the temperature in the respective compartment is the indication that a fire still exists or not.
  91. FIRE
    QUESTION 6: If avionics smoke is detected, the ECAM directs the crew to select the EXTRACT pb on the VENTILATION panel to OVRD. What is the result of this action?
    • FIRE
    • ANSWER 6: When the EXTRACT pb is selected to OVRD the underfloor extract valve is closed and the overboard extract valve is partially opened. This allows the smoke to be ventilated overboard.
  92. FLIGHT CONTROLS
    QUESTION 1: What is the difference between configurations 1+F and 1?
    • FLIGHT CONTROLS
    • ANSWER 1:
  93. FLIGHT CONTROLS
    QUESTION 2: The flaps are up and the ailerons are in the neutral position. What would be the indications on the F/CTL page if Flaps 2 was selected?
    • FLIGHT CONTROLS
    • ANSWER 2: In configurations 1+F, 2, 3, and FULL the ailerons droop from the neutral position.
  94. FLIGHT CONTROLS
    QUESTION 3: What would be the indications on the E/WD if the flap handle was selected to configuration 0 while flying an airspeed too slow for configuration 0?
    • FLIGHT CONTROLS
    • ANSWER 3: A LOCK pulses green when Slats Alpha/Speed Lock function is active. The slat will remain extended until speed increases, then will automatically retract to the selected position.
  95. FLIGHT CONTROLS
    QUESTION 4: While flying an approach airspeed increases to Vmo. What would be the indications on the E/WD if Flap Load Relief System (FLRS) becomes active for the current configuration?
    • FLIGHT CONTROLS
    • ANSWER 4: FLRS is an automatic protection that moves the flaps to one position less than the selected configuration. F RELIEF pulses green indicating that FLRS is active. FLRS is only available for configurations 2, 3, and FULL.
  96. FLIGHT CONTROLS
    QUESTION 5: Identify the circled indications.
    • FLIGHT CONTROLS
    • ANSWER 5:
  97. FLIGHT CONTROLS
    QUESTION 6: What would be the indications on the F/CTL page if the Blue hydraulic system failed?
    • FLIGHT CONTROLS
    • ANSWER 6: If the Blue hydraulic system fails all Blue system indications turn amber. Spoilers 2 and 3 are failed retracted.
  98. FLIGHT CONTROLS
    QUESTION 7: What would be the indications on the F/CTL page if PRIM 2 failed.
    • FLIGHT CONTROLS
    • ANSWER 7: If PRIM 2 fails the PRIM 2 indication turns amber. Position of the number 4 spoilers cannot be determined.
  99. FLIGHT CONTROLS
    QUESTION 8: Does the pilot have control of the rudder trim when the autopilot is ON?
    • FLIGHT CONTROLS
    • ANSWER 8: No, when the autopilot is ON, the trip knob and RESET button are deactivated and the FMGEC computes the rudder trim orders.
  100. FLIGHT CONTROLS
    QUESTION 9: When the speed brakes are extended a green SPEED BRK message is displayed on the ECAM E/WD. Under what circumstance would this message turn amber?
    • FLIGHT CONTROLS
    • ANSWER 9: The message becomes amber in flight if one or both engines are not at idle thrust for more than 50 seconds with speed brakes extended.
  101. FLIGHT CONTROLS
    QUESTION 10: Based on the following indications. Is the CA or FO holding their respective takeover pb?
    • FLIGHT CONTROLS
    • ANSWER 10: The red arrow points to the pilot that is pushing and holding their respective takeover pb. The green light illuminates if the other pilots sidestick is sensed out of neutral. In this case the CA is holding his/her takeover pb and the FO�s sidestick is sensed out of neutral.
  102. FLIGHT CONTROLS
    QUESTION 11: Based on the PFD shown, what flight control law is the airplane operating in?
    • FLIGHT CONTROLS
    • ANSWER 11: The airplane is operating in normal law. Green equal signs are present at 67� of bank, at 30� & -15� of pitch, and a few knots above Vmo/Mmo. The range where alpha protection is active is displayed on the airspeed indicator as a black and amber band.
  103. FLIGHT CONTROLS
    QUESTION 12: The airplane is in normal law. Where is alpha floor depicted on the airspeed indicator?
    • FLIGHT CONTROLS
    • ANSWER 12: Alpha floor is a predictive autothrust function and is not depicted on the airspeed indicator.
  104. FLIGHT CONTROLS
    QUESTION 13: Based on the PFD shown, what flight control law is the airplane operating in?
    • FLIGHT CONTROLS
    • ANSWER 13: The airplane is operating in alternate law. Amber XXs replace the green equal signs. Alpha prot and alpha max are replaced by a red and black striped stall warning indication.
  105. FLIGHT CONTROLS
    QUESTION 14: Based on the PFD shown, what flight control law is the airplane operating in?
    • FLIGHT CONTROLS
    • ANSWER 14: The airplane is operating in direct law. An amber USE MAN PITCH TRIM message is displayed on the PFD as a reminder that automatic pitch trim is lost.
  106. FLIGHT CONTROLS
    QUESTION 15: Under what circumstances would you see the following messages on the PFD?
    • FLIGHT CONTROLS
    • ANSWER 15: If a loss of control of both elevators is detected, a red MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY message is displayed on the PFD. This is a warning that the THS is the only flight control surface available for pitch control.
  107. FUEL
    QUESTION 1: What does the �REFUEL IN PROCESS� memo indicate?
    • FUEL
    • ANSWER 1: �REFUEL IN PROCESS� is displayed in green when both engines are shut down and either refuel panel is open. �REFUEL PNL� appears in amber after engine start when either refuel panel is open. NOTE: These messages do NOT indicate that the aircraft is actually receiving fuel.
  108. FUEL
    QUESTION 2: Is this fuel panel properly set for the Pre-flight checklist?
    • FUEL
    • ANSWER 2: No, all fuel pumps should be turned OFF. The OFF light should be illuminated.
  109. FUEL
    QUESTION 3: What is the function of the INR TK SPLIT valves?
    • FUEL
    • ANSWER 3: When selected to ON (light illuminates) the selected inner tank split valve is selected closed. Fuel may be used from either tank division. NOTE: The inner tank split valves are NOT depicted on the ECAM FUEL page.
  110. FUEL
    QUESTION 4: What does the �TRIM TK XFR� memo indicate on the E/WD?
    • FUEL
    • ANSWER 4: �TRIM TK XFR� indicates a trim tank transfer (forward or aft) is taking place. NOTE: On the FUEL page, the open green arrow heads symbolize an AUTO forward transfer.
  111. FUEL
    QUESTION 5: Identify the circled indications on the ECAM FUEL page.
    • FUEL
    • ANSWER 5:
  112. FUEL
    QUESTION 6: Identify the circled indications on the ECAM fuel page.
    • FUEL
    • ANSWER 6:
  113. FUEL
    QUESTION 7: What is the condition of the R1 fuel pump?
    • FUEL
    • ANSWER 7: The R1 fuel pump is on but output pressure is low. As a result, the R STBY pump is now running.
  114. HYDRAULICS
    QUESTION 1: What do the ELEC pump OFF pbs do?
    • HYDRAULICS
    • ANSWER 1: When selected OFF, manual or automatic operation of the respective ELEC pump is inhibited.
  115. HYDRAULICS
    QUESTION 2: According to the HYD page, What is the status of the GREEN HYD system?
    • HYDRAULICS
    • ANSWER 2: The GREEN HYD system is currently operating, however; the system fluid level is below the normal range.
  116. HYDRAULICS
    QUESTION 3: While at the gate just prior to pushback, you notice the YELLOW ELEC pump pb ON light illuminate. How would you explain this?
    • HYDRAULICS
    • ANSWER 3: The aircraft cargo doors are powered by the YELLOW HYD system. It is normal to see the YELLOW ELEC pump pb illuminate when the cargo doors are being operated. All other YELLOW SYS users are deactivated.
  117. HYDRAULICS
    QUESTION 4: Under which conditions will the GREEN ELEC pump operate automatically?
    • HYDRAULICS
    • ANSWER 4: The GREEN ELEC pump will operate automatically following an engine failure (ENG 1 or ENG 2) and will assist with gear retraction. The ELEC pump will run for 25 seconds starting when the gear handle is raised.
  118. HYDRAULICS
    QUESTION 5: Under which conditions will the YELLOW ELEC pump automatically activate?
    • HYDRAULICS
    • ANSWER 5: The YELLOW ELEC pump will automatically activate following an ENGINE 2 failure, provided: Flap lever is NOT set at zero, GREEN ELEC pump is not running, and Aircraft speed is above 100 kts.
  119. HYDRAULICS
    QUESTION 6: Under which conditions will the BLUE ELEC pump automatically activate?
    • HYDRAULICS
    • ANSWER 6: The blue ELEC pump will automatically activate to assist with rudder control following: ENGINE 1 failure and PRIM 1 failure, or ENGINE 1 failure and PRIM 3 failure
  120. HYDRAULICS
    QUESTION 7: What does the white tick mark on the GREEN system reservoir fill range indicate?
    • HYDRAULICS
    • ANSWER 7: The white tick mark indicates the minimum fluid level for landing gear extension. If the fluid level drops below this minimum level, the single white tick mark changes to two amber tick marks.
  121. LANDING GEAR
    QUESTION 1: On the AUTO/BRK panel, what do the blue ON and green DECEL lights indicate?
    • LANDING GEAR
    • ANSWER 1: ON: Illuminates blue when the respective autobrakes setting is armed. DECEL: Illuminates green if the respective autobrakes setting is active and actual aircraft deceleration reaches 80% of the target rate for LO or MED or a fixed rate for MAX.
