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  1. What are Info Reports for?
    It is a means for employees to identify specific safety concerns and information to their appropriate supervisor as well as the Director of Safety.
  2. How soon must an Info Report be submited to the Safety Department?
    Within 24 hrs of occurance.
  3. What occurrences require an Info Report to be submitted?

    SAFEFIRMD3PA
    • S- Safety issue
    • A- Aborted takeoff
    • F- Flight delay in excess of 30 min.
    • E- Extraordinary employee effort
    • F- Fueling problem
    • I- Injury
    • R- Return to gate
    • M- Missed trip
    • D- Diversion
    • D- Duty time problem
    • D- Damage to GLA aircraft or property
    • P- Passenger disputes
    • A- Any occurrence that is deemed reportable
  4. What is the goal of ASAP?
    To enhance aviation safety through the prevention of accidents and incidents through the voluntary reporting of safety issues.
  5. Who is the inflight security coordinator (ISC)?
    The Captain. He should be notified of any unusual situations that arise during the flight.
  6. What is PIC authority?
    The PIC may take any action he deems necessary to meet the extent of any emergency to ensure the safety of the passengers, crew, cargo and aircraft.
  7. What are the PIC duties and responsibilities?

    CRJ CRMM BAD 3PA
    • C- Complies with all air traffic rules except where FAR/Ops Specs are more limiting.
    • R- Reports to the Chief Pilot about the progress of SIC's.
    • J- Jointly responsible with dispatch for preflight planning in compliance with the FAR's/ Ops Specs.
    • C- Commands aircraft and crew while inflight.
    • R- Responsible for maintaining current knowledge of general subjects and aircraft related information.
    • M- Makes every effort to ensure an on time departure from each station.
    • M- Manipulates the aircraft while underway.
    • B- Briefs the SIC and FA on normal and emergency procedures.
    • A- ATP certificate with appropriate category/class, and type ratting.
    • D- Delegates duties as necessary.
    • 3- 3 takeoffs and landings in type of aircraft within 90 days.
    • P- Provides to the Chief Pilot any changes in address and phone number within 72 hours.
    • A- Additional duties as assigned by the Chief Pilot.
  8. What is the company's sole product?
    Customer Service
  9. What is the company's primary consideration?
    Safety
  10. Who is responsible to ensure all checklists are completed?
    PIC
  11. If the captain delegates the pre-flight or post-flight walk arounds, does this relieve him of being responsible?
    No. Duties may be delegated but not responsibilities.
  12. If you are in doubt of the airworthiness of a system or furnishing what should be done?
    It must be recorded as a discrepancy and a mechanic will make the airworthiness determination.
  13. Must the Captain confer with the FO and FA to determine if they found any discrepancies on pre-flight or post-flight?
    Yes.
  14. If the cargo area is full or reached its weight limit, can cargo or checked bags be brought into the cabin?
    No.
  15. When is sterile cockpit in effect?
    • During all critical phases of flight:
    • 1. Within 1,000' of assigned altitude.
    • 2. After completion of the descent checklist if completed at a higher altitude.
    • 3. At all times below 10,000' except for cruise.
    • 4. During all ground operations.
  16. When is a boom mic required?
    During all critical phases of flight and for all operations below FL180.
  17. During the altimeter cross check, how many feet the left and right altimeter be within?
    150' of each other.
  18. While on the ground, with the correct barometric setting, each altimeter must read within _____ of field elevation.
    75'
  19. Define severe icing.
    When the rate of accumulation is such that the deicing/anti-icing equipment fails to control or reduce the hazard.
  20. What actions should be taken when severe icing is encountered?
    Immediately request priority handling from ATC to facilitate a route and or altitude change.
  21. Crew Oxygen Requirements
    10,000' to 12,000'- O2 must be used by each pilot for that time in excess of 30 minutes.

    Above 12,000'- O2 must be used by each pilot and provided to an ACM for that time above 12,000'.

    Above FL250- If one pilot leaves their station, the other pilot must put on and use his O2.
  22. Passenger Oxygen Requirements
    If pressurization is lost, a descent must be made to 14,000' in 4 minutes or less, and the descent continued to 10,000' or lower.

