E190 100 Questions 2012-2013

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E190 100 Questions 2012-2013
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2013-01-10 10:34:46
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Embraer190 E190
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100 Questions for E190. References and Answers were correct at time file was created on 1/10/2013. This file is not continously checked for accuracy.
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  1. (True or False) The MEL is a Pre-takeoff document, not an aircraft operating manual. Reference: MEL Intro
    TRUE
  2. An MEL or CDL requiring installation of an Orange Placard associated with repetitive action required by the maintenance procedure are identified as an ___ on the flight release. Reference: MEL Intro
    F
  3. Before an aircraft can takeoff under the provisions of the MEL , agreement must be reached between _____, ______and the __________ as to the appropriate MEL Item and provisions thereof, possible operational restrictions and placarding procedures. Reference: MEL Intro
    • MOC
    • DISP
    • Captian
  4. (Yes or No) Can the flight crew Placard an item? If so what color will the Placard be? Blue, Orange, White and/or White/Red? Reference: MEL Intro
    • YES
    • White
  5. (Yes or No) During the above scenario is it permissible to communicate directly to MOC without OCC. Reference: Reference: MEL Intro
    NO
  6. An MEL/CDL item containing ―Refer to SPAR‖ indicates what? Reference: PH 5.3.1
    An item has a performance adjustment (weight, speed, runway length,altitude, etc.) or W&B adjustment (C.G., ZFW, cargo loading, etc.).
  7. For flights with no occupants in the cabin, must the Evacuation slides be armed? Reference: PH 1.15.2
    No, Crew Option
  8. (True or False) These maneuvers, policies, and procedures are based on safety, passenger comfort, schedule and efficiency. They assume automation is used at the appropriate level. These maneuvers, policies, and procedures are intended to be followed during all line flying and training. Reference: PH 2.1.1
    TRUE
  9. (True or False) The captain has the authority to deviate from normal operations, but only when unusual circumstances require a deviation in the interest of safety and as necessary to maintain operations. Reference: PH 2.1.2
    TRUE
  10. (True or False) Flow patterns are established to configure aircraft systems or accomplish required tasks in an organized manner without reference to a checklist. These tasks may be accomplished as time permits up to the start of each flow. Once all flow triggers are met, complete the entire flow in order to ensure previously accomplished tasks have been completed. Reference: PH 2.2.1
    TRUE
  11. (True or False) A supplemental procedure is a procedure used in lieu of a normal procedure in certain circumstances (e.g., cross-bleed engine start, operating pressurization in the standby mode, etc.). It is not a non-normal procedure. Reference: PH 4.1.1
    TRUE
  12. (True or False) Pilots may accomplish the supplemental procedure - from memory, by reviewing the procedure prior to its accomplishment, or reading the procedure during its accomplishment. Reference: PH 4.1.2
    TRUE
  13. (Yes or No) The following is the Non-Normal Methodology. a. PF - Maintain Aircraft Control b. Identify the Non-normal c. PM Cancel the Warning d. Accomplish Immediate Action Items e. Captain Assigns PF f. Accomplish the Checklist Reference: PH 9.1.4 14
    YES
  14. During a QRH "Confirm" action, does the (PF or PM) guard the Non-affected control and state "Confirmed"? Reference: PH 9.1.3
    PF
  15. Where are the system resets located in the PH? When may the crew use this section’s procedures?
    Reference: PH 4a.1
    ACFT on Ground with Parking Brake Set
  16. You are checking your PFD, your flight will be planned in RVSM airspace, what is the maximum altitude differential between both PFDs and between field elevation? Reference: PH 1.16.1
    +- 75 feet
  17. How do you know the Emergency / Parking Brake is ON? Reference: TM 7m.1.9
    EMER / PRKG BRAKE light is ON
  18. What is the route verification process?Reference: PH 2b.1.6
    The Pilot who entered the Route ensures the routing is correct by referencing to the ATC CLNC, FLT Release and Charted Procedure while the other Pilot reads aloud the Route from the FMS RTE page.
  19. F/O just turned on the Sys 3 Elec Pump A: What does that power? Reference: TM 7k.1.17
    RH Outboard Elevator, Lower Rudder, Outboard Ailerons
  20. The De/Anti-Icing Worksheet depicts US Airways’ standard de/anti-icing procedures and is in the De/Anti-Icing PilotHandbook Bulletin in the ___________ _______________ ______________, as well as in pads located on the aircraft.
    Reference: FOM 7.7.8
    Pilot Supplemental Binder
  21. While de/anti-icing, the outside temperature is colder than the coldest temperature listed on the de/anti-icing worksheet forthe fluid type providing anti-icing protection (i.e., Type IV when both Type I and Type IV are used), to continueoperations you must:

    a. Ask for the specific manufacturer and fluid name of the fluid providing anti-icing.
    b. Determine the LOUT from the Manufacturer Fluid LOUT data in the applicable De/Anti-Icing Pilot Handbook Bulletinlocated in the Pilot Supplemental Binder.
    c. If the OAT is warmer than the specific manufacturer fluid LOUT, then use the HOT for the applicable weathercondition.
    d. If the OAT is colder than the specific manufacturer fluid LOUT, then see if another fluid or fluid type (i.e., Type I forType II.IV) will allow operations.
    e. All of the above.
    Reference: FOM 7.7.10 22.
    e. All of the above.
  22. Operating permits are located in the:

    A. pilot handbook
    B. pilot supplemental binder
    C. cabin maintenance logbook
    D. flightdeck maintenance logbook. Reference: PH 10.8
    A. pilot handbook
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Class II operations are any enroute flight operations or portion of an enroute operation (irrespective of the means ofnavigation) which takes place outside (beyond) the designated operational service volume of ICAO standard airwaynavigation facilities (VOR, VOR/DME, NDB). Aircraft operating in these areas must have some type of long rangenavigation system onboard the aircraft. Since determining the operational service volume of a navaid is dependent on thenavaid, aircraft altitude, etc; US Airways has simplified the definition to include:

    A. if notified by dispatch
    B. A or B
    C. beyond 162 NM from the shoreline
    d. None of the above.
    Reference: FOM 14a.1.1
    C. beyond 162 NM from the shoreline
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. (True or False) The purpose of route verification is to ensure the route loaded into the FMS is the same as the ATC routeclearance.
    Reference: PH 2b.1.6
    TRUE
  25. If the ATC clearance was not available when accomplishing the route verification while at the gate, once the ATCclearance is available:

    a. The first officer will re-verify the FMS routing against the ATC clearance.
    b. Advise the captain the FMS routing is verified.
    c. Both A and B above.
    d. None of the above. Verifying the route against the flight release (in lieu of the ATC clearance) meets the requirement.
    Reference: PH 2b.1.6
    c. Both A and B above.
  26. During an engine start on the ground, when is ignition provided?
    Reference: PH 2b.11.2 / TM 7p.1.4
    7% N2
  27. What is the indication of a completed engine start? Reference: PH 2b.11.3
    Change in ITT Limit
  28. If "Steer Off" is not annunciated prior to pushback, how can the steering be disengaged? Reference: TM 7m.3.1
    Press Steer Disconnect Switch on Yoke
  29. If an engine has been shutdown for 1 ½ hours or less, how long must the engine be warmed up? Reference: PH 2b.11.5
    3 Minutes
  30. (True or False) Do not start an engine until pushback complete when aircraft is being directed by hand signals only. Reference: PH 2b.10.2
    TRUE
  31. (True or False) The first officer does not have to advise the captain when going “heads down” to accomplish nonmonitoringtasks. (e.g., FMS programming, ACARS, company radio calls, etc.)
    Reference: PH 2c.2.2
    FALSE
  32. Prior to crossing intersecting runways enroute to the assigned runway, the Crew should: 
    Reference: PH 2c.2.5
    • — Scan the full length of the runway for potential conflicts and verbalize "Clear Right, Clear Left".
    • — Illuminate both the taxi and landing lights during low visibility and night operations. All lighting that will increase the visibility of the aircraft must be illuminated. 
  33. If the First Officer were to notice the oil pressure stabilize below engine limits what should he do? Reference: QRH
    Accomplish Aborted Engine Start Procedure
  34. What are the nosewheel steering runaway memory items?

