My CDC 4V Vol 1

The flashcards below were created by user jmacias67 on FreezingBlue Flashcards.

  1. Briefly explain the mission of the USAF Medical Service.
    The mission is to ensure maximum wartime readiness by developing and operating a comprehensive community-based healthcare system that maintains the health and morale of Air Force members by providing or arranging timely, quality medical service for all active duty members, their families and beneficiaries. During contingencies, this healthcare system must rapidly expand, mobilize, and deploy to provide medical support to Air Force operations worldwide.
  2. Who heads the USAF Medical Service, and to whom is this individual an advisor?
    The Air Force Surgeon General; the Secretary of the Air Force and Air Force Chief of Staff.
  3. Where is ophthalmology typically found on the organizational chart?
    Medical operations squadron under the surgical services flight.
  4. Which flight is responsible for plans and programs, and allocates manpower and funds?
    Resource management.
  5. What services are provided by the medical support squadron?
    Resource management, TRICARE, medical logistics, medical information systems management, diagnostic and therapeutic services, and personnel and administration support.
  6. Where is optometry typically found on the organizational chart?
    Aerospace medicine squadron under the flight/missile medicine flight.
  7. How do the optometry and ophthalmology clinics contribute to the defense of our country?
    Maintains the visual health and efficiency of all military members (active and retired) and other eligible personnel.
  8. How is the early detection of visual anomalies usually accomplished?
    By vision screenings conducted in local schools or offered in the clinic as part of the eye examination.
  9. What can you expect as you advance in rank and skill level?
    An increase in the scope of responsibility.
  10. What does the third digit indicate in AFSC 4V0X1?
    Career field subdivision; specifically, ophthalmic career field.
  11. How does a person get into the ophthalmic career field?
    Satisfactory completion of the J3ABR4V031, Ophthalmic Apprentice Course.
  12. In what AFMAN can you find your specific job description?
    AFMAN 36-2108, Enlisted Classification.
  13. What's the main difference between the 3-skill level and 5-skill level of the 4V0X1 AFSC?
    The depth of knowledge, level of job proficiency, and scope of responsibility.
  14. Which clinic is primarily responsible for preparing patients for ophthalmic surgery?
    The ophthalmology clinic.
  15. What Air Force training document identifies life-cycle education and training requirements, training support resources, and core task requirements?
  16. Name the two distinct parts of the dual-channel concept of EST.
    Formal training and qualification training.
  17. Define task knowledge.
    Knowledge needed to perform a particular task safely, accurately, and effectively.
  18. Describe a JQS and tell who has the responsibility to develop and ensure its effective use.
    The JQS is nothing more than an STS that has been annotated with what you need to know at your particular duty station. Once the STS has been annotated by your supervisor, it becomes a JQS and is put in your training record.
  19. What's the primary purpose of field evaluations?
    To improve training programs.
  20. Where would you go if you wanted more information on educational opportunities?
    Base education services office.
  21. When is an Air Force member enrolled in the CCAF?
    Upon completion of basic military training.
  22. Besides an associate degree, what other certification can be awarded from CCAF?
    Occupational instructor certificate and trade skill certification.
  23. Name the three civilian organizations concerned with accrediting Air Force ophthalmic courses.
    (1) American Optometric Association.(2) Southern Association of Colleges and Schools. (3) Commission on Occupational Educational Institutions.
  24. Which civilian organization would certify an ophthalmic journeyman as a CPO, CPOA, or CPOT upon successful completion of the exam?
    AOA (American Optometric Association).
  25. Which civilian organization would certify an ophthalmology journeyman as a COA upon successful completion of the exam?
    JCAHPO (Joint Commission on Allied Health Personnel in Ophthalmology).
  26. What are two methods of accident prevention?
    Understand general principles of safety and identify potential situations.
  27. What must you do in order to perform a procedure safely?
    How to do the procedure.
  28. How can mental fitness be maintained?
    By proper diet, exercise, and rest.
  29. What's wrong with eating within view of patients?
    It is very unprofessional and presents a potential health hazard.
  30. What is meant by the term "preoperational training" and why is it important?
    Training occurring prior to operating a piece of equipment or performing a procedure.
  31. What general safety principle can prevent the tendency to perform your duties automatically, and ensures all safety factors are checked?