    • If a descent cannot be made to 10,000' due to MEA restrictions:
    • 1. Between 10,000' and 14,000'- O2 must be provided for 10% of passengers.
    • 2. Between 14,000' and 15,000'- O2 must be be provided for 30% of passengers.
    • 3. Above 15,000'- O2 must be provided for each passenger for that part of the flight.
  23. Must everyone on board have an O2 mask available, including lap children?
    Yes, the FAA includes 'lap children' into their definition of "occupant."
  24. When on the Brasilia are the extra O2 masks located?
    Rows 1, 3, and 6.
  25. Who may occupy the cockpit jumpseat?
    Only GLA pilots, "must fly" travelers, and persons verified by CASS.
  26. What are the classifications of Jumpseaters?
    • 1. Must fly- Secret Service, FAA Inspectors, NTSB Investigators, and DOD Evaluators.
    • 2. Priority- Company business
    • 3. Space available- may be bumped.
  27. What three things must the PIC be notified of?
    • 1. Armed individual.
    • 2. Spillable battery.
    • 3. Mercurial barometer/ thermometer.
  28. With regard to Hazmat, can you carry a tire assembly onboard an aircraft?
    Yes, must not be inflated to a gauge pressure exceeding the maximum for that tire.
  29. With regard to Hazmat, what considerations must be made when carrying ammunition?
    Must be in checked baggage. Securely packed in fiber, wood or metal boxes or other packaging specifically designed to carry ammo.
  30. With regard to Hazmat, what limitation is there for safety matches/ lighters.
    May be carried on their person or in gate checked luggage not to exceed one book of matches or lighter.
  31. With regard to Hazmat, how much dry ice can be shipped or carried on board?
    • Checked Baggage:
    • No more than 2.5Kg (5.5lbs.) per person when used as a refrigerant for the contents of the package.

    • Gate checked or personal items:
    • No more than 2.0Kg (4.4lbs.) per passenger when used to pack perishables.
  32. With regard to Hazmat, what are the limitations for alcoholic beverages.
    • 1. No more than 24% alcohol by volume or,
    • 2. More than 24% and not more than 70% when in retail packaging not exceeding 5 liters (1.3 gal) carried by a crewmember or passenger in checked, gate checked, or as a personal item.
  33. With regard to Hazmat, what precautions need to be taken with a non-spillable battery?
    • 1. Visual inspection of the battery reveals no obvious defects.
    • 2. The battery is disconnected and the terminals are insulated to prevent short circuits.
    • 3. The battery is removed and placed in a strong container marked "NON-SPILLABLE BATTERY."
  34. With regard to Hazmat, what precautions need to be taken with a spillable battery?
    • 1. Visual inspection reveals no obvious defects.
    • 2. Battery is disconnected and the terminals are insulated.
    • 3. The PIC is notified as to the location of the battery.
    • 4. The wheelchair is stowed in an upright position or the battery is removed.

    If the battery is removed then it must be stored upright in container impervious to battery fluid and labeled corrosive
  35. With regard to Hazmat, what precautions must be taken with a mercurial barometer or thermometer?
    • 1. Only may be carried by a representative of a government weather bureau.
    • 2. The passenger must notify the operator of the presence of the barometer/ thermometer.
    • 3. Barometer/ thermometer must be packaged with a strong outer case with a sealed liner that is leak-proof and impervious to mercury.
  36. What is PIC Authority?
    The PIC of an aircraft has full control and authority in the operation of the aircraft, without limitation, over other crewmembers and their duties during flight time. The PIC is responsible for command of the aircraft and crew and for the safety of the passengers, crewmembers and airplane.
  37. Notification of known hazards
    Dispatcher notifies the PIC or PIC notifies the Dispatcher.

    Should the PIC feel the flight cannot be completed safely he shall notify his Dispatcher. Only When the PIC and Dispatcher are comfortable should the flight depart.
  38. When is a new dispatch release needed?

    CRAPOR
    • C- Crew changes
    • R- Reroute
    • A- Airplane changes
    • P- Plane on the ground for more than an hour at outstation.
    • O- Originating flight
    • R- Release more than two hours old.
  39. Restriction or Suspension of Operations
    • Visibility below landing minimums
    • Severe icing enroute
    • NIL braking action
    • Heavy snow, snow pellets, ice pellets, moderate or greater freezing rain.
    • Heavy convective activity.
    • Runway closures that would make landing unsafe
    • Crosswinds exceeding limitations
    • Microbursts or Low level wind shear.
    • Navigation of communication aid failures
  40. Items required for a Pen and Ink change to a release.

