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  1. Anatomically, what are the positions of the pharynx, larynx and trachea
    The pharynx is aboe the larynx and trachea.

    Remmber: PLT
  2. What is the role of the pharynx
    The pharynx is a passageway for food and air
  3. What is the purpose of he larynx
    The larynx does the major function of speech
  4. TF: The epiglottis helps precent food from entering the lungs
    • True
    • located at the opening of the larynx (only way you are getting to the lungs from the pharynx)
  5. Which lung has 3 lobes and which has 2?
    The right lung has 3 lobes; left has 2
  6. Describe generations of airway, what is involved in gas exhange
    There are 23 generations of airways; 16 of which are dead space. Only the last 7 are involved in gas exchange
  7. Which lung is most often mistakenly intubated or is involved in aspiration and why.
    The right; it is shorter and straighter than the left. Recall that is has 3 lobes
  8. What happens to the cilia in the lower airways in response to smoking?
    The cilia lose the wavelike functions that serves as a defense mechanism to move offenders up and out
  9. What is the role of surfactant?
    The surfactant keeps the alveoli from collapsing
  10. What is the role of the negative pressure in the pleural space
    The negative pressure helps the lung adhere to the chest wall. The loss of negative pressure does not allow the lung to expand
  11. What is the best way to listen to someone's lower and middle lobes
    Posteriorly and under the arms
  12. Explains what happens during inspiration
    • 1. the diaphragm flattens -->
    • 2. the thoraric space enlarges -->
    • 3. intrathoracic pressure decreases -->
    • 4. air enters the thoracic cavity
  13. What accessory muscles are used for inspiration when work of breathing is increased
    • intercostals
    • scalenes
    • sternomastoclastoids

    Remember: ISS
  14. TF: Expiration is normally a passive process
    True, but it may become active with diseases
  15. How is the elastic recoil of the lungs during passive expiration counterbalanced
    The elastic recoil is counterbalanced by the coupling of the pleural membrane/space to the chest wall
  16. Define compliance
    Compliance defines the elastic ability of the lung
  17. Explain Ventilation/Perfusion
    Ventilation/Perfusion is a matching (1:1) ratio of blood glow to gas exchange in the lung; this is ideal. There is a mismatching with disease
  18. Explain what is happening when perfusion > ventilation
    There is blood flow, but limited gas exchange; the airway are affected. Here, some common causes are atelectasis, pneumonia, tumors, mucous plugs.
  19. Explain what is happening when ventilation > perfusion
    There is gas exchange, but limited blood flow; the arteries are affected. Here, a common cause is a pulmonary embolism .
  20. What is the most important protein for gas exchange?
  21. The transit time of a red blood cell through the pulmonary capillary is less than one second, how long does it take for the hemoglobin to become oxygenated?
    1/3 second in a healthy lung
  22. O2 binds to the hemoglobin molecule as _________________
  23. TF: A large amount of Oxygen is dissolved in plasma as O2 moves through the interstitial space between the alveoli and the capillary
    False; it binds to the hemoglobin as oxyhemoglobin
  24. The diffusion of gas exhange is affected by what factors?
    • youth
    • exercise
    • supine position
    • male sex
    • smaller body size
    • disease free lungs

    *these are positive factores
  25. TF: Astham is most often a disease of the young and the poor
  26. TF: African americans are more likely to get and then die from lung cancer
  27. What groups are less likely to receive pneumonia and flu caccines
    African americans and Native americans
  28. Lung disease is the # ____ killer in America
  29. What respiratory side effest do ACE inhibitors have?
    dry cough
  30. What respiratory side effect do cholesterol lowering agents have?
    Shortness of breath
  31. What is the #1 sign of respiratory disease?
  32. How much sputum is normal?
  33. TF: Pulmonary pain is made worse by tourching or pressing over the area.
    False; it is not usually made worse
  34. paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
    intermittent dyspnea during sleep that will awaken
  35. orthopnea
    SOB that occurs when lying down but is relieved when sitting up
  36. dyspnea scale - classes, ADL key
    • class1. no significant restrictions: ADL key 4
    • class2. climbing stairs: ADK key 3
    • class3. usual activities; not employable: ADL key 2
    • class4. needs helps in ADLS; little activity outside home: ADL key 1
    • class5. at rest; confined to home: ADL key 0
  37. How does cyanosis play in role in respiratory assessment
    It's a pretty late sign; it is not reliable and is affected by size and skin color
  38. When percussing lungs, what shoud you hear?
  39. What should you hear when auscultating the lungs?
    vesticular lung sounds: inspiration > expiration

