exam 2

The flashcards below were created by user studysuccess on FreezingBlue Flashcards.

  1. peritoneal fluid is obtained from which body cavity?
    A) thoracic cavity
    B) abdominal cavity
    C) cranial cavity
    D) pelvic cavity
    B) abdominal cavity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. icterus is most commonly encountered by patients with
    A) pancreatic cancer
    B) liver disease
    C) kidney disease
    D) congestive heart failure
    B) liver disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. hemolysis is caused by
    A) high amounts of fat in the blood
    B) ruptured red blood cells
    C) using too large a needle
    D) jaundice
    E) ruptured red blood cells and using too large a needle
    B) ruptured red blood cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. bilirubin will degrade in a blood sample if not
    A) protected rom light immediately
    B) refrigerated immediately
    C) centrifuged immediately
    D) frozen immediately
    A) protected rom light immediately
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. in primary hemostasis what is adhesion?
    A) platelets group together
    B) clotting factors are activated
    C) platelets become sticky
    D) fibrin is broken down to FDP's
    C) platelets become sticky
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. which of the follwoing tests is most likely to be ordered STAT
    A) erythrocyte sedimentation rate
    B) glucose tolerance test
    C) bilirubin
    D) electrolytes
    D) electrolytes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. which of the following urine specimen is PREFERRED for a routine urinalysis:
    A) foley catheter specimen
    B) 24 hour timed specimen
    C) random specimen
    D) clean-catch min-streem specimen
    e) none of the above
    D) clean-catch min-streem specimen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Ms. Thompson comes to lab with an order from her physician for a urine pregnancy test. What type of specimen should she collect?
    A) random urine specimen
    B) mini-catheterized specimen
    C) clean-catch mid-stream urine specimen
    D) 24 hour timed urine specimen
    A) random urine specimen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. the term polyuria refers to a condition in which
    A) there are polyps in the urine
    B) the patient is producing a greater than normal amount of urine
    C) the patient is producing a smaller than normal amount of urine
    D) the patient is not producing any urine
    B) the patient is producing a greater than normal amount of urine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. semen specimens submitted to the laboratory for a fertility analysis must be delivered to the lab within:
    A) 45 minutes
    B) 60 minutes
    C) 30 minutes
    D) there is no time limit
    C) 30 minutes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. T/F most condoms are acceptable to use when collecting semen specimens for a fertility analysis.
    F
  12. A L/S ratio performed on amniotic fluid is a test to determine:
    A) hemolytic disease of the newborn
    B) fetal lung maturity
    C) none of these
    D) neural tube defects
    E) cancerous cells in the amniotic fluid
    B) fetal lung maturity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. the presence of crystals is an important diagnostic feature of which fluid:
    A) ascites fluid
    B) pleural fluid
    C) pericardial fluid
    D) synovial fluid
    D) synovial fluid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. semen specimen submitted to the laboratory for postvasectomy check must be delivered to the lab within:
    a) 60 minutes
    b) 45 minutes
    c) 30 minutes
    d) there is no time limit
    e) none of the above
    e) none of the above
  15. urine specimens should be refrigerated if there will be a delay in transit to the lab for more than ___ minutes
    A) 15
    B) 30
    C) 60
    D) 120
    C) 60
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. a Creatinine Clearance test has been ordered on Mr. Anuria. What type of specimen should be collected for this test?
    A) catheterized urine specimen
    B) twenty four hour urine specimen and gold top serum tube
    C) first a.m. urine specimen
    D) twenty four hour urine specimen
    E) gold top serum tube.
    F) random urine specimen
    B) twenty four hour urine specimen and gold top serum tube
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. when preparing the venipuncture site for procuring blood to be used for a blood culture what additional preparation is used?
    A) antibacterial soap
    B) alcohol
    C) iodine
    e) none of these
    C) iodine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. the normal volume of blood produced for a blood culture set is:
    A) 150ml
    B) 30ml
    C) 5ml
    D) 10ml
    D) 10ml
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. T/F: the liquid portion of a red top tube is plasma
    F
  20. which of the following tests may require a "chain of custody" documentation when collected?
    A) TDM
    B) urine drug screen
    C) blood culture
    D) crossmatch
    B) urine drug screen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. which of the following tubes will produce a plasma sample that, after centrifugation, will be separated from the blood cells by a gel barrier?
    A) gold-top
    B) purple-top
    C) red-top
    D) mint-top
    E) mint-top and gold-top
    D) mint-top
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. bacteria that requires oxygen to grow are classified as:
    A) aerobic
    B) facultative anaerobic
    C) normal flora
    D) anaerobic
    e) none of the above
    A) aerobic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. a trough level of a medication represents:
    A) the level of toxicity of that medication
    B) the lowest concentration of a medication before the next does
    C) the lowest concentration of a medication before the first dose
    D) the highest concentration of medication after the last dose given
    B) the lowest concentration of a medication before the next does
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. which of the following fasting glucose results represents the cut-off limit for beginning a three hour glucose tolerance test?