  32. To stay alert and avoid overlooking safety items, what must be eliminated or effectively handled?
  33. What is one of the biggest causes of job absenteeism in the Air Force?
    Back injuries caused by improper lifting.
  34. What did the OSHA Act's general duty clause emphasize?
    That each employer furnish his or her employees a place of employment free from recognized hazards that are causing or are likely to cause death or serious physical harm.
  35. What is "duty to warn?"
    It is your legal responsibility to inform the patient about all options available to avoid eye injuries.
  36. In the US Air Force, there are two worker classifications when referring to laser eye exam program. What are they?
    Laser worker (laser personnel) and incidental laser worker.
  37. What should happen if there is a suspected or actual laser exposure/incident?
    Ocular overexposure/suspected overexposure to a laser requires an immediate (ASAP, within 24 hours) thorough eye examination by an eye doctor. The tests include medical history, external examination including the skin, best visual acuity near and far, Amsler Grid visual fields, stereopsis, and non-dilated fundoscopy. If the results of these tests are abnormal or questionable, then pupil examination, slit lamp biomicroscopy, and dilated fundoscopy must be done. Also, the incident must be reported IMMEDIATELY.
  38. Accurate record keeping of accidents and incidents serve what two purposes?
    (1) Protect the eye clinic from false claims by unscrupulous individuals.(2) Indicate a need for safety training.
  39. What form should you use to report accidents that cause injuries requiring hospitalization?
    AF Form 765, Medical Treatment Facility Incident Statement.
  40. If you suspect a potential safety hazard in the eye clinic, what form should be used for reporting purposes? Whom should you give this form to?
    AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report. Give it to your supervisor.
  41. What's the key to a successful OPSEC program?
    To get everyone involved in protecting information and resources.
  42. What's an intelligence indicator?
    An item of possible intelligence value providing information about capabilities and intentions when properly interpreted.
  43. How can unclassified information be protected?
    By applying OPSEC principles, policies, and techniques.
  44. Why did the OPSEC survey prove to be a valuable tool in the overall OPSEC program during Southeast Asian operations?
    It provided a systematic way of identifying and eliminating enemy sources of information.
  45. What are the three primary OPSEC vulnerabilities in the eye clinic?
    (1) Schedule.(2) Equipment.(3) Patients, staff, and facilities.
  46. List the three threats in today's Air Force concerning computer security.
    (1) Computer hackers.(2) Malicious logic (viruses).(3) FW&A of computer resources.
  47. What's a computer virus?
    A program designed to copy itself and insert this copy into other executable programs.
  48. Briefly describe ethics.
    Theories or standards governing the conduct of the members of a profession.
  49. What's the relationship between a sound moral character and moral obligations?
    If the moral character is sound, then the moral obligations and resultant behavior will be sound.
  50. What is meant by beneficence?
    The duty to do the patient some good, or render a treatment in the best interest of the patient.
  51. Briefly explain what decisions must be made with distributive justice, and why these decisions need to be made.
    Which patient will receive what treatment, how often, and how many patients can be treated. These decisions need to be made because of limited resources.
  52. Briefly explain under what circumstances you're morally responsible not to give treatment.
    When the treatment could harm the patient and/or you'd be performing treatment you're not qualified and competent to perform.
  53. When are moral policies needed?
    When a group of people with differing moral convictions are involved in moral conflict.
  54. Why can a military doctor be ordered to testify in a court martial about confidential medical information learned from an active duty patient?
    Communication between an active duty patient and a military doctor isn't privileged under the Manual for Courts-Martial.
  55. Why is sensitive medical information confidential, but not classified security information?
    Its release wouldn't compromise or affect our country's national security.
  56. A patient you're seeing is involved in a third-party liability case. Their lawyer contacts you just to clear up some missing minor details, and asks you questions about the patient's treatment. What should you do? Who is the final approval authority for the release of treatment information?
    Refer them to the patient administration section. The hospital commander is the final authority.
  57. What is a professional?
    A professional has great skill or experience in a particular field or activity. One who has an assured competence in a particular field or occupation.
  58. List the desirable characteristics of professionals.
    (1) Courtesy.(2) Attentiveness.(3) Competency.(4) Interpersonal relations.(5) Patient-centered behavior.(6) Good communication.
  59. What does your medical facility's reputation depend on?
    Your behavior.