    ZNPN
    • Z- Zulu time
    • N- Name of dispatcher
    • P- PIC's initials
    • N- Name of station if relayed.
  41. Fuel requirements for part 91 flight?
    Enough fuel to fly to the destination, then to fly to the alternate, and thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruise.
  42. Fuel requirements for part 121 flight?
    Enough fuel to fly to the destination, then to fly to most distant alternate taking into account anticipated air traffic delay, and thereafter for 45 minutes (IFR) or 30 minutes (VFR) at normal cruise.
  43. Fuel requirements for 3585 operations?
    Enough fuel to fly to the destination, then to fly to the most distant alternate taking into account anticipated air traffic delays, and thereafter for 45 minutes (IFR) or 30 minutes (VFR) at normal cruise.
  44. Fuel requirements for operations with a single independent navigation system?
    Enough fuel to fly to the destination, then proceed to a suitable alternate in the event of loss of navigation capability, and to complete an approach upon reaching that alternate.
  45. The PIC will declare an emergency if the fuel upon arrival will be less then ______ or ______.
    501 lbs. or 30 minutes
  46. If the actual fuel burn differs from the planned fuel burn, who should the PIC notify?
    Either the Manager of Dispatch or via Info Report.
  47. When is an alternate not required?
    When the weather at the destination is forcast, 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA, to have a ceiling of at least 2000' and visibility of at least 3 miles.
  48. When is a takeoff alternate required?
    When the weather at the departure airport is BELOW the landing minimums.
  49. What are the requirements for a takeoff alternate?
    It must be within one hour of the departure airport at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative
  50. Define Marginal Weather.
    Its defined by meeting TWO criteria:

    1. When the destination is forecast at the ETA, to include conditional remarks, to be within 1/2 sm and 100' of the lowest authorized minimums and,

    2. When the first alternate is forecast at the ETA, to include conditional remarks, to be within 1/2 sm and 100' of the lowest authorized minimums
  51. Define 3585.
    GLA is allowed to dispatch under IFR when conditional remarks in a one time increment of the forecast states that the weather at the destination, alternate, or both could be below the authorized weather minimums when other times of the forecast state that conditions will be at or above the authorized minimums.

    Destination must not be less than half of the lowest visibility for the IAP expected to be used.

    First alternate must not be less than half of the alternate ceiling AND visibility.

    Second alternate must be at or above the alternate ceiling AND visibility.
  52. If while on an instrument approach, the reported visibility drops below minimums, what do you do?
    • Precision approach:
    • Continue if established on the GS at or below the published intercept altitude.

    • Non-precision approach;
    • Continue if beyond the FAF.

    • If no FAF exists:
    • Continue if established on the final course inbound from the procedure turn.
  53. Requirements to descend below the MDA/ DH?
    • 1. The aircraft is continuiously in a position to land using normal manuvers and rates of descent.
    • 2. The flight visibility is not less than that prescribed in the approach being used.
    • 3. The approach light system,
    • a. Threshold
    • b. Threshold markings
    • c. Threshold lights
    • d. Runway
    • e. Runway markings
    • f. Runway lights
    • g. REIL
    • h. VASI
    • i. TDZ
    • j. TDZ markings
    • k. TDZ lights
  54. Who may authorize a departure from an airport not listed in the OpSpecs?
    Only the Director of Operations, Chief Pilot, or the Chief Dispatcher.
  55. Times when not required to monitor company frequency.

    WAGSOF
    • W- Within 10 miles of uncontrolled airport
    • A- ATC requirements
    • G- Getting ATIS
    • S- Safety considerations
    • O- Over 100nm between stations
    • F- Frequency congestion
  56. In the event of comm failure, what route and altitude do you fly?

    AVEF*MEA
    • Route:
    • A- Assigned
    • V- Vectored
    • E- Expected
    • F- Filed

    • Altitude, the highest of:
    • M- MEA
    • E- Expected
    • A- Filed
  57. What if the clearance limit is not a fix from which as approach begins?
    Leave the fix at the EFC if one has been received; if one has not been received, then upon arrival over the clearance limit, proceed to a fix from which as approach begins and comence descent and approach as close as possible to the ETA as filed or amended with ATC.
  58. When can you leave a clearance limit from which an approach begins?
    When cleared for the approach if in communication with ATC. If lost comms; then commence descent and approach as close as possible to EFC time if one has been received; or if one has not been receivedas close as possible to the ETA as filed or amended with ATC.
  59. Can we do strait in approaches?
    Yes, only so as to not interfere with arriving and departing traffic.
  60. What three things should be considered before conducting VFR arrivals and departures?
    • 1. Must have current VFR charts.
    • 2. Determine the minimum obstruction clearance altitude.
    • 3. Communicate with the station the intent to perform the VFR arrival or departure.
  61. Considerations for Part 91 flights.
    • 1. Flight will be assigned a flight number.
    • 2. A flight plan will be filed by dispatch.
    • 3. A release is not required for part 91 ops.
  62. Weather minimums for a part 91 flight.
    • Takeoffs:
    • Ceiling: 0
    • Visibility: 1/4sm

