ATmidterm.txt

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itzlinds
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ATmidterm.txt
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2012-02-28 14:10:51
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ATH midterm
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ATH midterm
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  1. describe the safety standards for sports equpiment and facitlites:
    • concerns relative to materials, durability, equipment testing, establisment of standards, manufacturing, and requirements for use
    • more concerned with with ability to preent injury not appearance
  2. describe the leagl concerns in using protective equipment:
    • if equipment is determinded to be defective or inadequate for its intened purpose the manufacturedd is considered liable
    • if the protective equipment is modified in any way, the liability is on the part of the maufacture is voided, and the individ who modifed it becomes liable
    • exactly follow the naufacture's instruction for using and maintaining protective equpiment
  3. describe the equipment reconditioning and recertification:
    • NOCSAE: national orgainization committee on standards for athletic equpiment, established voluntary test standards to reduce head injuries by establishing minimun safety requirements of football helmets and face masks
    • factors such as type of helmet and the amount and intenstity of usage
    • NOCSAE is not a warranty
    • states that the model met the requirements of performance tests when it was manufactured or reconditioned
    • recommends haveing helmets recondidtioned and recertified
    • certification procces can meet standard preformance requirements for many seasons
  4. using off the shelf versus custom protective equipment:
    • off the shelf: premad and packaged by the maufacture, used immediately, examples- neoprene sleevs, sorbethane shoe inserts, protective ankle braces
    • custom equipment: constructed according ot the individ characterstics of athlete

    using off the shelf equpiment may casue problems with sizing and exact fit
  5. describe head protection as protective equpiment:
    direct collision sports require head protection due to impacts, forces, velocities, and implements
  6. describe football helmets protective equipment:
    • NOCSAE developed standards of certification
    • must be protective against a concussive force
    • while helmets must be certified, they are not completely fail-safe
    • athletes and parents must be aware of inherent risks
  7. describe the warning lables for football helmets:
    • must have a visible exterior warning lable
    • indicate the helmet must not be used to strikee an opponent due to risk of injury
    • indicates risk of injury acidentitally and that athlete plays at his own risk when wearing a helmet
    • athlete must be awear of risk, and read and sign a statment regarding the waring lable
  8. describe the riddle reveloution changes that have been made to the football helmet:
    • computer designed helmet extends further past the jaw for additional protection and stablility
    • the distance between the helmet and the head has been increased
    • padding inflates to provide custom fit to every player
    • face guard system is designed to isolate the attachment points of the face guard from the shell, reducing the jarring of the player
  9. which one of the following is a goal of a professional organization?

    a. have proved to be unsuccessfull in brining athletic training to high standards of professional conduct
    b. are not concerned with the cause of sports injury
    c. upgrade the profession through the establishment of standards
    d. help athletic trainers make the majority of their decisions
    c
  10. which one of the following performance domains includes the athletic trainer's responsibility to educate others?

    A. professional responsibilities
    B. prevention of athletic injuries
    C. immediate care of athletic injuries
    D. clinincal evaluation and diagnosis
    A. professional responsibilites
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. seeing that the protective eqiupment is of the highest qualitiy, properly fitted, and maintained is the responsibility of the:

    a. athletic trainer
    b. equipment personnel
    c. coach
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  12. which of the following organizations is responsible for drug education and testing?

    A. national athletic trainer's association
    B. national strength and conditioning association
    C. american college of sports medicine
    D. NCAA committee on competitive safeguards
    D. NCAA committee on cpmetitive safeguards
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. the team physician:

    A. need not be cognizant of the physical demands of the various sports because that is the athletic trainer's role
    B. needs to work completely independent of the athletic trainer
    C. needs to focus the physical exam on the heart, lungs, and blood pressure
    D. is the final authority in determining when an athlete may return to play
    D. is the final authority in determining when an athlete may return to play
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. as of 2004, which is the only way that a candidate can become certified as an athletic trainer?