    Note: bronchial is over the larynx and bronchovesticular are over the trachea
  40. TF: bronchial breath sounds, inspiration > expiration
    • false:
    • bronchial inspiration < expiration
  41. define crackles
    crackles are fine crackling sounds made as air moves through wet secretions in the lungs
  42. define wheezes
    continuous, high pitched squeak or musical sound made as air moves through narrowed or partially obstructed airway passages
  43. define ronchi
  44. How long do you have to get a sputum culture to the lab?
    2 hours
  45. what's important to note about pulse oximetry
    • Measures the saturation of hemoglobin
    • hemoglobin may be saturated with CO
    • affected by temperature, vasoconstriction, ambient light; ages
  46. bronchoscopy: inserted, for, NPO?
    • Invasive procedure to visualixe the trachea and bronchi (lung and airways);
    • inserted through nose, mouth or trachea
    • can detect tumors, take samples, remove secretions, improve airlow
    • NPO for 48 hours prior
    • NPO for 2-3 hours after (gag must return)
  47. thoracentesis: inserted, for, NPO?
    • Invasive procedure to aspirate fluid or air from the pleural space
    • Inserted in intercostal space
    • aspirate fluid or air from the pleural space
    • no need for NPO
  48. How do you monitor someone after a bronchoscopy?
    • monitor:
    • oxygen sat
    • vital signs
    • breath sounds
  49. TF: When you aspirate fluid or air from the pleural space using thoracentesis, it will not reaccumulate
    False; it is often a temporary measure
  50. What are interventions after thoracentesis?
    • chest x ray to ensure that lung wasn't nicked (pneumothorax)
    • check for crepitus
    • look for drainage
    • access for pain
    • access for dyspnea
    • position patient on side to apply pressure to site
  51. If you notice crepitus after a thoracentesis, what do you do?
    • mark the site to see how far out it extends
    • notify physician immediately
  52. Define tidal volume
    inspiratory volument during quiet respirations
  53. define vital capacity
    maximum amount that can be inhaled or exhaled
  54. define functional residual capacity
    amount of air remianing in lungs after a maximal expiration
  55. define total lung capacity
    sum of the vital capacity and the residual volume
  56. define forced vital capacity
    max amount of air that can be exhaled as quickly as possible after a max inspiration

    Remember: flows are "forced"
  57. define forced expiratory volume1
    amount of air exhaled in the first second; should be 70%

    • Remember: flows are "forced"
    • 35% of where you should be is "severe"
  58. Classify obstructive and restrictive lung diseases in terms of problems with flows or volumes
    flows - obstructive diseases