    • Landings:
    • Precision: 600' & 1sm
    • Non-precision: 800' & 2sm
  63. FOM 5.20.0
    What if the release has the Captains name but no FO or FA names? Is the release legal?
    No, they must all be listed correctly or no names at all.
  64. FOM 5.20.0
    When does an MEL expire?
    Typically at midnight on the date listed on the release, unless otherwise directed by the MEL.
  65. FOM 6.2.0
    If no agent is in position to park an arriving aircraft what should be done?
    The crew will contact the station to announce their arrival, and hold position off the ramp until the agent is in position.
  66. FOM 6.3.2
    With regard to the Tarmac Delay Contingency Plan (TDCP), what is Excessive Departure Delay?
    It is when the time between the out and off times exceeds two hours (120 minutes).
  67. FOM 6.3.2
    With regard to the Tarmac Delay Contingency Plan (TDCP), what is Excessive Arrival Delay?
    It is when the time between the on and in times exceeds two hours (120 minutes).
  68. FOM 6.7.1
    What needs to be done when purchasing fuel offline?
    Must perform a clear and bright test and make a logbook entry.
  69. FOM 7.5.0
    If two Captains are assigned to the same flight who is the PIC?
    Generally the more senior pilot is the PIC, except when that pilot has more restrictive operating requirements such as high mins.

    The only exception is when a check airman has been assigned to the flight to evaluate the pilot in the left seat.
  70. FOM 7.6.1
    What is exemption 5560?
    Allows a pilot to operate as a crewmember without a pilot certificate or medical.

    Issued the DO and includes the written words "Issued under the authority of Exemption 5560, as amended."
  71. FOM 7.7.0
    What paperwork is required to in the trip envelope?

    BALDNDJ
    • B- Bag sheets
    • A- All weather packets
    • L- Load manifests
    • D- Dispatch releases
    • N- Notice of Armed Individual forms
    • D- Deice slips
    • J- Jumpseat passes
  72. FOM 7.9.1
    With regards to a low time FO (less than 100hrs), when must the Captain make all the takeoffs and landings?

    WXSVRBRPH
    • W- Windshear reported
    • X- Cross wind greater than 15kts
    • S- Special airports
    • V- Visibility 3/4 mile or less
    • R- RVR 4000' or less
    • B- Braking action less than 'good'
    • R- Runway contaminated
    • P- PIC prerogative
    • H- Hi-mins Captain
  73. FOM 7.9.4
    Restriction on a high-mins Captain?
    He must increase the MDA/DH by 100' and add 1/2sm for the first 100 hours.

    This limitation may be reduced by 50%, one hour for each landing if the PIC has previous 121 PIC experience.
  74. FOM 7.9.4
    If the Captain is making all the takeoffs and landings, when can the FO fly the enroute portion?
    At the Captains discretion, only after the climb checklist is completed and no later than the completion of the descent checklist.
  75. FOM 7.10.0
    Define CRM
    A management system which makes optimum use of all available resources, to promote safety and enhance the efficiency of flight operations.
  76. FOM 8.3.0
    What credentials must an FAA Inspector present?
    Form 110A
  77. FOM 8.3.0
    What form of ID must a DOT/DOD Inspector present?
    Form 110B
  78. FOM 8.4.0
    Bomb warning levels
    • Alpha- Low risk, hoax is suspected.
    • Bravo- Hoax is suspected, the flight will be isolated and inspected.
    • Charlie- Not a hoax, immediate implementation of bomb warning procedures.
  79. FOM 8.4.0
    What is a condition 'Bravo Whiskey.'
    It means that an explosive device is onboard or is suspected to be onboard.

    Bravo Whiskey is followed by the appropriate level; A, B, C.
  80. FOM 8.7.0
    How far in advance must a LEO notify the company of their intent to carry a weapon onboard the aircraft?
    At least one hour, or as soon as practical in an emergency.
  81. If a LEO has brought a weapon onboard, how must it be stowed?
    Must be concealed and out of view, either on their person or within immediate reach. It may not be placed in an overhead bin.
  82. FOM 8.7.1
    How must a shotgun or rifle be packed?
    Placed in a locked hard sided case and may contain 2 guns and accessories.
  83. FOM 8.7.1
    How must a pistol be packed?
    Packed in a hard sided case with no more than 5 handguns per case.
  84. FOM 8.7.1
    How must firearms be loaded in the cargo area?
    They should be placed on the bottom loading the rest of the baggage on top.
  85. FOM 8.7.2
    Define 'hi-risk prisoner'
    Means a prisoner who is an exceptional escape risk, as determined by that agency.
  86. FOM 8.7.2
    Define 'low-risk prisoner'
    Means any prisoner that is not high risk.
  87. FOM 8.7.2
    How many 'high-risk' prisoners may be carried on a flight?
    Only one 'high-risk' prisoner per flight unless otherwise authorized by TSA.
  88. FOM 8.7.2
    How many LEO's must be onboard when escorting 'high-risk' and 'low-risk' prisoners.
    • For flights under 4 hours:
    • One LEO to no more than two 'low-risk' prisoners.
    • Two LEO's for one 'high-risk' prisoner

    • For flights over 4 hours:
    • Two LEO's for one 'low risk' prisoner
  89. FOM 8.7.2
    Boarding considerations for prisoners
    Should be boarded before any other passenger and deplaned after all other passengers.