    Reference: QRH
    STEER DISC - PRESS
  35. Considering the turning radius of the aircraft what structure of the aircraft sweeps the largest turning radius? Reference: PH 2c.3.8
    Horizontal Stabilizer
  36. While on the ground after departing the gate, a cell phone may be used for ____________________ only after the aircraft is ________________ and the parking brake is ________.
    Reference: PH 2b.1.10
    • Operations
    • Stopped
    • Set
  37. An extended onboard delay is a delay of 30 minutes or more. At this 30-minute mark, DOT passenger protectionregulations are enforced. The DOT clock starts:

    a. At this 30-minute mark.
    b. For a departure delay: at door closure (OUT) providing passengers were notified every 30 minutes of the ability todeplane with the door open past departure time.
    c. For an arrival delay: upon touchdown.
    d. Both B and C above.
    Reference: FOM 2.2.17
    d. Both B and C above
  38. After leaving the gate, but before takeoff, you encounter a mechanical discrepancy. You must:

    a. Comply with the MEL and obtain an amended release.
    b. Placard the aircraft in accordance with the Crew Placarding procedures located in the MEL Introduction section.
    c. Obtain new weight and balance if the MEL effects takeoff or landing performance.
    d. All of the above.
    e. None of the above. The MEL does not have to be complied with once leaving the gate.
    Reference: PH 2c.1.1
    d. All of the above.
  39. Before crossing intersecting runways and/or entering the departure runway, some of the things you must accomplish are:

    a. Scan the runway for potential conflicts.
    b. Illuminate the aircraft during low visibility and night operations.
    c. Verbalize “Clear left, clear right.”
    d. All of the above.
    e. A and B only.
    Reference: PH 2c.2.3
    d. All of the above.
  40. For an extended onboard delay, complete an event report if not possible to return to the gate/remote parking and allowpassengers off the aircraft within ___ hours after door closure for departure, or ___ hours after arrival, regardless if it is adomestic or international operation.
    Reference: FOM 2.2.17
    • 3
    • 3
  41. You start the takeoff roll and the PM observes ATTCS green, what are the conditions that the ATTCS command reserve thrust on takeoff? Reference: TM 7p.1.8
    • Difference between both N1’s greater than 15%
    • One Engine Failure during T/O or Go Around
    • Windsheer Detection
  42. Under what conditions would the autobrakes be applied in the event of a rejected takeoff? Reference: TM 7m.1.12
    On Ground, Above 60kts GS and Thrust Levers Idle or Reverse
  43. If during departure you experienced a jammed control column – pitch or roll, what would the crew do?
    Reference: QRH
    • Elevator Disconnect - CONFIRM - Press and Pull or,
    • Aileron Disconnect - CONFIRM - Press and Pull

    Then determine who's controll column is free and transfer ACFT control to that person.
  44. When is the Close-In takeoff procedure used? What is the procedure? Reference: PH 2d.3.5 and PB 03-12
    • When required for Noise Abatement
    • At 1000 feet AFE, select FLCH and V2 + 10 knots until 3000 feet AFE. Then, select 210 KIAS to maintain a slight climb rate while accelerating. Retract the flaps at the “F - Bug”. Once the SLAT/FLAP retraction is complete, select 250 KIAS and resume normal climb.
  45. When does the rudder become effective? Reference: PH 2d.1.3
    40 – 60 kts
  46. You call for "Gear Up", which hydraulic system provides pressure for gear retraction? Reference: TM 7k.1.10
    System 2
  47. Above FL180, monitor 121.5 unless ___________ limitations and/or ______ prevent simultaneous monitoring of two frequencies. Reference: PH 2.5.11
    • equipment
    • duties
  48. (True or False) A flight director and autopilot in NAV mode must be used for flight guidance while operating on a RNAV SID? Reference: PH 2d.10.1 and PB 03-12
    • TRUE
    • Note; Autopilot on after 1000 feet AFE
  49. (True or False) During an RNAV SID the autopilot should be called for at 400 feet and on by 500 feet? Reference: PH 2d.10.1 and PB 03-12
    FALSE, at 1000 feet
  50. For all aircraft, when operating below ______ feet MSL, each pilot crewmember will use the aircraft’s headset/boommicrophone or his personal headset/earphone/boom microphone?Reference: PH 2.6.1
    18,000
  51. What would the crew action be if they experienced a pitch trim runaway or a roll or yaw trim runaway?
    Reference: QRH
    AP/TRIM DISC - PRESS and HOLD
  52. When does the EICAS become decluttered? Reference: TM 7a.3.5
    30 seconds after Gear and Flap retraction
  53. Where are the Low / High speed buffet margin charts for 1.3 and 1.5G Load ? Reference: PH 5.1.2
    Flip Charts
  54. Periodic system checks are required throughout the flight. What items are required to be checked and how often? Reference: PH 2e.8.3
    • HDY – Qty & Press
    • ELEC
    • FUEL - Qty and Balance
    • STATUS – Oxy Pressure & Engine Oil Level
    • EICAS – Engine & System Parameters
  55. What is the PFD altimeter tolerance in RVSM airspace? Reference: PH 1.16.1
    +- 200’
  56. If ATC restricts the flight to a lower altitude, where do you change the new CRZ altitude? Reference: PH 2e.8.6
    PERF - CRUISE
  57. During the first HEFOE check you notice a 700# fuel imbalance, (700# more on the Right side then on the Left side). What is the Fuel Imbalance Limit? Reference: PH 1.6.3
    800 #
  58. Where would you find a reference to this procedure? Reference: PH 4.3.1; QRH
    QRH
  59. If in flight we incur an IRS #1 FAIL, how would you fix your display? Reference: QRH
    Reversionary Panel - IRS Pushbutton
  60. In the event of a failure of both Cabin Pressure Controller channels, how would you control the Cabin Pressure Manually? Reference: QRH; TM 7b.1.4
    Manually regulating the outflow valve IAW the QRH
  61. What are the memory items for CABIN ALTITUDE HI / Rapid Depressurization? Reference: QRH
    • OXY Masks - VERIFY - ON, 100%
    • Captian Assumes Flying Duties
  62. In the air, with only a single power source, how is the windshield heating affected? Reference: TM 7l.1.8
    Only the Capt Side powered unless it is not working, then the F/O side is powered
  63. While in flight, ATC advises you may encounter moderate turbulence 50 miles ahead and it lasts for 30 minutes. Whencommunicating with the flight attendants:
    a. Use light, moderate, or severe terminology. Other terms can cause confusion.
    b. Provide time available until the encounter is expected (if known), keeping in mind normal flight attendant proceduresfor galley/cabin clean up may take up to 20 minutes to complete.
    c. Provide length of time expected to be in turbulence (if known) and emphasize that after the expected time has elapsed,the flight attendants are to remain in their seats until advised by the flightdeck.
    d. All of the above.
    e. None of the above.
    Reference: FOM 7.6.5
    d. All of the above.
  64. When making autoflight systems inputs:

    a. Confirm FMS inputs with the other pilot when airborne.
    b. Activate the input.
    c. Monitor mode annunciations to ensure the autoflight system performs as desired.
    d. Intervene, if necessary.
    e. All of the CAMI items above.
    Reference: PH 2.9.3
    e. All of the CAMI items above.
  65. (True or False) A flight director and autopilot in NAV mode must be used for flight guidance while operating on an RNAVSTAR.
    Reference: PH 2e.10.7
    TRUE
  66. (True or False) Acceptance of a Charted Fuel Efficient Descent (Runway Profile Descent) clearance requires compliance with the altitudes, speeds, and headings depicted on the charts, unless otherwise instructed by ATC. Reference: PH 2e.10.7
    TRUE
  67. During the programming of the MCDU for an Automation Level 4 descent, you anticipate a 50 knot tailwind. How many miles should Top-of -Descent (TOD) be advanced? Reference: PH 2e.10.4
    10nm. (2nm for each 10kts tailwind)
  68. How do you advance the Top-of -Descent (TOD) in the above condition? Reference: PH 8.1.6; PH 8.3.8
    Use Verticle-Direct-To 10 miles before arriving at your calculated descent point.
  69. (True or False) VNAV information is accessed via PROG >PROGRESS 2/3>VNAV DATA? Reference: PH 8.2.3
    TRUE
  70. (Yes or No) The PF is required to brief the Top-of-Descent (TOD)? Reference: PH 2.8.3
    YES
  71. (True or False) The PF should keep a hand on the speedbrake lever anytime the speedbrakes are used? (PH 2e.10.4) If the PF forgets to stow the speedbrake handle, what conditions cause the speed brake to automatically retract? Reference: TM 7h.1.17
    TRUE

    Flaps 2 or greater or, A/S below 180kts or, TLA above 70%
  72. What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing? Does this include gusts?
    Reference: PH 1.3.1
    • 28kts - Rolling T/O or Landing
    • 25kts - Static Takoff