    restrictive diseases - volumes

    Remember "forv" as in forever
  59. obstructive diseases are marked by ____________________
    increased airway resistance
  60. restrictive diseases are marked by ____________________
    reduction in the expansion of the thorax or lung tissue
  61. Normal arterial pH range
    7.35 - 7.45
  62. the lower the pH, the more _______
  63. the higher the pH, the more _______
  64. Increase in H+ leads to a _____________
    decrease in pH (--> acidic)
  65. Decrease in H+ leads to a _____________
    increase in pH (-->base)
  66. Describe levels of potassium in terms of the pH scale
    • acid = more H+ = more K
    • basic = less H+ = less K
  67. normal paCO2
    35 - 45
  68. normal paO2
  69. normal O2 sat
    > 95%
  70. normal HCO3
  71. normal K
    3.5 - 5
  72. What are the sources of acid
    • protein metabolism
    • glucose metabolism
    • fat metabolism
    • anaerobic metabolism
    • cell destruction
    • carb metabolism
  73. what are the sources of bases
    • breakdown of carbonic acid
    • absorption of bicarb by the intestines
    • reabsorption of bicarb by the kidneys
    • production of bicarb by the pancreas
    • intracellular movement
  74. What are diet considerations for someone with acidosis
    fat, protein, and carb metabolism produce acids
  75. What are the three lines of defense in keeping the acid-base balance in the body
    • 1. buffers
    • 2. respiratory mechanisms
    • 3. renal mechanisms
  76. Explain buffers in relation to acid-base balance
    • Buffers are the first line of defense
    • There are chemical buffers and protein buffers
    • The buffers act to soak up the extra H+ ions in the body fluid or release H+ ions when needed to maintain balance
    • The chemical buffers are bicarbonate and phosphate
    • Protein buffers are hemoglobin and albumin
  77. Explain the respiratory mechanism to maintain acid-base balance
    • Second line of defense
    • acts quickly
    • Sensitive to CO2 levels
    • if high, hyperventilate to blow off CO2
    • if low, hypoventilate to keep CO2
  78. Explain the renal mechanism to achieve acie-base balance
    • third line of defense
    • takes effect at 24-48 hours
    • There is reabsorption or excretion of HCO3 to buffer the H+ ions
    • If HCO3 is formed and then reabsorbed in the kidneys, it leaves the urine negatively charged with phosphate which attacts H+ into the urine, forming acids for excretions
    • Ammonium is formed from the breakdown on ammonia which attracts H+ ions and allows them to be excreted in urine
    • All leads to less H+ which decreases acidity and increases pH
  79. what are the manifestations of acidosis?
    • CNS depression
    • decrease in muscle tone
    • increased rate and depth of respirations
  80. What are the manifestations of alkalosis?
    • CNS excitement
    • seizures
    • tetany
    • cramps
    • twitches, but weakness
    • myocardial irritability
  81. TF: When determining whether compensation in uncompensated or not, look at whether the other mechanism value is normal or not.
  82. How do you evaluate a PaO2 less than 80 mmHG (Arterial blood gas)
    Increase oxygen delivery in order to figure out underlying cause
  83. What is the percentage concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere?
  84. TF: the central receptors in the brain that control breathing are responsive to the body's levels of O2
    False; they are sensitive to CO2
  85. Chronic increases in CO2 levels > _____ can lead to a decrease in sensitivity o f central receptors in the brain
  86. What is oxygen toxicity? Manifestations
    • An occurrence where O2 concentration is more than 50% for 48 hours.
    • fatigue
    • chest pain
    • cough
    • edema
  87. In atelectatis, _______________ replaces oxygen in the alveoli
  88. You must provide humidification with oxygen greater than __L /minute
  89. What is a way to make sure a pt receives oxygen without increasing the amount?
    increase the pressure
  90. What are some sources of infection related to oxygen delivery?
    • humidifier
    • nebulizer
    • cannulas
    • masks

    *humidification increases risk
  91. TF: Room air is still involved with low flow delivery systems
    True; the total concentration of oxygen received by pt is dependent on resp rate and tidal volume -->variable
  92. What are examples of low flow delivery systems
    • nasal cannula 1 - 6 L/min
    • simple face mask 6-8 L/min
    • partial rebreather 6-11 L/min
    • non-rebreather 12L/min
  93. What are examples of high flow delivery systems
    Venturi Makd 8-15 L/min
  94. What are some problems with prolonged intubation?
    Fistulas in/near your esophagus. recall that the esophagus is on the back side of the trachea.

    After 7-10 days, advance to a tracheostomy
  95. What is postop care after a tracheostomy
    • breath sounds
    • bleeding
    • pulsatio nof the tube
    • bed elevation to reduce swelling &promote drainage
    • humidify air (since upper airways won't be doing this)
  96. what are complications of a tracheostomy
    • obstruction
    • dislodgement
    • pneumothorax - rare
    • subQ emphsema (crepitus)
    • bleeding
    • pressure ulcers
    • pulsating - life threatening
  97. TF: It is okay to suction during insertion when performing trach care
  98. How should you suction during trach care on the way out
  99. What are the rules for suctioning in trach care
    • 2-3 passes
    • 10-15 seconds at a time
    • never on insertion
    • intermittently during extraction
  100. When suctioning trachs, the ideal pressure is
    80-120 mm
  101. TF: hyperventilate the pt prior to trach care
    True; before each suctioning pass for 30 seconds to 3 minutes (3 times max) until heart rate and sat are normal
  102. TF: Trach care is always sterile
    False; in hospital, suctioning is a sterile technique. At home, it is a clean technique
  103. Nebulizers are ________ driven and disperse meds through tiny particles
  104. Chest physiotherapy contains five areas....
    • 1. cough and deep breathing
    • 2. ambulation
    • 3. postural drainage
    • 4. chest percussion
    • 5. vibration
  105. In order to perform postural drainage, lobes need to be in what position
    higher than mouth
  106. When performing vibration PT, the person is shaken upon ________________(exhalation/inhalation)
  107. What are the obstructive lung diseases?
    • asthma
    • chronic bronchitis
    • emphysema

  108. reversibility of obstructive lung diseases
    • asthma is most reversible
    • following by chronic bronchitis
    • followed by emphysema (least)
  109. sputum production of obstructive lung diseases
    • chronic bronchitis has the most
    • asthma and emphysema - least
  110. alveolar damage as it relates to obstructive lung disease
    • none w/ asthma
    • most with emphysema
    • less with chronic bronchitis
  111. with asthma, is mortality higher in men or women
  112. How is asthma obstructive
    air way narrowing due to inflammation (smooth muscle contraction)
  113. Is there damage with asthma?
    Yes, even though reversible and no alveolar damage, there can be scarring of the airways (resulting in permanent narrowing)
  114. What are the manifestations of asthma?
    • audible wheeze and cough
    • initially wheeze heard on expiration
    • progresses to both inspiration and expiration
    • longer respiratory cycle - harder to get out (think narrowing on expiration) --> barrell chest
    • use of accessory muscles
  115. ABGs of asthmatic early in attack vs later in the attack
    • early:
    • fast and hard breathing --> low CO2, pH up

    • later:
    • tired, breathing slows --> high CO2, pH down
  116. How can an xray and/or CBC help you in asthma diagnosis?
    They won't show anything, but rather help to exclude other things i.e. lung tumor
  117. Bronchodilators: Describe:
    1. beta 2 agonists
    2. cholenergic antagonists
    3. methylxanthines
    • Beta 2 relax smooth muscle
    • Cholenergic inhibit the parasympathetic to rest and digest
    • Methylxanthines relaxes smooth muscle working like caffeine
  118. short acting beta 2 agonist
    • albuterol
    • bitolterol
    • levalbuterol
    • pirbuterol
    • terbutaline
  119. long acting beta 2 agonist
    • salmeterol
    • atrovent
    • formoterol
  120. methylxanthines
  121. cholenergic antagonists
    • atrovent
    • spiriva
  122. Describe the step approach - asthma
    • 1. mild intermittent
    • 2. mild persistant
    • 3. moderate intermittent
    • 4. sever persistent
    • 5.6 severe persistent
  123. which inhaler can give you thrush
    steroid; rinse mouth
  124. corticosteroids
    • flovent
    • prednisone
  125. nsaids
  126. leuokotrient antagonist
  127. immunomodulator
  128. emphysma
    irreversible increases in size of airspaces

    • centrilobular - diffuse upper lobes - more bronchioles
    • panlovbular - lower lobes - entire alveolus

    • hyper inflated lungs
    • flattened diaphragm
  129. how do the airways become larger in emphysema
    elastases and proteases destroy elastic properties; these enzyymes are released by alveoli and there is a defiency of the antitrypsin which protects lungs
  130. chronic bronchitis
    hypertrophy and hyperplasia of submucosal glands
  131. has is chronic bronchitis defined in terms of sputum
    daily production of sputum for greater than 3 months for 2 years
  132. COPD =
    chronic bronchitis and emphysema
  133. What is the number 1 cause of COPD?
  134. Classic picture of COPD (Acidosis/alkalosis)
    • chronic respiratory acidosis
    • (CO2 may not always go up)
    • PO2 decreases
    • elevated white count
    • Red blood cell count up to get mmore oxygen
  135. bacteria that causes respiratory infections in COPD
    • -streptococcus pneumonia
    • -H influenza
    • -staph
    • -pseudomonas
  136. Who gets cor pulmonle (right sided heart failure) and what does it look loke
    • COPD
    • sarcoidosis

    • edema
    • distended neck veins
    • large livers
  137. What does someone with COPD look like
    • thin
    • axious
    • sitting forward
    • barrel chest
    • limited diaphragm movments
    • right sided heart failure
    • wheezing, ronchi
  138. COPD PFTs
    • Residual volume up
    • Functional residual capacity up
    • total lung capacity up in emphysema
    • total lung capacity normal in bronchitis
    • forced expiratory volumes decreased
  139. What's an acceptable oxygen sat for COPDer
  140. Do you give asthma drugs to a COPDer?
    • long acting like spyriva and steroids
    • can add mucolytics too
  141. diaphramatic & purse lip breathing are useful for ....
  142. what is a bullectomy?
    In COPD, big air sacs can be deflated so they don't rupture causing a pneumothorax
  143. what is volume reduction surgery?
    very strict criteria that most can't meet: end stage emphysema with minimal bronchitis and others

    remove dead weight
  144. what are the restrictive lung diseases
    • problems with volumes, remember
    • sarcoidosis
    • idiopathic pulmonay fibrosis
    • kyphoscoliosis
  145. what's characteristic of restrictive lung diseases
    • slow onset
    • SOB w/ activity
    • can get air in and out, but problems with volumes
  146. sarcoidosis
    • auto immune
    • scar tissue
  147. idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
    • lethal, generally
    • scarring and fibrosis
  148. atelectasis
    closure or collapse of alveoli
  149. what does atelectasis look like?
    • Increased wob
    • Dyspnea
    • Cough
    • Elevation in temp
    • Reduction in breath sounds
    • Crackles
    • Decrease in saturation
  150. small cell lung cancers are ____% of all lung cases
    20% - slow growing and usually metastasized at diagnosis
  151. lung cancer symptoms can often be attributed to ____ and ingored
  152. do you expect to see a chest tube after a pt has had a pneumonectomy?
    No, the entire lung was removed; there i nothing to expand
  153. what chest tube output is considered ezcessive
    greater than 100c/hr
  154. bubbling in chest tube is normal with ___________--
    exhalation and cough and position changes;

    the water seal is what keeps air from entering the chest
  155. what is the cure rate for cancer
    5 year survival rate
  156. TF: laryngeal cancer is a rare cancer
  157. with a total laryngectomy, is there a risk for aspiration?
    No, pharynx is gone
  158. what does a pulmonary embolism look lie
    • sudden onset dyspnea and tachypnea
    • cough, hemoptysis
    • pleuritic chest pain
    • paO2 down
    • O2 sat done
  159. pulmonary embolism prophalatic
    low dose heparin subQ
  160. TF: heparin does not do anything to the existing clot; prevents additional clots and the existing clot from getting bigger
  161. PPT is monitored with ___________
    • heparing
    • 1.5 - 2.5 x control
  162. INR is monitored with
    • Coumadin
    • 2.5 - 3
Card Set
Chapters14, 29-34
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