    The prisoner must be seated in a seat that is not next to or directly across from any exit.

    They should be seated in the rear most part of the cabin excluding row 10 on the Brasilia. The preferred seat is 9C.
  90. FOM 8.7.2
    Prisoner restraints
    They must be restrained form full use of their hands (handcuffs), and leg irons are not to be used, nor may the prisoner be restrained to the aircraft.
  91. FOM 8.7.3
    How is the PIC informed of a FAM?
    Discretely by the GSC prior to boarding.
  92. FOM 9.2.1
    Define Aircraft Accident
    An occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards with the intention of flight until they deplane, in which any person suffers death or serious injury by direct contact with the aircraft, or the aircraft receives substantial damage.
  93. FOM 9.2.1
    Define Fatal Injury
    An injury which results in death within 30 days of the accident.
  94. FOM 9.2.1
    Define Incident
    An occurrence other than an accident associated with the operation of an aircraft, which effects the safety of operations.
  95. FOM 9.2.1
    Define Serious Injury
    • Any injury which:
    • 1. Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from which the injury was received.
    • 2. Results in a fracture of any bone (except fingers, toes, or nose).
    • 3. Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage.
    • 4. Involves any internal organ.
    • 5. Involves any second or third degree burns, or any burns affecting more than 5% of the body.
  96. FOM 9.2.1
    Define Substantial Damage
    Means damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft and which would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component.
  97. FOM 9.3.0
    What is Emergency Authority?
    The PIC may take any action that he deems necessary under the circumstances to ensure the safety of passengers, crew, cargo and aircraft.
  98. FOM 9.3.0
    If the PIC exercises his Emergency Authority, who must he report to?
    Must send a written report to the Director of Operations within 24 hours of the event.
  99. FOM 9.8.0
    Generally, what situations would require passenger evacuation?
    • They include but are not limited to:
    • Engine Fire
    • Electrical Fire/ Smoke
    • Environmental Fire/ Smoke
    • APU Fire
    • Malfunctioning Landing Gear
    • Ditching
    • Sabotage
  100. FOM 9.8.0
    During an emergency, what information must be relayed to the Flight Attendant, time permitting?

    TEST
    • T- Type of emergency
    • E- Evacuation requirements and what the signal will be
    • S- Special instructions and if BRACE position is required.
    • T- Time remaining until landing
  101. FOM 9.8.0
    What is a planed emergency?
    The PIC has time to tell the crew the nature of the emergency and what he wants done.
  102. FOM 9.8.0
    What is an unplanned emergency?
    Happens during taxi, take-off, or landing. The crew has no time to cooridinate a couse of action
  103. FOM 10.3.1
    PIC duties and responsibilities with the ERSP?
    • 1. Has the ultimate responsibility to ensure passengers occupying ERS meet the requirements of the ERSP.
    • 2. Confirm with the FA that the passengers in the ERS have been properly briefed prior to takeoff.
    • 3. Inform the Chief Pilot of any deficiencies with the ERSP.
  104. FOM 10.3.6
    If someone is unhappy with the ERSP, who should they talk to?
    The CRO
  105. FOM 10.4.0
    If a passenger intends to use a Child Restraint System (CRS), what requirements must be met?
    The CRS must be labeled for aviation use, and it should have instructions on the label which must be followed.
  106. FOM 10.4.0
    What procedures are recommended when using a CRS?
    • 1. A window seat is preferred.
    • 2. Must be secured to a forward facing seat.
    • 3. The CRS shall not be located in front, behind, or in an exit row.
    • 4. During an emergency evacuation, the seat must remain in the aircraft, and only the child should removed from the aircraft.
    • 5. No other passenger may occupy the same seat.
    • 6. While in use the seat straps should always be in place per the CRS instructions.
  107. FOM 10.4.0
    During critical phases of flight, after their _____ birthday, each child shall occupy an approved seat with safety belt fastened
    2nd
  108. FOM 10.4.0
    Crewmember requirements for CRS?
    The crewmembers are responsible to check that the child APPEARS to be properly restrained and that the seat APPEARS to be properly installed.
  109. FOM 10.5.0
    Unaccompanied minors
    • Ages 0-4, not accepted for travel.
    • Ages 5-7, accepted for travel on direct flights without plane change.
    • Ages 8-11, accepted for travel on direct and connecting flights as long as space is confirmed.