    A) >200 mg/dl
    B) >400 mg/dl
    C) >300 mg/dl
    D) >100 mg/dl
    A) >200 mg/dl
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. lipemia is a condition that results from:
    A) high levels of hemolysis.
    B) high levels of bilirubin in the blood.
    C) blood that has refluxed back into the patient's vein from a vacutainer tube.
    D) high quantities of fats in the blood.
    D) high quantities of fats in the blood.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. which of the following situations may result in an icteric specimen:
    A) procuring blood with a 20cc syringe and a 23G needle
    B) high fat diet
    C) hepatitis b
    d) procuring blood form above a running I.V.
    C) hepatitis b
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. specimens take longer to centrifuge in a horizontal head centrifuge compared to an angle head centrifuge because:
    A) the particles have a longer distance to travel
    B) horizontal head centrifuges spin slower than angle head centrifuges
    C) the particles loose density as they spin
    D) the radius of horizontal head centrifuges is smaller than angle head centrifuges
    A) the particles have a longer distance to travel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. T/F glas tubes naturally activate clotting so no clot activator is necessary
    T
  29. a Rh negative mother is given what injection within 72 hours of giving birth?
    A) none of these
    B) depo-provera
    C) rhogam
    D) morphine
    E) sodium heparin
    C) rhogam
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. the peak level of most medications are infused by an I.V. is usually drawn:
    A) 60 minutes after completion of the infusion
    B) 15 minutes after completion of the infusion
    C) 15 minutes before the next dose
    D) 30 minutes before the next dose
    B) 15 minutes after completion of the infusion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. which of the following tubes MUST be totally filled to insure correct lab results?
    A) red top
    B) purple top
    C) light blue top
    D) mint top
    E) none of these
    C) light blue top
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. when swabbing a throat for a rapid strep test what is the correct swab to use?
    A) dacron
    B) any swab that is sterile
    C) cotton
    D) culturette
    e) none of the above
    A) dacron
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. a person with type AB blood has which antigens
    A) anti B
    B) A antigen
    C) B antigen
    D) anti A and anti B
    E) antigen A antigen B
    F) anti A
    E) antigen A antigen B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. a person with type O blood has which antibodies?
    A) A antigen and B antigen
    B) anti B
    C) A antigen
    D) B antigen
    E) anti A and anti B
    F) anti A
    E) anti A and anti B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. anemia is a lack of what component of blood
    A) platelets
    B) none of these
    C) plasma
    D) RBC's
    E) WBC's
    D) RBC's
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. what is the brand name of the tape commonly used to securely wrap the venipuncture site of a person on coumadin therapy
    A) silk tape
    B) band-aid
    C) coban
    D) none of these
    E) vacutainer
    C) coban
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. which of the following hematology tests is "non-specific"?
    A) ABC
    B) CBC
    C) ESR
    D) H&H
    E)D-dimer
    C) ESR
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. CBC is an acronym that means:
    A) none of these
    B) count blood camp
    C) complete blood count
    D) comprehensive blood chemistry
    C) complete blood count
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. what is the most common specimen for chemistry analysis?
    A) EDTA whole blood
    B) leukopoor packed RBC's
    C) heparinized plasma
    D) none of these
    E) urine
    C) heparinized plasma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. what would a doctor order to see the breakdown of white blood cells in a patient sample?
    A) UA
    B) CBC
    C) none of these
    D) PT
    E) ABC
    B) CBC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. T/F: heparin therapy is monitored by the PT test
    F
  42. prothombin time
    A) UGB
    B) SR
    C) ESR
    D) RBC
    E) PTT
    F) GTT
    G) WBC
    H) Hgb
    I) PT
    J) STAT
    K) UA
    L) ASAP
    M) Hct
    N) GGT
    O) UR
    I) PT
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. urgently needed
    A) WBC
    B) ASAP
    C) UR
    D) SR
    E) RBC
    F) PTT
    G) STAT
    H) UGB
    I) GTT
    J) UA
    K) GGT
    L) Hgb
    M) Hct
    N) ESR
    O) PT
    G) STAT
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. urinalysis
    a) PTT
    b) PT
    c) GGT
    d) UGB
    e) ASAPf
    ) Hgb
    g) Hct
    h) SR
    i) UR
    j) WBC
    k) RBC
    l) UA
    m) STAT
    n) ESR
    o) GTT
    l) UA
  45. hematocrite

    A) UR
    B) ESR
    C) RBC
    D) UGB
    E) SR
    F) Hct
    G) GGT
    H) UA
    I) PTT
    J) WBC
    K) ASAP
    L) GTT
    M) STAT
    N) Hgb
    O) PT
    F) Hct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. sed rate
    a) PTTb) PT
    c) GGT
    d) UGB
    e) ASAP
    f) Hgb
    g) Hct
    h) SR
    i) UR
    j) WBC
    k) RBC
    l) UA
    m) STAT
    n) ESR
    o) GTT
    n) ESR
  47. glucose tolerance test
    a) PTTb) PT
    c) GTT
    d) UGB
    e) ASAP
    f) Hgb
    g) Hct
    h) SR
    i) UR
    j) WBC
    k) RBC
    l) UA
    m) STAT
    n) ESR
    o) GTT
    c) GTT
  48. red blood cell
    A) UA
    B) Hct
    C) STAT
    D) GTT
    E) PTT
    F) GGT
    G) UR
    H) PT
    I) SR
    J) ASAP
    K) UGB
    L) Hgb
    M) RBC
    N) ESR
    O) WBC
    M) RBC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. white blood cells
    a) PTTb) PT
    c) GGT
    d) UGB
    e) ASAP
    f) Hgb
    g) Hct
    h) SR
    i) UR
    j) WBC
    k) RBC
    l) UA
    m) STAT
    n) ESR
    o) GTT
    j) WBC
  50. which of the following is NOT a chemistry department test
    A) TSH
    B) CMP
    C) H&H
    D) lytes
    E) BMP
    F) all are chemistry tests
    C) H&H
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. what happens to blood cells when a specimen is centrifuged?
    A) nothing happens to the specimen
    B) the cells lyse
    C) the cells sink to the bottom of the tube
    D) the cells and fluid are thoroughly mixed
    C) the cells sink to the bottom of the tube
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. hemolyzed specimens cause which of the following:
    A) chemical interference with lab assays
    B) centrifugation interference
    C) cooling of the specimen
    D) warming of the specimen
    e) none of the above
    A) chemical interference with lab assays
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. why should blood and urine specimens for microbiological culture be transported to the lab quickly?
    A) so that blood cells will not rupture
    B) to keep specimens close to body temperature
    C) to avoid excessive exposure to light
    D) to improve the likelihood of detecting pathogens
    D) to improve the likelihood of detecting pathogens
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. which of the following abbreviations refers tot he term "hematocrite"
    A) Hct
    B) CBC
    C) none of these
    D) hemo scan
    A) Hct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. physical characteristics of a urine specimen include___
    A) volume
    B) collection time
    C) color
    D) test order
    C) color
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. which of the following statements best defines the chain-of-custody?
    A) metal chain that is used to lock specimen in a tamper proof safe
    B) parental control process for teenagers who abuse drugs
    C) process for maintaining control of specimens from collection to delivery
    D) specimen transportation vehicle for clinical laboratories
    C) process for maintaining control of specimens from collection to delivery
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. in drug testing, why would a urine specimen temperature need to be taken after collection
    A) to check for fever in the donor
    B) to check for infectious bacteria
    C) because some illicit drugs raise the temperature of urine
    D) to check for evidence of tampering
    D) to check for evidence of tampering
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. a phlebotomist performing which of the following procedures is considered a "CLIA waved" procedure?
    A) venipuncture for a cross match
    B) venipuncture for a toxicology panel
    C) dipstick urinalysis
    D) skin puncture
    C) dipstick urinalysis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. CLIA '88 was passed to:
    A) provide malpractice insurance coverage for lab personnel, including phlebotomists
    B) ensure the quality and accuracy of nursing in health care facilities
    C) ensure the quality and accuracy of laboratory testing
    D) ensure that HIV testing occur on all lab personnel
    C) ensure the quality and accuracy of laboratory testing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. certification is
    A) the process of granting permission to an individual or organization to be otherwise unlawful
    B) national accrediting agency for clinical laboratory scientists (NAACLS)
    C) American Society for Clinical Pathologists (ASCP)
    D) the process by which a non-governmental body grants recognition to an individual that has met certain predetermined qualifications
    E) clinical laboratory improvement amendments of 1988 (CLIA '88)
    F) the process by which a non-governmental agency evaluates and recognizes an organization or institution as meeting certain predetermined standards
    G) joint commission on the accreditation for health care organizations (JACP)
    H) college of american pathologists
    D) the process by which a non-governmental body grants recognition to an individual that has met certain predetermined qualifications
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. licensure is
    a) college of american pathologists
    b) national accrediting agency for clinical laboratory scientists (NAACLS)
    c) American Society for Clinical Pathologists (ASCP)
    d) joint commission on the accreditation for health care organizations (JACP)
    e) clinical laboratory improvement
    amendments of 1988 (CLIA '88)
    f) the process of granting permission to an individual or organization to be otherwise unlawful
    g) the process by which a non-governmental agency evaluates and recognizes an organization or institution as meeting certain predetermined standards
    h) the process by which a non-governmental body grants recognition to an individual that has met certain predetermined qualifications
    f) the process of granting permission to an individual or organization to be otherwise unlawful
  62. you are on duty in the lab when an ER nurse brings you 3 tubes of CSF. list the department that each tube goes to in the order of draw (from the first tube drawn to the last).
    • 1) Chemistry (blood possible in tube),
    • 2) microbiology (no tissue in blood),
    • 3) hematology (tissue possible in blood)
Author
ID
136096
Card Set
exam 2
Description
Phlebotomy
Updated
Show Answers