    A. endorsement by the NSCA
    B. 800 clinical hours
    C. CPR certification
    D. graduation from a CAATE accredited athletic training program
    D. graduation from a CAATE accreditited athletic training program
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. true/false: the american orthopedic society for sports medicine was developed to encourage and support scientific research in orthopedic sports medicine
    true
  16. true/fasle: coaches are directly responsible for preventing injuries through conditioning programs.
    true
  17. true/false: the national trainers association was founded for the purpose of establishign professional standards and disseminating information about athletic training.
    true
  18. true/false: an athletic trainer's personal qualitites determine his or her success, not the facilites or the equipment.
    true
  19. the law that protects the privacy of student educational records and in some instances medical records is known as:

    A. PHI
    B. FERPA
    C. OSHA
    D. HIPPA
    B. FERPA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. all of the following should be elements of a hydrotherapy area EXCEPT:

    A. GFI for the outlet to prevent electrical shock
    B. all electrical outlets should be placed 4-5 feet about the floor
    C. both A and B
    D. 4-5 whirlpool baths to provide both hot and cold whirlpools
    D. 4-5 whirlpool baths to provide both hot and cold whirlpools
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. OSHA stands for:

    A. occupational safety and housing administration
    B. organization for safety and health administration
    C. organization for standards on health administration
    D. occupational safety and health administration
    D. occupational safety and health administration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. which of the following are expendable supplies?

    A. isokinetic machines, ice machines, crutches
    B. TENS units, tape, massage lotion
    C. tape, massage lotion, bandages
    D. TENS units, ultrasound unit
    C. tape, massage lotion, bandages
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. the primay purpose of a pre participation health exam is to:

    A. identify whether an athlete is at risk before he/she participates
    B. determine body fat perecentages for coaches
    C. satifsfy insurance and liability issues
    D. reveal qualifying conditions
    A. identify whether an athlete is at risk before he/she participates
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. when ordering expensive supplies it is important to have vendors quote prices before making a decision. this is known as:

    A. expendable purchase
    B. lease agreement
    C. direct buy
    D. competitive bidding
    D. comeptitive bidding
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. which of teh following is an example of non-consumable capital equipment?

    A. isokinetic machines
    B. crutches
    C. first aid supplies
    D. scissors
    A. isokinetic machines
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. which of the following conditions does NOT indicate a possible medical disqualification from collision/contact sports?

    A. diabetes
    B. enlarged liver
    C. a loss of one kidney
    D. mononucleosis
    A. diabetes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. an athletic trainer should develop a systematic plan for assessing the emergency medical system and subsequent transportation of injured athletes to an emergency care facility. this type of plan known as:

    A. an institiutional emergency response plan
    B. an emergency action plan
    C. a policy and procedure manual
    D. a medical procedure policy
    B. an emergency action plan
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. athletic trainers do not often work in the following capacity:

    A. ergonomic assessment programs
    B. rehabilitation/physical therapy clinics
    C. work hardening programs
    D. medical billing/coding programs
    D. medial billing/coding programs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. a. torts
    b. standard of reasonable care
    c. negligence
    d. statues of limitation
    e. assumption of risk
    f. liability
    g. worker's compensation
    h. general health insurance
    i. accident insurance
    j. professional liability insurance
    k. medicare
    l. medicaid

    choose the letter that most acccuralty corresponds with the description:

    laws and benefits for injured workers that are made mandated by states
    g
  30. a. torts
    b. standard of reasonable care
    c. negligence
    d. statues of limitation
    e. assumption of risk
    f. liability
    g. worker's compensation
    h. general health insurance
    i. accident insurance
    j. professional liability insurance
    k. medicare
    l. medicaid

    choose the letter that most acccuralty corresponds with the description:

    failure to use ordinary or resonable care
    c. negligence
  31. a. torts
    b. standard of reasonable care
    c. negligence
    d. statues of limitation
    e. assumption of risk
    f. liability
    g. worker's compensation
    h. general health insurance
    i. accident insurance
    j. professional liability insurance
    k. medicare
    l. medicaid

    choose the letter that most acccuralty corresponds with the description:

    legal wrongs committed against a person (liability results)
    a. torts
  32. a. torts
    b. standard of reasonable care
    c. negligence
    d. statues of limitation
    e. assumption of risk
    f. liability
    g. worker's compensation
    h. general health insurance
    i. accident insurance
    j. professional liability insurance
    k. medicare
    l. medicaid

    choose the letter that most acccuralty corresponds with the description:

    individual is made awear of inherent risks involved in sport & voluntarily decides to participate
    e. assumption of risk
  33. a. torts
    b. standard of reasonable care
    c. negligence
    d. statues of limitation
    e. assumption of risk
    f. liability
    g. worker's compensation
    h. general health insurance
    i. accident insurance
    j. professional liability insurance
    k. medicare
    l. medicaid

    choose the letter that most acccuralty corresponds with the description:

    federal heatlh insurance program for the aged and disabled
    k. medicare
  34. a. torts
    b. standard of reasonable care
    c. negligence
    d. statues of limitation
    e. assumption of risk
    f. liability
    g. worker's compensation
    h. general health insurance
    i. accident insurance
    j. professional liability insurance
    k. medicare
    l. medicaid

    choose the letter that most acccuralty corresponds with the description:

    health insurance program for people with low incomes and limited resources
    l. medicaid
  35. a. torts
    b. standard of reasonable care
    c. negligence
    d. statues of limitation
    e. assumption of risk
    f. liability
    g. worker's compensation
    h. general health insurance
    i. accident insurance
    j. professional liability insurance
    k. medicare
    l. medicaid

    choose the letter that most acccuralty corresponds with the description:

    low cost plan to cover accident in the workplace or on school grounds; protects against financial loss from medical or hospital bills
    i. accident insurance
  36. a. torts
    b. standard of reasonable care
    c. negligence
    d. statues of limitation
    e. assumption of risk
    f. liability
    g. worker's compensation
    h. general health insurance
    i. accident insurance
    j. professional liability insurance
    k. medicare
    l. medicaid

    choose the letter that most acccuralty corresponds with the description:

    state of being legally responsible from the harm one causes to another person
    f. liability
  37. a. torts
    b. standard of reasonable care
    c. negligence
    d. statues of limitation
    e. assumption of risk
    f. liability
    g. worker's compensation
    h. general health insurance
    i. accident insurance
    j. professional liability insurance
    k. medicare
    l. medicaid

    choose the letter that most acccuralty corresponds with the description:

    specific length of time an individual can sue for injury resulting from negligence
    d. statutes of limitations
  38. a. torts
    b. standard of reasonable care
    c. negligence
    d. statues of limitation
    e. assumption of risk
    f. liability
    g. worker's compensation
    h. general health insurance
    i. accident insurance
    j. professional liability insurance
    k. medicare
    l. medicaid

    choose the letter that most acccuralty corresponds with the description:

    policy that covers illnesses, hospitalization, and emergency care
    h. general health insurance
  39. failure to use ordinary or reasonable care is called





    –failure to use ordinary or reasonable
    care
    negligence
  40. a specific length of time in which an individual may sue from injury resulting from negligency is called:
    statue of limitations
  41. when the individual is made awear of the inherent risks involved in sport and voluntarily decides to continue participating is called:
    assumption of risk
  42. liability of any and all parties involved in manufactured product for damages caused by product, includes manufacture of components, assemblers, wholesalers, and retail store owner is called:
    product liability - a written guarntee that athletic equipment is safe
  43. define what the acronym stands for and describe what the organization does:

    NOCSAE
    • national operating committee on standards of athletic equipment
    • provides minimum standards for equipment to ensure safety
  44. a combinaton of HMO and PPO, that is based on HMO but allows for care outside of the plan is called:
    point of service
  45. define what the acrynom stands for and define the organization: HMO
    health maintance organization: provide preventitive measures and dictate where individual can receive care
  46. define what the acrynom stands for and define what the organization: PPO
    Preferred Providers Organization: provide discount health care and also where treatment can be obtained, pay on a fee for service basis
  47. a form of reimbursement where members make standard monthly payments reguardless of services renedered is called:
    capitation
  48. treatements not covered by insurance policy are called:
    exclusions
  49. the most traditional form of health care billing is called:
    fee for service
  50. list the performance enhancment areas of specialization of sports medicine:
    • exercise physiology
    • biomechanics
    • sport psychology
    • sports nurtrition
    • strength and conditioning
    • coaching
    • personal fitness training
  51. list the injury care and management area of specialization in sports medicine:
    • practice of medicine
    • athletic training
    • sport physical therapy
    • sport massage therapy
    • sport dentistry
    • osteopathic medicine
    • orthotics/prosthetics
    • sport chiropractic
    • sport podiatry
  52. what does NATA stand for and describe its fxn/role:
    • National Athletic trainers association
    • role: to enhance qulality of health care provided by certified athletic trainers and to advance the athletic training profession
  53. what does ACSM stand for and describe its role/fxn:
    • American College of Sports medicine
    • role: interested in the study of all aspects of sports
  54. what does NSCA stand for and describe its role:
    • national strength and conditioning association
    • role: exchange ideas of strength development as it relates to the improvement of athletic performance
  55. what does APTA stand for and describe its role:
    • American physical therapy assoication
    • role: promotes prevention, recognition, treatment and rehab of injuries in athletic and physically active populations
  56. what does NCAA stand for and describe its role:
    • national colegiate athletic assoication
    • role: supervises drug education and drug testing programs
  57. list the employment settings for the athletic trainer:
    • clinics and hospitals
    • physician extenders
    • industrial/occupational settings
    • corporate settings
    • colleges or universities
    • secondary schools
    • school districts
    • porfessional sports
    • amateur/recreational/youth sports
    • performing arts
    • military and law enforcement
    • health and fitness clubs
  58. describe the role of the athletic trainer and the athlete:
    • injured patient must be informed
    • educated about prevention
    • provide instructions about training and conditioning
    • inform patient to listen to body
  59. describe the role of the AT and the parents:
    • must keep parents informed
    • decision regarding healthcare is a primary consideration
    • insurance plans may dictate care
    • inform them of HIPPA
  60. describe the role of the AT and the team physican:
    • works under direct supervison of physican
    • physican: compiles med. histories, and conducts physcial exams, diagnosis of injury, deciding on disqualifications
  61. describe the role of the AT and the coach:
    coach must understand of limits of their abilities as a health care provider, directly responsible for injury prevention, aware of risks associated with sport, provied appropriate training and equipment
  62. what does BOC stand for and describe its role:
    • Board of Certification
    • role: responsible for the certification of athletic trainers since 1969
  63. describe the areas of phsyician speicalization:
    • dermatologist: lesions occuring on skin
    • family medicine:
    • gynecologist: female reproduction
    • internist: practice of internal medicine, treats internal diseases of internal organs other methods than surgery
    • neurologist: injuries to the nervous system
    • opthalamologist: injury to the eye
    • orthopedist: injury or disorders of the musculoskeletal system
    • osteopath: therapy and manipulation of joints extensively
    • pediatrician: young children
    • psychiatrist: diagnosis, treatment, prevention of mental illness
  64. what does EMT stand for and describe its role:
    • emergencyu medical technician
    • role: first responder, basic, paramedic
  65. what does AMA stand for and describe its role:
    • american meical association
    • role: recognized athletic training as an allied health profession
  66. what does CAATE stand for and describe its role:
    • committee for accreditation of athletic training
    • role: ensures students are educated to serve in the role of allied health professional, with an emphasis on clinical reseasoning skills
  67. list the requirements for candidacy for the BOC certification examination:
    • a. completion of entry level athletic training program by accreditied CAATE program
    • 2. proof of graduation at the baccalaureate level
    • 3. endorsment of the examination application by the CAATE accredited program director
    • 4. proof of current CPR card
  68. describe the state requirements for an AT:
    • lisensure: met minimal requirememts establisheb by a state licensing board
    • certification: indicates the person possesses the basic knowledge and has passed a certification examination
    • registration: has to pay a fee before being placed on the exisiting list of practitioners
    • exemption: allows AT to perform fnxs similar to other liscensed professionals
  69. describe infectious disease:
    • invasion of a host (animial or person) by a microorganism (pathogen)
    • disrupts vital body processes
    • stimulate immuen system to react defensively
    • common pathogens: bacteria, virus, parasites, fungi
  70. describe the 3 modes of direct transmission of infectious disease:
    • contact of body surfaces
    • droplet spread
    • fecal-oral spread
  71. describe the 3 modes of indirect transmission of infectious disease:
    • inanimate objects: water, food, towles, clothing
    • vectors: insects, birds, animals
    • airborne: particles suspended in air
  72. list and describe the stages of pathogen infection:
    • incubation: time pathogen enters body to time signs and symptoms appear
    • prodromal: watery eyes,runny nose, fever, isolation to prevent transmission
    • acute: disease reaches greatest development, body resists further damage
    • decline: first signs of recovery
    • recovery: overcome invading pathogen
  73. describe the role of the immune system in disease:
    • mechanical defense: separates internal body from external envrionment (skin, mucouse, hair)
    • cellular system: T and B cells, t cells activates macrophages, b cells transform in to specialized cells capable of producing anitbodies, antibodies neutralize antigens via lysis and phaygocytosis, memory T cells
  74. describe the keys to prventing the spread of infectious disease:
    • most effective = hand washing
    • ensure immunizations are up to date
    • educate on the need to take antiboitics as directed
    • healthy lifestyles
  75. describe what blood borne pathogens:
    pathogenic ogranisms, present in human blood and other fluids (CFS, semen, vaginal secretion, synovial fluid) that can cause diesease
  76. list a few types of common infectious diseases that have immuniztions available for them:
    • diphteria
    • pertussis
    • hepatitis B
    • heamophilus influenza type b
    • tetanus
    • rebella (measeles)
    • polio, mumps, and chicken pox
  77. list the most common blood borne pathogen diseases:
    • hapatitis B HBV
    • hepatitis C HBC
    • human immunodeficieny virus HIV
  78. describe what Hepatitis B is and its key components:
    • attacks liver, results in lifeling infection, cirrhosis, liver cancer, and liver failure and death
    • flu like symptoms, fatigue, weakness, nausea, abdominal pain, headach, fever, jaundice
    • AT should be vaccinated, 3 does vaccine over 6 months, post exposure vaccine also available
  79. describe what hepatitis C is and its key components:
    • acute and chronic liver disease
    • most common bloodborne infection
    • leadindindication for liver transplant
    • spread thru contact, sharing needles
    • no vaccine
  80. describe HIV and its key components:
    • infects T4 blood cells, B cells and monocytes
    • transmitted by infected blood or fluid
    • detected with within 1 year of exposure
    • will develop AIDS
  81. describe AIDS and its key components:
    • no protection against the simplest infection
    • no vaccine, no cure
    • prevention: latex condom provides barrier, non premosicuous sex partners
  82. describe the universal precautions in the athletic environment:
    • all open wounds/lesions should be covered
    • occulusive dressing lessens chance of cross contamination
    • active bleeding: removed from participation, blood uniform removed
  83. describe the personal universal precautions one should take in the athletic environment:
    • latex gloves, gowns, masks, eye protection, mouthpeice for recesscitation
    • double gloving
    • wash hands immediately
  84. describe the universal precaution supplies and equipment in the athletic envrionment:
    • chlorine bleach, anitseptics
    • receptacles for soiled linen, equpiments
    • sharps bin
    • biohazard warning lables
    • lables in fluorescent organe or red
    • red bags and containers for infectious material
  85. describe the modes of protection against BBP for the athlete:
    • use mouthpieces
    • shower immediately
    • immunization
  86. describe the modes of protection against BBP for the AT:
    not eating/drinking, applying lip balm, handling contact lens, and touching face before washing hands
  87. describe the proporer disposal for sharps:
    • do not recap or bend or remove from syringe
    • sterilize scissors and tweezers

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