    GLA requires special handling of all UM's

    Children under the age of 12 must never be left unattended.
  110. FOM 10.7.3
    Requirements for Portable Oxygen Concentrators
    • Must be battery powered.
    • Must have a physicians statement available to the crew.
    • Must be one of the approved POC's listed in FOM 10.7.3
  111. FOM 10.8.0
    Carriage of animals
    • Must be confined in a container approved by GLA
    • Pet must remain in container throughout the flight, and stored under the seat.
    • Pets may not be be in an exit row.
    • Passengers with seeing-eye-dogs, must be seated so as to not obstruct another passengers emergency exit, and the animal must occupy the area in front of the the passenger.
    • In no case will the animal obstruct another passengers emergency exit path.
  112. FOM 11.1.0
    What is the aircrafts Airworthiness certificate, Registrations or both is lost or missing?
    • May operate under exemption 10248:
    • 1. Notify maintenance control, and generate a write-up.
    • 2. The corrective action will be a WCO
    • 3. The aircraft is only operated in the lower 48 states.
  113. FOM 11.3.2
    The PIC is responsible to notify, prior to the end of their shift, the Director of Ops or the Chief Pilot of any of the following:
    • Aborted Take-offs
    • Air Turnabacks
    • Customer Disputes
    • Any request from ATC for emergency services.
    • Any issue raised with the FAA relating to safety or operational procedures.
  114. FOM 11.5.0
    Will the aircraft log book be in the aircraft when picking i up from a maintenance base?
    No, the PIC is required to pick up the log from the lead mechanic and review it with him to ensure that the PIC is aware of any maintenance performed, and review any write-ups generated on the inbound flight for corrective actions.
  115. FOM 11.8.0
    MEL'd items are required to be:
    • 1. On the release
    • 2. Placarded
    • 3. Listed in the can
  116. FOM 11.8.0
    Where should information on NEF's be?
    • 1. Should appear on the release
    • 2. Not required to be placarded
    • 3. Listed in the can
  117. FOM 11.8.0
    Are WCO's required to be on the release and placarded?
    No, they will be listed in the can.
  118. FOM 11.8.0
    MEL durations
    • Cat A- Specified in the MEL
    • Cat B- 3 days
    • Cat C- 10 days
    • Cat D- 120 days
  119. FOM 11.8.0
    IF you have left the gate but not taken off, and an aircraft component becomes inoperative what can you do?
    • Contact your dispatcher to determine:
    • 1. Return to the gate for repair,
    • 2. Return to the gate to accomplish 'M' or 'O' procedures.
    • 3. Defer the item in the aircraft, provided they are able to accomplish the 'O' procedures and pen-n-ink change the release without shutting down and exiting the aircraft.
  120. FOM 11.9.0
    Can the aircraft log have an open write-up when conducting an operational check flight?
    Only the "operational check flight required due to ..." can be the only open write-up. ALL others must be signed off.
  121. FOM 11.10.0
    Who can be on the aircraft during a ferry flight?
    Only those specified on the ferry permit.
  122. FOM 11.9.0
    Who can be on the aircraft during operational check flights?
    Other than the crew, only those whose presence is essential to the satisfactory completion of the flight.
  123. FOM 11.11.0
    As far as the 'starts' column is concerned in the log book, what is considered a "start?"
    A start is defined as an engine start, a takeoff, a landing and a shutdown.
  124. Op Specs A002
    What is Class I navigation?
    Any enroute flight operation that is conducted entirely with in the designated Operation Service Volumes of VOR's and or NDB's.
  125. Op Specs A027
    We are approved to conduct LASHO's, but what are the limitations for this operation?
    • 1. LASHO on wet runways is prohibited.
    • 2. LAHSO will not be conducted to a runway that does not have visual or electronic vertical guidance.
    • 3. LAHSO is not authorized if windshear has been reported within the last 20 minutes.
    • 4. There shall be no tail wind on the hold short runway.
    • 5. Night LAHSO will be conducted only where approved FAA lighting for LASHO's is installed.
  126. Op Specs A027
    Weather minimums for a LASHO?
    A ceiling of 1500' and 5sm is required. The minimums may be lowered to 1000' and 3sm where a PAPI or VASI is installed.
  127. Op Specs A098
    What if a bag weighs more than 50 lbs.?
    It is considered heavy and will appear on the bag sheet as 60 lbs.
  128. Op Specs A098
    What if a bag weighs more than 100lbs.?
    It will be shipped as freight and the actual weight is used on the bag sheet.
  129. Op Specs C050
    Special Airport qualifications
    The PIC or SIC has made an entry to that airport to include a takeoff and landing within the previous 12 calendar months.

    The PIC has qualified by use of pictorial means.

    The above restrictions DO NOT apply when operating to that airport if the ceiling at the airport is at least 1000' above the lowest MEA, MOCA, or initial approach altitude and the visibility is at least 3 miles.
  130. Op Specs C052
    What IAP's is GLA approved to conduct?