  60. Where does a high percentage of a patient's perception of quality health care come from?
    Contact with the technicians of the health care team.
  61. You're fitting a pair of glasses on a patient. The phone starts to ring and there's no one else around to answer it. What should you do?
    Answer the phone and ask the individual if he or she will hold, or if you could call him or her back. Don't let the phone just keep ringing.
  62. Why is it important not to give medical advice over the telephone?
    It usually leads to inaccurate self-treatment by patients and is legally risky.
  63. What should you do if there is any question regarding a patient's symptoms?
    Ask an optometrist, ophthalmologist, or any PCM for advice.
  64. Your doctor is running behind schedule and is with a particularly difficult patient. The phone rings and the caller insists on talking to the doctor. What do you do?
    Take a message and indicate to the doctor on the message the caller urgently wants to speak to them. Only disturb the doctor in cases of true emergency.
  65. Medical records are maintained within a system of records protected by what?
    Privacy Act.
  66. What acts and amendments must medical personnel comply with?
    Privacy Act of 1974. (PL 93-579 and 5 U.S.C. 552a).
  67. What single form eliminates the need for a separate Privacy Act statement for each medical or dental document?
    DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement -- Health Care Records.
  68. What are some civil penalties for non-compliance with HIPAA guidelines?
    Civil money penalties are $100 per violation, up to $25,000 per person, per year for each requirement or prohibition violated.
  69. What are the criminal penalties for non-compliance with HIPAA guidelines?
    Criminal penalties are up to $50,000 and one year in prison for obtaining or disclosing protected health information; up to $100,000 and five years in prison for obtaining protected health information under "false pretenses"; and up to $250,000 and 10 years in prison for obtaining or disclosing protected health informaiton with the intent to sell, transfer, or use it for commercial advantage, personal gain, or malicious harm.
  70. What are the two general classes of Air Force publications?
    Departmental and field publications.
  71. Is AFMAN 160-35 a field or departmental publication and what does AFMAN stand for?
    A departmental publication; Air Force manual.
  72. Which general class of Air Force publications normally originates at MAJCOMs and below?
  73. If you want to order an Air Force publication, to what office would you send a memo, and what information must be included?
    The admin section (Office of Personnel and Administrative Services); publication number, title, quantity required, and justification.
  74. After your request for a publication is filled, what office adds the hospital to the distribution list for that publication?
  75. Depending on your local policy, to what offices could you submit a request for a civilian publication?
    Medical Library or Medical Materiel.
  76. What's the purpose of OIs?
    To make adjustment easier for new personnel. They tell the reader what the clinic does, policies, and how some procedures are done.
  77. What does the term forms management mean?
    Proper maintenance of clinic forms. This includes being able to determine your clinic's form requirements, as well as ordering any necessary forms.
  78. List the four areas you should research to determine forms requirement.
    (1) Optometrist's/Ophthalmologist's requirements.(2) Technician's requirements.(3) Administrative requirements.(4) Supply requirements.
  79. Which part of the PB deals with forms?
    Part II -- Forms.
  80. What are the four sections of Part II of the PB?
    A New/revised B Electronic forms C Obsolete D General Information
  81. What form is used to order forms?
    AF Form 3126, General Purpose.
  82. How many days worth of forms should you have at any given time?
    No more than a 30-day supply.
  83. What are two very important factors that must be considered before a scheduling plan can be developed?
    Personnel and facilities.
  84. What are the five skills of a good manager?
    Ability to: (1) Plan.(2) Organize.(3) Direct.(4) Coordinate. (5) Control.
  85. What three personnel tasks should be considered before scheduling patients?
    Military duties of optometrist, military duties of technicians, and administrative duties.
  86. Why can't you make 20-minute appointment slots for all optometry patients?
    Because some patients will require extensive exam time due to age or numerous ocular diseases. A healthy active duty patient won't take as much time as a retiree with cataracts, glaucoma, etc.
  87. Basically, what requirements should a facility meet to be functional?
    Be accessible, meet health and safety standards, have adequate utilities (water, electric, gas, etc.), room for storage/supplies, and provide room to treat patients properly with some degree of privacy.
  88. What reference source can help you determine who is eligible for optometric care in your clinic?
    AFI 41-115, Authorized Health Care and Health Care Benefits in the Military Health Services System (MHSS).