  122. LANDING GEAR
    QUESTION 2: What do the red UNLK and green triangles indicate on the LDG GEAR panel?
    • LANDING GEAR
    • ANSWER 2: UNLK: Illuminate red if there is a disagreement between selected gear position and the actual gear position. Landing gear indicator lights (triangles): Illuminate green when LGCIU 1 detects that the respective gear is downlocked. NOTE: The LDG GEAR panel references LGCIU 1 ONLY. If LGCIU 1 is INOP, see ECAM WHEEL page for gear down indications.
  123. LANDING GEAR
    QUESTION 3: What effects will turning the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch to OFF have during landing?
    • LANDING GEAR
    • ANSWER 3: When selected OFF, both channels of the BSCU are deactivated. The following systems are lost: Normal Braking, Antiskid, Nosewheel Steering, Autobrakes
  124. LANDING GEAR
    QUESTION 4: Which brake system is indicated on the brake pressure indicator?
    • LANDING GEAR
    • ANSWER 4: The brake pressure indicator provides indications of blue hydraulic system pressure if normal braking is unavailable or the parking brake is set. NOTE: The top of the green arcs represent 1,000psi. This is the maximum recommended brake pressure to prevent locking of the brakes if the antiskid system is INOP.
  125. LANDING GEAR
    QUESTION 5: What does the �N/W DISC� memo represent?
    • LANDING GEAR
    • ANSWER 5: This memo is displayed in green when the towing lever on the nose gear is in the TOWING position. It is displayed in amber if an engine is running.
  126. LANDING GEAR
    QUESTION 6: What does the green arc above the brake temperature indicate?
    • LANDING GEAR
    • ANSWER 6: A green arc appears above the hottest brake when any one brake temperature exceeds 100�C. The arc appears in amber when a brake temperature exceeds 300�C. NOTE: an ECAM caution is also generated over 300�C.
  127. WARNING SYSTEMS
    QUESTION 1: What is the difference between a Level 1 caution and a Level 2 caution.
    • WARNING SYSTEMS
    • ANSWER 1: Level 1 caution: Includes system failures that lead to a loss of redundancy and only require crew monitoring. There are NO aural indications for Level 1 caution messages., Level 2 caution: Requires crew awareness of the configuration or failure, but immediate action is not necessary. Indications: Single chime. Amber MASTER CAUT light, Amber ECAM caution message on E/WD, Relevant system page appears on SD
  128. WARNING SYSTEMS
    QUESTION 2: While in flight, a Master Warning has appeared on the E/WD. What would happen if the EMER CANCEL pb was pressed?
    • WARNING SYSTEMS
    • ANSWER 2: For a Master Warning, pushing the EMER CANCEL pb does the following: Cancels the aural warning for as long as the condition exists, Extinguishes the MASTER WARN lights, Does NOT affect the ECAM display (the message remains displayed)
  129. WARNING SYSTEMS
    QUESTION 3: While in flight, a Master CAUTION has appeared on the E/WD. What would happen if the EMER CANCEL pb was pressed?
    • WARNING SYSTEMS
    • ANSWER 3: For a Master Caution pushing the EMER CANCEL pb does the following: Cancels the MASTER CAUT lights. The ECAM message is moved to the STATUS page under CANCELLED CAUTION. NOTE: To recall a cancelled caution, the RCL key must be pressed and held for 3 seconds.
  130. WARNING SYSTEMS
    QUESTION 4: Is the aircraft properly configured for takeoff?
    • WARNING SYSTEMS
    • ANSWER 4: No, blue action items need to be accomplished prior to takeoff. When the checklist is complete, the entire message will be displayed in green.
  131. WARNING SYSTEMS
    QUESTION 5: What does the T.O. INHIBIT memo indicate?
    • WARNING SYSTEMS
    • ANSWER 5: During the takeoff and landing phases of flight, certain non-critical cautions are inhibited to prevent distracting the crew. NOTE: These messages are only a reminder that should certain failures occur during these critical phases of flight, the associated caution message will be inhibited. They do NOT indicate that a caution is currently being inhibited.
  132. WARNING SYSTEMS
    QUESTION 6: What doe the boxed ECAM title indicate?
    • WARNING SYSTEMS
    • ANSWER 6: The boxed title identifies a primary failure. The systems affected by that failure are depicted on the right side of the display, preceded by an asterisk.
  133. WARNING SYSTEMS
    QUESTION 7: Why is the �TCAS STBY� memo displayed on the E/WD?
    • WARNING SYSTEMS
    • ANSWER 8: ALT RPTG must be selected ON to display all other, proximate, TAs and RAs on the ND. NOTE: Having either the Transponder or TCAS selected to STBY will also cause �TCAS STBY� to be displayed.
  134. WARNING SYSTEMS
    QUESTION 9: Identify the following traffic symbols on the ND.
    • WARNING SYSTEMS
    • ANSWER 9:

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