    4221
    • 4 LOC's
    • LOC
    • LOC BC
    • LOC BC DME
    • LOC DME

    • 2 VOR's
    • VOR
    • VOR DME

    • 2 ILS's
    • ILS
    • ILS DME

    • 1 NDB
    • NDB
  131. Op Specs C052
    What is the lowest precision landing minimums GLA is authorized to conduct?
    200' DH and 1800RVR
  132. Op Specs C052
    What are the requirements for operating down to 1800RVR?
    Aircraft must be equipped with FD, AP, or HUD that provides guidance to DA.

    Flight crew must demonstrate proficiency in ILS approaches to minimums using the FD, AP, or HUD.

    The IAP must have an 1800RVR minimum.

    The crosswind component on the landing runway cannot exceed the AFM's limitations or 15kts, whichever is less.
  133. Op Specs C056
    Standard IFR takeoff minimums
    1sm or 5000RVR for aircraft with two engines or less.
  134. Op Specs C064
    IFR operations to airports in class G airspace
    • 1. The airport is served by an IAP
    • 2. The airport has an approved source of weather
    • 3. The airport has a suitable means of giving traffic advisories
    • 4. Facilities available to conduct IFR operations
  135. Op Specs C075
    Circle to landing category for the Brasilia?
    Cat C- 450 HAA and 1 1/2sm
  136. Op Specs C076
    Are we allowed to do Contact Approaches?
    • Yes, as long as the PIC has completed training for Contact Approaches, and:
    • 1. The flight is under IFR and is authorized by ATC to conduct the approach.
    • 2. The reported visibility is at or above the Cat 1 minimums or 1sm , whichever is greater.
    • 3. The flight remains clear of clouds and visibility is such that allows the pilot to see and avoid all obstacles.
    • 4. The flight does not descend below the MEA/MSA, MVA, or FAF until:
    • a. Established on a portion of the IAP, and the pilot is able to navigate to the airport using landmarks
    • b. The flight is below any cloud base which constitutes a ceiling with the airport insight and can land using normal maneuvers.
    • 5. The flight does not descend below the MDA until the aircraft is in a position to land in the TDZ using normal maneuvers.
  137. Op Specs C077
    When can we accept a visual approach?
    • 1. The flight is operated in class B, C, or D airspace or within 35 miles of the destination in class E.
    • 2. The flight is under control of ATC.
    • 3. Flightcrew maintains basic cloud clearances in 91.155
    • 4. The flight crew establishes and maintains visual contact with the airport or preceding aircraft.
  138. Op Specs C077
    VFR arrivals to uncontrolled airports
    • 1. Reported visibility must be as specified in 91.155
    • 2. Reported ceiling must be 1000' or greater.
    • 3. Ceiling and cloud clearances must allow for a 1500' TPA.
    • 4. Direct communication with GLA station.
    • 5. Be within 10nm of airport OR have visual reference with runway.
  139. Op Specs C077
    VFR departures from uncontrolled airports
    • If it is not possible to obtain an IFR clearance the flight can depart VFR only when:
    • 1. Reported visibility must be as specified in 91.155
    • 2. Reported ceiling must be 1000' or greater.
    • 3. Must be able to maintain visual contact with the ground or a landmark.
    • 4. Ceiling and cloud clearances must allow for a 1500' TPA.
    • 5. The flight remains in VMC.
    • 6. Must obtain an IFR clearance as soon as practical after departure but no less than 50nm.
  140. Op Specs C078
    RVR equipment requirements
    • At or above 1600 RVR:
    • The TDZ report is controlling.
    • The mid report may be substituted if TDZ report is unavailable.

    • Below 1600 RVR:
    • A minimum of 2 operable RVR's are required.
    • All available reports are controlling, except for long runways where four reports are available, then the far end is ONLY advisory.
  141. Op Specs C078
    Lower than standard takeoff minimums 1600 RVR or RVV 1/4sm.
    Takeoffs with 1600 RVR may be accomplished, provided one of the following visual aids are available:

    • 1. HIRL
    • 2. CL's
    • 3. RCLM's
    • 4. Adequate visual reference.
  142. Op Specs C078
    What is GLA's lowest authorized takeoff minimums?
    600 TDZ, 600 Mid, and 600 RO
  143. Op Specs C078
    Lower than standard takeoff minimums 1200, 1200, 1000 RVR
    Takeoffs with 12, 12, 10 RVR may be accomplished, provided one of the following visual aids are available:

    • Day- RCLM's or HIRL's or CL's
    • Night- HIRL's or CL's
  144. Op Specs C078
    Lower than standard takeoff minimums 1000, 1000, 1000 RVR
    Takeoffs with 10, 10, 10 RVR may be accomplished, provided on of the following combinations are available:

    • CL's or,
    • HIRL's and RCLM's
  145. Op Specs C078
    Lower than standard takeoff minimums 600, 600, 600 RVR
    Takeoffs with 6, 6, 6 RVR may be accomplished, provided ALL of the following visual aids are available:

    HIRL's and CL's
  146. Op Specs C080
    Operations to non-towered airports in class G
    • 1. Airport is served by an IAP
    • 2. Airport has approved weather
    • 3. Airport has suitable means to obtain traffic advisories
    • 4. IFR facilities
  147. SWAP 1.5.4
    Considerations for crewmembers during SWAP
    • Just reported:
    • Assemble crew and obtain status from crew scheduling.

    • Interrupted parings:
    • Coordinate with crew scheduling on behalf of crew.

    • At layover:
    • Call crew scheduling before leaving hotel to determine any delays.

    • At home:
    • Call crew scheduling before leaving home.
  148. FRMP 5.1.2 and 5.1.3
    If a fatigue call is made what must be done?
    Pilot will contact crew scheduling to have schedule adjusted accordingly, then contact the Chief Pilot.

    A report must be submitted within 24hrs of the event via ASAP.
  149. GDIM 1.2.0
    What ice is acceptable to be on the aircraft for departure?
    Only ice on the bottom surface of the wings in the area of the fuel tanks and hoar frost on the fuselage.
  150. GDIM 1.3.0
    What is hoar frost?
    A uniform deposit of frost formed on exposed surfaces on cool clear nights, which is thin enough to distinguish surface features such as paint lines, markings, or letters.
  151. GDIM 1.3.0
    What is a pre-takeoff check?
    A check of the aircraft's 'representative surface' before the holdover time has expired.
  152. GDIM 1.3.0
    What is a pre-takeoff contamination check?
    A check of the aircraft's wing, control surfaces and other critical areas to be free of frost, ice, or snow after the holdover time has expired. Must be completed within 5 of takeoff.
  153. GDIM 1.3.0
    What is a 'representative surface?'
    As viewed from the cockpit, it is the outboard two feet of the wing.
  154. GDIM 1.3.0
    What is residual ice?
    Ice that is formed inflight and brought to the ground.
  155. What is inter-cycle ice?
    Ice that forms between boot cycles.
  156. GDIM 1.4.0
    What is the 'clean aircraft concept?'
    No airplane will take off with frost, ice, snow or slush ADHERING to any surface that might adversely affect performance, stability and control.
  157. GDIM 1.6.0
    The fluid mixture should be at least ______ below the OAT.
    18oF
  158. GDIM 1.9.0
    When does the holdover time start?
    At the beginning of the final application.
  159. GDIM 1.9.0
    When does the hold over time (HOT) expire?
    After the applicable time based on the conditions and or when the fluid loses it effectiveness.
  160. What if the deice fluid is not heated?
    The hold over times do not apply. Takeoff may only be attempted after a pre-takeoff contamination check has been performed.
  161. GDIM 1.9.0
    During a pre-takeoff contamination check, you cannot see the tail or horizontal stabilizer, how can you determine if those surfaces are free and clear of contaminates?
    By comparative analysis of the wings and control surfaces. If the wings and control surfaces are free and clear then you can infer that other surfaces not visible are also clean.
  162. GDIM 1.10.0
    If a deice slip is not available, what can be done?
    Write the pertinent information on the flight plan page for that particular leg.
  163. GDIM 1.13.0
    If there is a build up of ice or contaminates on the landing gear or brakes, what can be done?
    Use deice fluid to remove contaminates.
  164. GDIM 1.16.0
    When should a 'cold weather' pre-flight be accomplished?
    When the OAT is within 3oC degrees of freezing.
  165. GDIM 1.19.2
    Are non GLA personnel able to deice us?
    Yes, but if the vendor does not have an approved program, the PIC will coordinate with the deice vendor in detail about the process.
  166. GDIM 2.0.0
    What color is Type-1 deice fluid?
    Orange
  167. GDIM 2.0.0
    What color id Type-4 fluid?
    Green
  168. NCBP 1.1.0
    What items, in addition to the one personal item may be brought onboard?

    SOUR FAA
    • S- Seat restraint for child
    • O- Overcoat
    • U- Umbrella
    • R- Reading material

    • F- Food for immediate consumption
    • A- Animal for assistance or comfort
    • A- Assistive devices for disabled
  169. NCBP 1.1.0
    Can large, valuable items be carried in the aircraft cabin?
    Yes, only in a seat that has not been purchased, and in a window seat not in an exit row. Item must be secured with seat belts.
  170. NCBP 1.1.0
    If large, valuable items are to carried in the cabin, what will be entered on the manifest?
    Must determine actual weight and that will be added to the weight of that zone.

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