  89. What does a visual screening usually consist of?
    Case history, NCT, and DVA.
  90. Which system, while a bit inconvenient to non-active duty patients, does a very good job of getting active duty patients seen quickly?
    Military priority system.
  91. Which system helps prevent a greater percentage of wasted appointment slots?
    Preliminary triage system.
  92. What have studies shown about working in a sloppy environment?
    It seems to encourage sloppy work.
  93. What simple task can you accomplish that will make you look efficient and prepared for patient arrival?
    Fill in the general information on the exam forms before the patient arrives.
  94. What is the health record form number for medical records?
    AF Form 2100A.
  95. What forms are in Section II of the health record?
    AF Form 745, Sensitive Duties Program Record Identifier; SF 600, Health Record -- Chronological Record of Medical Care; and SF 513, Medical Record -- Consultation Sheet.
  96. Where can the DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement -- Health Care Records, be found?
    At the bottom of Section III in the health record.
  97. You've just finished a VF test on a patient. In what section of the health record do you file the print out of the test?
    Section III.
  98. You open a patient's health record and a lab slip falls out. In what section should you place the slip?
    Section IV of the health record, on top.
  99. Name five things health records are used for.
    (1) Planning.(2) Documentation.(3) Communication.(4) Data.(5) Protection.
  100. Who is the custodian for outpatient and inpatient health records?
    The hospital commander.
  101. What must doctors document in the health records?
    An accurate, legible, and complete description of all services rendered to patients.
  102. What should you do if a patient comes in for treatment but their health record isn't available?
    Annotate the patient's exam on an SF 600 (or whatever form your clinic uses) to record his or her visit.
  103. What's the primary function of a performance factor?
    Determine the amount of work accomplished by a work center.
  104. What is counted as one eye clinic visit?
    One visit is counted for each individual examined, evaluated, consulted, treated, attended, advised, or otherwise provided a distinct service.
  105. What's the key to reporting visits?
  106. What effect (if any) does the number of tests performed or the number of doctors or technicians involved in examining one patient have on the patient count?
    None; it's still counted as one visit.
  107. To fulfill your role in patient accountability reports, what must you provide the RMO?
    The most current, accurate, and verifiable data possible.
  108. RMO, Headquarters USAF, and the DOD use your patient data to assist them with what activities?
    Making budget and financial plans; projecting manpower and staffing needs; procuring facilities and equipment; analyzing operational capabilities; and managing patients during peacetime and wartime.
  109. What are two ways you can report patient visits to RMO?
    AF Form 555 or computerized appointment schedule.
  110. What constitutes proper documentation of a patient visit?
    A signed, dated (health record) entry that specifically states what you (your clinic) did for the patient. According to resource management, the documentation should follow the SOAP format to include:Subjective -- patient's description of the problem, to include their case history;Objective -- testing results of the patient or their glasses;Assessment -- diagnosis of the patient's problem;Plan -- action that will be or was taken (also include information on when the patient should return to the clinic).
  111. If RMO verifies your patient count three months in a row and finds no errors, how frequently will verification occur thereafter?
    Once every 3 months.
  112. According to military guidance, who is responsible for management of public property, and allocation, control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force?
    Each individual.
  113. If there are building repairs to be made, to whom do you report them?
    The facility manager.
  114. When should we concern ourselves with FW&A?
    Every day.
  115. What must you do with your knowledge concerning FW&A?
    Apply prevention techniques and teach others how to identify and prevent FW&A.
  116. Who is responsible for Air Force equipment?
    Each individual, whether they signed for the equipment or not.
  117. What is the commander's responsibility regarding material accountability?
    Ensuring only qualified personnel are selected and assigned as property custodians; that adequate space is provided for proper storage of medical supplies and equipment; the prescribed records are maintained; and that supply discipline is understood and followed.
  118. Who provides the recommendation to the hospital commander for appointing the eye clinic property custodian?
    Section chief of the eye clinic.
  119. How will the appointment of the property custodian be made? Describe the process.
    By a typewritten delegation-of-authority letter. Two copies will be made, containing sample signatures of the authorized representative (appointed property custodian). One copy will go to the MEMO and the other copy will be kept in the new property custodian's folder.
  120. What actions are property custodians authorized to perform with the medical material in their particular account?
    Request and receive.