    Both include Gusts
  73. What is the Maximum headwind crosswind and tailwind for Cat II/IIIa approaches? Reference: PH 1.3.1
    • Headwind - 25kts
    • Crosswind - 15 kts
    • Tailwind - 10kts
  74. What is the Minimum gross weight for Autoland operations? Reference: PH 1.10.2
    69,500 lbs
  75. What is the Minimum runway length for LAHSO? Reference: PH 1.3.1
    6000’
  76. If you are using FMS as the active source, what approach course can be captured using the Preview feature? Reference: TM 7d.1.47
    Localizer
  77. (True or False) Below 2500 feet on the radio altimeter, do not descend at a rate greater than 2000ft/min, with a descent rate transitioning to no greater than 1000ft/min by 1000 feet RA. Reference: PH 2f.1.1, PH 2f.1.2
    TRUE
  78. What are the Flight Parameters at 1000ft RA for the PF to call “Stable”?, which of these flight parameters may not be deviated from?
    A. Below 1000 feet RA, the aircraft is on a proper flightpath (visual or electronic) with only small changes in pitch and heading required to maintain that path.
    B. allowing for transitory conditions, with engines spooled up.
    C. in trim, and in an approved landing configuration. Reference: PH 2f.1.2
    D. By 1000 ft. RA, the descent rate is transitioning to no greater than 1000 fpm.
    E. at a speed no less than Target -5 knots and no greater than Target +10 knots.
    D. By 1000 ft. RA, the descent rate is transitioning to no greater than 1000 fpm.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. (True or False) The conditions for the PF to call “Landing” are: the aircraft is cleared to land, the aircraft is in position to land safely and the runway environment will remain in sight until touchdown. Reference: PH 2f.14.1
    TRUE
  80. When conducting an ILS approach, how do you alert the Approach Status of your intentions to conduct a CAT I approach? CAT II /IIIa approach? Reference: TM 7d.1.32
    • Set DH in BARO on Both Sides
    • Set DH in RA on Both Sides
  81. (True or False) The autopilot and flight directors must be used for all RNAV (RNP) AR/SAAAR approaches, or when the weather conditions at the landing airport are less than 1000/3. When the weather is above 1000/3, the use of the autopilot for non-precision approaches, other than RNAV (RNP) AR/ SAAAR, is at the pilot’s discretion. Reference: PH 2f.9.1
    TRUE
  82. US Airways ___ authorized to fly any approaches containing the note “SPECIAL AIRCREW & AIRCRAFT______________ REQUIRED” unless authorized in the ____________ pages.
    Reference: FOM 2.6.2
    • NOT
    • Authorization
    • Airport Advisory
  83. What is the 4 step process for Landing Distance Determination? Reference: PH 5.10.3
    • 1. Compare Landing Runway to Final W&B Data.
    • 2. Determine available Runway Length.
    • 3. Determine Required Runway Length.
    • 4. Compare the two lengths.
  84. (True or False) Missed approaches executed by pressing either TOGA switch (Go Around maneuver) will engage the highest level of automation available. If off when the TOGA switch is pressed, the flight director will turn on and engage in go around mode. If the autopilot and autothrottle are off when the TOGA switch is pressed they will remain off. Reference: PH 2g.2.2
    TRUE
  85. (True or False) If the TOGA button is pressed with the FMS in the “APPR” mode, the missed approach procedure will become part of the active flight plan and will display white (armed) on the MFD. If the TOGA button is pushed prior to the FMS switching to “APPR” mode (“TERM” or enroute RNP value displayed with the aircraft more than 2 miles outside the FAF), the missed approach procedure will not automatically become part of the active flight plan. Reference: PH 2g.2.6
    TRUE
  86. (True or False) Pushing the TOGA button will initiate a climb, regardless of the altitude set in the ALT SEL window, and LNAV will disengage. Immediately reselect appropriate vertical mode to maintain the required altitude. Additionally, reselect NAV if required to track the approach course, otherwise select HDG. Reference: PH 2g.2.6
    TRUE
  87. In the event of a go-around while conducting an ILS approach, what must the PF callout to execute the published missed approach procedure? Reference: PH 2g.3
    “Go-Around, TOGA, FMS NAV”
  88. When do the spoilers extend after landing? Reference: TM 7h.1.16
    WOW, Wheel speed above 80kts and TLA below 26 degrees
  89. Should the Autobrake system fail to operate as planned, what callout should the PM make? Reference: PH 2g.12.8
    “NO AUTOBRAKE”
  90. Below what speed is maximum reverse thrust not permitted? Reference: PH 1.12.9
    60kts
  91. If the Autothrottles are engaged during landing, when does the Retard mode reduce the thrust to Idle? Reference: TM 7d.1.55
    RA below 30’
  92. (True or False) Either pilot may make a go around callout. If the go around callout is made, the PF must execute a goaround.
    Reference: PH 2g.1.1
    TRUE
  93. Where can you check the brake temperature after a landing?
    Reference: TM 7m.2.2
    System Status Page on MFD
  94. After landing in icing conditions, what action must the F/O take in the MCDU during his after landing flow? Reference: PH 2h.3.3
    Set EAI to ALL
  95. What position must the Thrust Lever be in order to shutdown an engine? Reference: PH 2h.4.3, 2h.6.2
    Idle
  96. (True or False) An aircraft stopped on the ground with the parking brake set is not in a critical phase of flight. Reference: FOM 1.7.6
    TRUE
  97. (True or False) The first officer must wait until both START / STOP switches are “OFF”, before System 3 Electric Hydraulic pump is switched “OFF”. Reference: PH 2h.7.3
    TRUE
  98. On the shutdown checklist if one of the Passenger and Service Doors are green, what must be done? Reference: PH 2h.8.1
    Notify F/A’s to check the door
  99. How long should you wait before turning BATT 1&2 OFF after shutting down the APU on the Secure Checklist? Reference: PH 2h.10.1
    APU Shutdown Complete
  100. (True or False) Deadheading crewmembers are now considered passengers and are no longer placed on the general declaration form. In addition, the port city of entry determines what customs declaration form and customs line adeadheading crewmember must complete and be processed through.
    Reference: FOM 14.3.
    TRUE

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