  121. When the property custodian finds equipment or supplies missing, or damage to equipment, who should he or she notify?
    Their supervisor, then the MEMO folks.
  122. What must occur if the property custodian will be absent from the account for 46 days or more?
    The account must be transferred to someone else.
  123. What list or form shows all property charged out to the eye clinic account?
  124. What should occur before a new custodian signs for all the property in an account?
    There should be an inventory of all items listed. The inventory should be done by the current custodian and new custodian.
  125. If an item is listed but not present during the inventory, which form should reflect its location?
    AF Form 1297.
  126. What should the new property custodian do if a damaged item is found during the inventory?
    Call the MER office and see if the item has already been reported to it. If it hasn't, identify the item to the MER folks before signing the CRLL.
  127. When an item is added or removed from the equipment account, what documents should be maintained until a new CRLL is generated?
    A signed AF Form 601 or a CAL.
  128. You have taken over an account and made an initial inventory of equipment. How much longer do you wait until you make another inventory?
    Must be done annually, but may occur more frequently, either by your choice or a mandate by the commander.
  129. What are the supervisory responsibilities regarding medical material?
    Training of personnel on proper use of equipment and ensuring supply discipline is exercised by those under their supervision.
  130. What percentage of medical equipment malfunctions can be attributed to operator error?
    Over 70 percent.
  131. List five tenets of supply discipline.
    • 1 Safeguard and preserve public property
    • 2 Use equipment and supplies only for their intended use
    • 3 Avoid ordering excess materials. If excess is discovered, turn it in
    • 4 Adhere to the procedures contained in established directives governing requisitions, storage, issue, and turn in of property
    • 5 Ensure reeusts for supplies and equipment are valid and in minimum quantities necessary to perform the assinged mission, and these assets are protected, conserved, and maintained in the best posible condition to meet Air Force commitments
  132. Are the tenets of supply discipline primarily the responsibility of the property custodian?
    No. The tenets apply to all personnel even if they aren't property custodians.
  133. During contingencies, the military health care system must
    expand, mobilize, and deploy.
  134. Who usually advises the chief, Biomedical Sciences Corps, on current data for a particular medical specialty?
    Associate chief.
  135. The four squadrons established within an objective medical group (OMG) are medical support, medical operations, dental, and
    aerospace medicine.
  136. At the present time, optometry clinics generally fall under which flight?
    Flight/missile medicine.
  137. The ophthalmic clinic's capabilities are dependent on the
    resources available.
  138. How are visual anomalies usually detected in the early stages?
    Visual screenings.
  139. The optometry clinic does not provide
    chalazion removal.
  140. Who carries a chief enlisted manager (CEM) code and normally consults with and advises the associate chief on enlisted issues, concerns, and career field matters?
    Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM).
  141. Before you can upgrade to the next skill level, your supervisor must verify you
    possess the needed job proficiency.
  142. The career field education and training plan (CFETP) identifies
    education and training requirements.
  143. What should you consider to be the final authority for doing your daily tasks?
    Air Force publications and policy letters.
  144. An Airman is enrolled with the Community College of the Air Force (CCAF) upon
    completion of basic military training (BMT).
  145. What is the total number of semester hours required for an associate in applied science (AAS) degree as an optometric technician?
  146. The most up-to-date information about the profession of optometry can be obtained from the
    American Optometric Association (AOA).
  147. Which organization/section developed three exams for the purpose of testing ophthalmic technicians seeking national certification as a certified paraoptometric (CPO), certified paraoptometric assistant (CPOA), or certified paraoptometric technician (CPOT)?
    American Optometric Association (AOA).
  148. Two primary ways to prevent accidents are to understand the general principles of safety and
    identify unsafe situations or conditions.
  149. What are the three categories of safety discipline?
  150. When you check all the safety factors associated with a particular task or procedure, even the routine ones, what principle of general safety are you following?
  151. Which safety guideline occurs prior to performing a procedure?
    Preoperational training.
  152. What unsafe practice is one of the biggest causes of job absenteeism in the Air Force and civilian industry?
    Improper lifting of heavy objects.
  153. The sixth leading cause of blindness in the world is
    ocular trauma.
  154. Duty to warn is applied to
    most aspects of the clinic.
  155. Which are examples of laser personnel?
    Research and maintenance personnel.
  156. Accurate record keeping of accidents and incidents can show trends, prevent false claims, and
    indicate a need for safety training.
  157. What form do you use to report situations or conditions which have a potential for personal injury or equipment/facility damage?
    AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report.
  158. What is the most common injury ophthalmic technicians suffer?
    Stabbing a hand with an optician screwdriver.
  159. The reviewing agency for an organization's operations security (OPSEC) program is the
    OPSEC board.
  160. The three primary computer threats of particular importance in today's Air Force are computer hackers, malicious logic, and
    Fraud, waste, and abuse.
  161. Good moral character is best demonstrated by
    treating others as you would like to be treated.
  162. Three types of justice are distributive, compensatory, and
  163. You are asked to perform an applanation tonometry on a patient. You have very little training and do not feel qualified to perform this test. By not performing this test, you are fulfilling which responsibility?
  164. If an Airman is being investigated for possible drug abuse, can information gathered at his or her last military doctor's visit be used in a court-martial?
    Yes; communication between a military patient and a military doctor is not privileged and can be used for court-martial or other administrative action.
  165. If you receive a phone call from a legal firm requesting visual acuity information on a patient, what action should you take?
    Refer the telephone call to patient administration for proper disposition.
  166. You're just locking the door to the clinic for lunch and a patient arrives with a consult from the flight surgeon requesting intraocular pressure (IOP) measurement. In this situation, professional courtesy would be to
    perform and record the IOP test and release the patient back to the flight surgeon.
  167. To project the impression of a caring health professional, what approach should you use?
    T.E.A.M. (Treat Everyone As Me).
  168. You want an off-duty job. To get accurate information on what conduct the Air Force considers ethical in this situation, you should consult the
    Department of Defense (DOD) Regulation 5500.7-R, Joint Ethics Regulation.
  169. Should technicians give medical advice over the telephone?
    No; advice over the phone leads to inaccurate self treatment and is legally risky.
  170. How should you handle a telephone call for the optometrist if he or she is with a patient and the caller does not want to hold?
    Take a message and hand it to the optometrist at the earliest opportunity.
  171. Which acts and amendments must medical personnel comply with?
    Privacy Act of 1974 and 5 U.S.C. 552a.
  172. For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), use
    Department of Defense (DOD) Regulation 6025.18-R.
  173. The purpose of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is to
    improve the portability and continuity of health insurance coverage.
  174. Field publications originate at
    Major command (MAJCOM)-level or below.
  175. To obtain an official Air Force publication for the optometry clinic, you would submit a memo to your hospital Office of Personnel and Administrative Services (admin section) with the publication number, title, quantity required, and a
  176. One way new personnel can minimize an initial dip in their effectiveness is for them to
    prepare operating instructions (OI).
  177. Clinic operating instructions (OI)
    make adjustment easier for new personnel.
  178. The optometrist's/ophthalmologist's, technician's, and administrative needs are three areas that require research to determine your clinic's form requirements. The fourth requirement that should be considered is
  179. The patient-scheduling skills of a good manager are the ability to plan, organize, direct, coordinate, and
  180. The reference publication for determination of eligibility for optometric care in a USAF medical treatment facility (MTF) is Air Force Instruction (AFI)
    41-115, Authorized Health Care and Health Care Benefits In The Military Health Services System (MHSS).
  181. To keep phoropter lenses clean and protect them from damage, it is recommended that at the end of the day you
    set the accessory dial to the occlude position and set the phoropter at plano.
  182. How many sections, or parts, does a health record have?
  183. The health record is used for planning, documentation, data, and
  184. Who is the custodian for inpatient and outpatient health records?
    Hospital commander.
  185. How often should audit verification be done if the clinic has an error rate over 10 percent?
  186. At what level does safeguarding public property under control of the Air Force apply?
  187. Give an example of a cost-free asset.
  188. From where does the money come to pay for expenses, such as the utility bills?
    Tax paying individuals.
  189. Prior to taking over an equipment account, the new equipment custodian must
    conduct a physical inventory of equipment.
  190. Who has the responsibility to ensure training on proper use and safe operation of equipment has taken place?
    Supervisor of those using the equipment.
Card Set:
My CDC 4V Vol 1
2012-03-20 02:11:58
My CDC 4V Vol

My CDC 4V Vol 1
Show Answers: