CPC Exam

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CPC
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1391
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CPC Exam
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2009-11-27 10:04:35
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CPC Exam
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  1. This is the outermost layer of the skin:
    A. basal
    B. epidermis
    C. subcutaneous
    D. dermis
    B. epidermis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Which of the follwing is NOT a part of the skin or accessory organs:
    A. hair
    B. sebaceous gland
    C. nail
    D. haversian
    D. haversian
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. This prefix means beside:
    A. epi
    B. per-
    C. para-
    D. intra-
    C. para-
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. This combining form means hair:
    A. xanth/o
    B. trich/o
    C. ichtyy/o
    D. kerat/o
    B. trich/o
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. The lunula is the:
    A. outermost layer of epidermis
    B. narrow band of epidermis at the base of the nail
    C. opening of the pores
    D. white area at the base of the nail plate
    D. white area at the base of the nail plate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. The subcutaneous tissue is also known as:
    A. adipose
    B. stratum corneum
    C. dermal
    D. hypodermis
    D. hypodermis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Which of the following combining forms does not refer to a color?
    A. eosin/o
    B. cyan/o
    C. jaund/o
    D. pachy/o
    D. pachy/o
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. This medical term means the surgical incision into dead tissue:
    A. curettage
    B. keratotomy
    C. onychomycosis
    D. escharotomy
    D. escharotomy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. This suffix means surgical repair:
    A. -rrhea
    B. -opsy
    C. -tome
    D. -plasty
    D. -plasty
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. The soft tissue around the nail border is the:
    A. cuticle
    B. paronychium
    C. lunula
    D. corium
    B. paronychium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. A pimple is an example of a:
    A. nodule
    B. vesicle
    C. paule
    D. pustule
    D. pustule
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. A Stage II pressure ulcer involves:
    A. parital loss of epidermis and dermis
    B. erythema of skin
    C. full thickness loss of skin up to but not through fascia
    D. full thickness of skin with extensive destruction and necrosis
    C. full thickness loss of skin up to but not through fascia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. This type of dermatitis may be exogenous or endogenous and is common in children and infants:
    A. atopic
    B. stasis
    C. irritant contact
    D. seborrheic
    A. atopic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Psoriasis, pityriasis, and lichen planus are three types of this disorder:
    A. papulosquamous
    B. acne
    C. dermatitis
    D. inflammatory
    A. papulosquamous
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. This condition begins with a herald spot:
    A. dermatitis
    B. pityriasis
    C. lichen planus
    D. psoriasis
    B. pityriasis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. This skin infection is caused by group A beta hemolytic Streptococci, and the lesions appear as firm red spots with itching, burning, and tenderness:
    A. fascitis
    B. folliculitis
    C. erysipelas
    D. furuncles
    C. erysipelas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. This type of herpes procdues cold sores:
    A. VZV
    B. herpes simplex
    C. herpes zoster
    D. shingles
    B. herpes simplex
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. This condition is caused by the human papillomavirus:
    A. shingles
    B. folliculitis
    C. verrucae
    D. mycoses
    C. verrucae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. This type of tumor occurs in the hair follicles:
    A. nevi
    B. keratoacanthoma
    C. keratoses
    D. Kaposi's
    B. keratoacanthoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. This type of superficial carcinoma is rarely metastatic:
    A. melanoma
    B. squamous cell
    C. Kaposi's sarcoma
    D. basal cell
    B. squamous cell
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Tubular is another name for these bones:
    A. flat
    B. long
    C. irregular
    D. short
    B. long
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. These bones are found near joints:
    A. irregular
    B. broad
    C. sesamoid
    D. flat
    C. sesamoid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. The zygoma is an example of this type of bone:
    A. broad
    B. sesamoid
    C. irregular
    D. flat
    C. irregular
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. The diaphysis is this part of the bone:
    A. shaft
    B. surface
    C. end
    D. marrow
    A. shaft
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Which is NOT a part of the cranium?
    A. sphenoid
    B. parietal
    C. condyle
    D. ethmoid
    C. condyle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. This is NOT an ear bone:
    A. styloid
    B. stapes
    C. incus
    D. malleus
    A. styloid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. This term describes the growth plate:
    A. endosteum
    B. epiphyseal
    C. metaphysis
    D. periosteum
    B. epiphyseal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. This is a depression on the lateral hip surface into which the head of the femur fits:
    A. ischium
    B. acetabulum
    C. ilium
    D. patella
    B. acetabulum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. The tip of the elbow is the:
    A. trapezium
    B. humerus
    C. olecranon
    D. tarsal
    C. olecranon
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. This term describes an immobable joint:
    A. amphiarthorosis
    B. diarthrosis
    C. synarthrosis
    D. ischium
    C. synarthrosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. A compound fracture is also known as:
    A. incomplete
    B. closed
    C. open
    D. complete
    C. open
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. This is a common bone disorder in postmenopausal women resulting from lower levels of calcium and potassium:
    A. osteoporosis
    B. rheumatoid arthritis
    C. lordosis
    D. Paget's disease
    A. osteoporosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. This inflammatory disease is progressive and leads to a rigid spinal column:
    A. ankylosing spondylitis
    B. septic arthritis of the spine
    C. polymyositis
    D. primary fibromyalgia syndrome
    A. ankylosing spondylitis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. This type of tumor arises from the bone cells:
    A. myelogenic
    B. chondrogenic
    C. osteogenic
    D. collagenic
    C. osteogenic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. This type of tumor is the most commone type of malignant bone tumor that occurs in those over 40:
    A. osteosarcoma
    B. rhabdomyosarcoma
    C. chondrosarcoma
    D. multiple myeloma
    D. multiple myeloma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. A general muscle inflammation with an accompanying skin rash is:
    A. muscular dystrophy
    B. dermatologic arthritis
    C. dermatomylsitis
    D. ankylosing spondylitis
    C. dermatomylsitis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. A cartilage tumor that ususally occurs in middle-aged and older individuals:
    A. chondroblastoma
    B. osteosarcoma
    C. rhabdomyosarcoma
    D. chondrosarcoma
    D. chondrosarcoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. The returning of the bone to normal alignment is:
    A. reduction
    B. manipulation
    C. traction
    D. immobilization
    A. reduction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. The result of overuse or overextension of a ligament is:
    A. fracture
    B. strain
    C. displacement
    D. sprain
    D. sprain
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Primary osteoarthritis is also known as:
    A. secondary
    B. congenital
    C. functional
    D. idiopathic
    D. idiopathic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. This is NOT a part of the lower respiratory tract:
    A. larynx
    B. bronchi
    C. trachea
    D. lungs
    A. larynx
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Another name for the voicebox is:
    A. laryngopharynx
    B. pharynx
    C. oropharynx
    D. larynx
    D. larynx
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. This is the windpipe:
    A. pharynx
    B. sphenoid
    C. trachea
    D. larynx
    C. trachea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. The interior of the nose is divided by the:
    A. oropharynx
    B. sphenoid
    C. apical
    D. septum
    D. septum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. This combining form means incomplete:
    A. pneumat/o
    B. alveol/o
    C. atel/o
    D. ox/i
    C. atel/o
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. This prefix means breathe:
    A. py/o
    B. spir/o
    C. lob/o
    D. pleur/o
    B. spir/o
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. This prefix means all:
    A. poly-
    B. an-
    C. pan-
    D. a-
    C. pan-
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. This abbreviation refers to a syndrome that involves difficulty in breathing:
    A. ABG
    B. FEF
    C. BiPAP
    D. ARDS
    D. ARDS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. This abbreviation refers to the amount of air the patient can expel from the lungs in 1 second:
    A. PFT
    B. PND
    C. FEV1
    D. RDS
    C. FEV1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. This suffix means breathing:
    A. -pexy
    B. -stenosis
    C. -spasm
    D. -pnea
    D. -pnea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Acute injury to the alveolocapillary membrane that results in edema and atelectasis:
    A. acute respiratory distress syndrome
    B. bronchiolitis
    C. pneumoconiosis
    D. hypoxemia
    A. acute respiratory distress syndrome
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. The condition in which pus is in the pleural space and is often a complication of pneumonia:
    A. empyema
    B. atelectasis
    C. pneumonthorax
    D. cor pulmonale
    A. empyema
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. The most common type of atelectasis is:
    A. absorption
    B. chronic
    C. compression
    D. inflammation
    A. absorption
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. This condition is a result of the accumulation of dust particles in the lung:
    A. pneumoconiosis
    B. tuberculosis
    C. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
    D. pleurisy
    A. pneumoconiosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. An irreversible airway obstructive disease in which the symptoms are bronchial spasm, dyspnea, and wheezing:
    A. asthma
    B. pleurisy
    C. bronchiolitis
    D. empyema
    A. asthma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. Capillary, cystic, follicular, and varicose are examples of:
    A. pneumothorax
    B. atelectasis
    C. cor pulmonale
    D. bronchiectasis
    D. bronchiectasis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. The condition in which there is a loss of elasticity and enlargement of alveoli:
    A. emphysema
    B. empyema
    C. asthma
    D. chronic bronchitis
    A. emphysema
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. The definition of a chronic cough is one that last for over this numer of weeks:
    A. 3
    B. 5
    C. 4
    D. 2
    A. 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. A condition marked by an increase in the carbon dioxide in the arterial blood and decreased ability to breathe that can result in repiratory acidosis:
    A. acute respiratory failure
    B. hypoxemia
    C. hypercapnia
    D. pulmonary edema
    C. hypercapnia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. This condition often follows a viral infection and occurs in children under 2 years of age. Examples of the various types of the condition are constrictive, proliferating, and obliterative.
    A. bronchiolitis
    B. pulmonary edema
    C. bronchiectasis
    D. pneumoconiosis
    A. bronchiolitis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Carry blood to the heart:
    A. veins
    B. capillaries
    C. arterioles
    D. arteries
    A. veins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. The relaxation phase of the heartbeat:
    a. diastole
    b. systole
    a. diastole
  63. Nature's pacemaker is this node:
    A. Bundle of His
    B. atrioventricular
    C. sinoatrial
    D. mitral
    C. sinoatrial
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Node located on the interatrial septum:
    A. Purkinje
    B. atrioventricular
    C. Bundle of His
    D. sinoatrial
    B. atrioventricular
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Which of the following is NOT one of the tree layers of the chamber walls of the heart:
    A. endocardium
    B. parietal
    C. epicardium
    D. myocardium
    B. parietal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. Septum that divides the upper two chambers of the heart:
    A. intraventricular
    B. myocardium
    C. interatrial
    D. tricuspid
    C. interatrial
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. This is the valve between the right atrium and right ventricle:
    A. aortic
    B. bicuspid
    C. pulmonary
    D. tricuspid
    D. tricuspid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. The outer two-layer covering of the heart:
    A. mitral
    B. myocardium
    C. epicardium
    D. pericardium
    D. pericardium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. These are the chambers that receive blood:
    A. right atrium and right ventricle
    B. right and left ventricle
    C. left ventricle and right atrium
    D. right and left atria
    D. right and left atria
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. This combining form means plaque:
    A. atri/o
    B. brachi/o
    C. ather/o
    D. cyan/o
    C. ather/o
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. Lesions of the carotid artery may lead to:
    A. ischemic heart disease
    B. heart attack
    C. stroke
    D. peripheral vascular disease
    C. stroke
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. This blood pressure is hypertension:
    A. 110/70
    B. 140/90
    C. 120/80
    D. 130/70
    C. 120/80
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. Tachyarrythmia or fast heart rate is that in excess of _________ bpm.
    A. 100
    B. 80
    C. 90
    D. 60
    A. 100
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Angina pectoris is:
    A. heart murmur
    B. barrel chest
    C. heart block
    D. chest pain
    D. chest pain
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. In this type of regurgitation there is a backflow of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium:
    A. aortic
    B. pulmonic
    C. tricuspid
    D. mitral
    D. mitral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. In this type of heart wall disorder, fibrous lesions form and encase the heart:
    A. acute pericarditis
    B. cardiomyopathy
    C. pericardial effusion
    D. constrictive pericarditis
    D. constrictive pericarditis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. Which of the following terms means "of unknown cause"?
    A. manifestation
    B. etiology
    C. idiopathic
    D. late effect
    C. idiopathic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. This condition is also known as congestive cardiomyopathy:
    A. dilated
    B. hypertrophic
    C. restrictive
    D. valvular
    A. dilated
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. This peripheral arterial disease most often occurs in young men who are heavy smokers:
    A. Pick's
    B. Addison's
    C. Glasser's
    D. Bueger's
    D. Bueger's
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. This cardiomyopathy results in a thicken interventricular septum:
    A. dilated
    B. congestive
    C. restrictive
    D. hypertrophic
    D. hypertrophic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. This is NOT one of the three layers of the uterus:
    A. endometrium
    B. perimetrium
    C. myometrium
    D. epimetrium
    D. epimetrium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. Located at the lower end of the uterus is the:
    A. vagina
    B. perineum
    C. cervix
    D. labia majora
    C. cervix
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. The approximate gestation of a human fetus is:
    A. 292 days
    B. 290 days
    C. 276 days
    D. 266 days
    D. 266 days
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. The LMP is the:
    A. low metabolic pregnancy
    B. later maternity phase
    C. last menstural period
    D. late menstruation phase
    C. last menstural period
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. Name of the stage that describes the develpment of the fetus from fertilization to birth is the:
    A. natal
    B. prenatal
    C. postpartum
    D. antepartum
    B. prenatal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. Which of the following correctly identifies the tree trimesters of gestation?
    A. LMP-11 weeks, 12-26 weeks, 27-EDD
    B. LMP-14 weeks, 15-27 weeks, 28-EDD
    C. LMP-12 weeks, 13-27 weeks, 28-EDD
    D. LMP-14 weeks, 15-28 weeks, 29-EDD
    C. LMP-12 weeks, 13-27 weeks, 28-EDD
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. Combining form means few:
    A. nati/i
    B. olig/o
    C. top/o
    D. oopho/o
    B. olig/o
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. Combining form means hidden:
    A. crypt/o
    B. fet/o
    C. amni/o
    D. chori/o
    A. crypt/o
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. Suffix means the beginning:
    A. -orrhexis
    B. -rrhea
    C. -arche
    D. -cyesis
    C. -arche
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. Prefix meaning within:
    A. dys-
    B. endo-
    C. ecto-
    D. ante-
    B. endo-
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. The most common solution used for intra-amniotic injection is:
    A. estrogen
    B. saline
    C. chorionic gonadotropic hormone
    D. prostaglandin
    B. saline
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. The type of dysmenorrhea is treated with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents and progesterone:
    A. constrictive
    B. periodic
    C. primary
    D. secondary
    C. primary
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. In this type of amenorrhea there is a cessation of menstruation:
    A. primary
    B. constrictive
    C. secondary
    D. periodic
    C. secondary
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. Oligomenorrhea
    A. bleeding between cycles
    B. increased amount and duration of flow
    C. in excess of 6 weeks
    C. in excess of 6 weeks
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. Metrorrhagia
    A. increased amount and duration of flow
    B. bleeding between cycles
    C. in excess of 6 weeks
    B. bleeding between cycles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. Menorrhagia
    A. increased amount and duration of flow
    B. in excess of 6 weeks
    C. bleeding between cycles
    A. increased amount and duration of flow
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. Increased risks of breast cancer, ovarian cancer, and non-Hodgkins lymphoma exist with this condition:
    A. dysfunctional uterine bleeding
    B. pelvic inflammatory disease
    C. sexually transmitted disease
    D. endometriosis
    D. endometriosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. This benign lesion is also known as uterine fibroids:
    A. adenomyosis
    B. lieomyoma
    C. extraembryonic cell primitive
    D. squamous cell
    B. lieomyoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. Marginal, partial, and total are the types of this condition:
    A. abruptio placentae
    B. etopic pregnancy
    C. placenta previa
    D. hydatidiform mole
    C. placenta previa
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. Which of the following is NOT a malposition of fetus?
    A. brow
    B. back
    C. shoulder
    D. breech
    B. back
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. This gland activates the sperm and produces some seminal fluid:
    A. scotum
    B. seminal vesicle
    C. bulburethral gland
    D. prostate gland
    D. prostate gland
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. Carries the sperm from the testes to the exterior:
    A. sex gland
    B. seminal
    C. tunica
    D. duct
    D. duct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. The penis contains these erectile tissues:
    A. two corpora cavernosa and two spongiosa
    B. two corpora cavernosa and one spongiosum
    C. one corpora cavernosa and one spongiosum
    D. one corpora cavernosa and two spongiosa
    B. two corpora cavernosa and one spongiosum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. Also known as Cowper's gland:
    A. bulburethral gland
    B. prostate gland
    C. seminal vesicles
    D. scrotum
    A. bulburethral gland
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ?
    A. prostate
    B. seminal vesicles
    C. gonads
    D. penis
    C. gonads
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. Combining form meaning male:
    A. balan/o
    B. test/o
    C. orchi/o
    D. andr/o
    D. andr/o
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. Combining form meaning glans penis:
    A. vesucyl/o
    B. balan/o
    C. vas/o
    D. orch/o
    B. balan/o
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. The testes are covered by the:
    A. seminal vesicles
    B. androgen
    C. tunica albuginea
    D. chancre
    C. tunica albuginea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. This abbreviation describes a surgical resection of the prostate that is accompished by means of an endoscope inserted into the urethra:
    A. BPH
    B. TURBT
    C. TURP
    D. UPJ
    C. TURP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. This abbreviation describes a condition of the prostate in which there is an enlargement that is benign:
    A. TURP
    B. UPJ
    C. BPH
    D. TURBT
    C. BPH
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. What is the condition in which the testes do not descend?
    A. cryptorchidism
    B. torion
    C. Bowen's disease
    D. hypospadias
    A. cryptorchidism
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. Orchitis is most often caused by a:
    A. parasite
    B. virus
    C. fungus
    D. bacteria
    B. virus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. A condition that can be either congenital or acquired through trauma and that involves twisting of the testes is:
    A. torsion
    B. cryptorchidism
    C. hypospadias
    D. hydrocele
    A. torsion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. Cancer of the ___________ is divided into two main groups of germ cell tumors and sex cord tumors.
    A. prostate
    B. penis
    C. scrotum
    D. testes
    D. testes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. This type of surgical technique involves excision of a lesion in layers until no further evidence of abnormality is seen:
    A. laser
    B. Addision's
    C. Moh's
    D. Bowen's
    C. Moh's
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. Epispadias is a disorder of the urethra in which the urethral meatus is located on the __________ side of the penis:
    A. dorsal
    B. lateral
    C. medial
    D. ventral
    A. dorsal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. Inflammation of the glans is:
    A. paraphimosis
    B. balanitis
    C. urethritis
    D. phimosis
    B. balanitis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. This disease is also known as the bent nail syndrome:
    A. Addison's
    B. Peyronie
    C. Whitmore-Jewett
    D. Bowen's
    B. Peyronie
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. The condition in which multiple fibroadenomatous nodules form and lead to decreased urine flow. The condition is thought to be related to increased levels of estrogen/androgen.
    A. DRE
    B. GCT
    C. TNM
    D. BPH
    D. BPH
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. Cancer of the prostate is predominately this type of cancer:
    A. squamous cell
    B. sex cord
    C. seminoma
    D. adenocarcinoma
    D. adenocarcinoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. The outer covering of the kidney:
    A. cortex
    B. papilla
    C. pyramids
    D. medulla
    A. cortex
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. Which is not a division of the kidneys?
    A. trigone
    B. pelvis
    C. cortex
    D. pyramids
    A. trigone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. The inner portion of the kidneys:
    A. pyramids
    B. papilla
    C. cortex
    D. medulla
    D. medulla
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. The smooth area inside the bladder:
    A. cystocele
    B. pyramids
    C. trigone
    D. calyces
    C. trigone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. The narrow tube connecting the kidney and bladder:
    A. tirgone
    B. meatus
    C. ureter
    D. urethra
    C. ureter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. Which of the following is NOT a surface of the urinary bladder?
    A. inferior
    B. anterior
    C. superior
    D. posterior
    A. inferior
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. Combining form that means stone:
    A. azot/o
    B. olig/o
    C. lith/o
    D. cyst/o
    C. lith/o
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. Term meaning painful urination:
    A. dysuria
    B. diuresis
    C. pyuria
    D. hyperemia
    A. dysuria
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. Combining form meaning scant:
    A. meat/o
    B. glyc/o
    C. hydr/o
    D. olig/o
    D. olig/o
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. Term that describes renal failure that is acute:
    A. HD
    B. ARF
    C. BPH
    D. ESRD
    B. ARF
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. Which of the following is NOT a type of acute renal failure?
    A. postrenal
    B. interrenal
    C. intrarenal
    D. prerenal
    B. interrenal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. The loss of nephron function in end-stage renal disease is:
    A. 60%
    B. 90%
    C. 70%
    D. 80%
    B. 90%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. The cause of bacterial cystitis is usually:
    a. proteus
    b. Pseudomonas
    c. Staphylococci
    d. E. coli
    d. E. coli
  134. The primary treatment for acute pyelonephritis would be:
    A. sodium reduction
    B. antibiotics
    C. BCG
    D. prednisone
    B. antibiotics
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. APSGN stands for:
    A. advanced poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
    B. advanced poststaphylococcal glomerulonephritis
    C. acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
    D. acute poststaphylococcal glomerulonephritis
    C. acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. Obstructive uropathy is also known as:
    A. nephrotic syndrome
    B. pyelonephritis
    C. renal failure
    D. urinary tract obstruction
    D. urinary tract obstruction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. A treatment for kidney stone may be:
    a. ESWL
    b. prednisone
    c. open surgical procedure
    d. diuretics
    • a. ESWL
    • OR
    • c. open surgical procedure
  138. The treatment for hydronephrosis involves:
    A. use of diuretics
    B. BCG
    C. an open surgical procedure
    D. treatment of the underlying condition
    D. treatment of the underlying condition
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. This is a congenital condition in which numerous cycsts form in the kidney:
    A. polycystic kidney
    B. nephrosclerosis
    C. nephrotic syndrome
    D. Wilms'
    A. polycystic kidney
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. The treatment of Wilms' would NOT include which of the following?
    A. excision
    B. chemotherapy
    C. diuretic
    D. radiation therapy
    C. diuretic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. This is not a part of the small intestine:
    A. jejunum
    B. duodenum
    C. cecum
    D. ileum
    C. cecum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  142. Term meaning a ring of muscles:
    A. parotid
    B. epiglottis
    C. pyloric
    D. sphincter
    D. sphincter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  143. The throat is also known as the:
    A. pharynx
    B. larynx
    C. esophagus
    D. epiglottis
    A. pharynx
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  144. The three parts of the stomach:
    A. fundus, body, antrum
    B. antrum, phloric, rugae
    C. ilium, fundus, pyloric
    D. pyloric, rugae, fundus
    A. fundus, body, antrum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. The projection at the back of the mouth:
    A. palate
    B. sublingual
    C. parotid
    D. uvula
    D. uvula
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. Mucosal membrane that lines the stomach:
    A. cecum
    B. frenulum
    C. rugae
    D. fundus
    C. rugae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  147. The parts of the colon are:
    A. descending, sigmoid
    B. ascending, descending, sigmoid
    C. transverse, descending, sigmoid
    D. ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid
    D. ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. Combining form meaning abdomen:
    A. cec/o
    B. celi/o
    C. col/o
    D. an/o
    B. celi/o
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  149. Term that means tying together of two ends of a tube:
    A. aphthous stomatitis
    B. atresia
    C. amylase
    D. anastomosis
    D. anastomosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  150. Abbreviation that means a scope placed through the esphagus, into the stomach, and to the duodenum:
    A. GERD
    B. EGD
    C. PEG
    D. ERCP
    B. EGD
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  151. The mediastinum is not an organ system:
    a. true
    b. false
    a. true
  152. The mediastinum is divided into:
    A. middle, anterior, superior
    B. superior, anerior, posterior
    C. anterior, posterior, middle
    D. superior, anterior, posterior, middle
    D. superior, anterior, posterior, middle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  153. During inspiration, the diaphragm:
    A. moves upward
    B. flattens out
    C. collapses
    D. expands
    B. flattens out
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  154. The term means partition:
    A. diaphragm
    B. aspect
    C. median
    D. middle
    C. median
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  155. The diaphragm is said to be this shape:
    A. flat
    B. squre
    C. round
    D. dome
    D. dome
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  156. This separates the abdominal cavity from the thoracic cavity:
    A. mediastinum
    B. superior
    C. diaphragm
    D. inferior
    C. diaphragm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  157. This is the area between the lungs:
    A. inferior
    B. diaphragm
    C. superior
    D. mediastinum
    D. mediastinum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  158. This is an esophageal hernia:
    A. mediastinal
    B. hiatal
    C. paraesophageal
    D. diaphragmatic
    D. diaphragmatic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  159. A diaphragmatic hernia is also known as:
    A. partitional
    B. epiglottis
    C. esophageal
    D. meial
    C. esophageal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  160. The diaphragm assists in:
    A. percussion
    B. auscultation
    C. breathing
    D. contraction
    C. breathing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  161. The spleen is located in this quadrant of the abdomen:
    A. URQ
    B. ULQ
    C. LLQ
    D. LRQ
    B. ULQ
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  162. Produces RBCs and platelets:
    A. lymph node
    B. bone marrow
    C. thymus
    D. tonsils
    B. bone marrow
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  163. Which of the following is NOT a lymph organ?
    A. thymus
    B. tonsil
    C. adrenal
    D. spleen
    C. adrenal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  164. Lymph transports fluids and _________ that have leaked from the blood system back to the veins.
    A. stem cells
    B. lymphocytes
    C. B-cells
    D. proteins
    D. proteins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  165. This is the largest in infants and shrinks with age:
    A. tonsils
    B. bone marrow
    C. spleen
    D. thymus
    D. thymus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  166. Combining form meaning gland:
    A. axill/o
    B. tox/o
    C. aden/o
    D. thym/o
    C. aden/o
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  167. Prefix meaning excess:
    A. retro-
    B. inter-
    C. hypo-
    D. hyper-
    D. hyper-
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  168. Suffix meaning enlargement:
    A. -megaly
    B. -poiesis
    C. -penia
    D. -edema
    A. -megaly
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  169. Lymph node located on neck:
    A. thoracic
    B. axillary
    C. jugular
    D. Cloquet's
    C. jugular
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  170. These cells originate in the bone marrow:
    A. stem cells
    B. lymphocytes
    C. B-cells
    D. antigens
    A. stem cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  171. This condition involves a reduced number of erythrocytes and decreased quality of hemoglobin:
    A. leukocytosis
    B. monocytosis
    C. anemia
    D. eosinophilia
    C. anemia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  172. This condition is hallmarked by a shortened survival of mature erythrocytes and inability of bone marrow to compensate for decreased survival:
    A. monocytosis
    B. eosinophilia
    C. hemolytic anemia
    D. granulocytosis
    C. hemolytic anemia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  173. The most common cause of this disease is Epstein-Barr virus:
    A. leukocytopenia
    B. hemolytic anemia
    C. leukocytosis
    D. infectious mononucleosis
    D. infectious mononucleosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  174. Inflammation of the lymphatic vessels is:
    A. lymphadenopathy
    B. lymphangitis
    C. lymphadenitis
    D. lymphoma
    B. lymphangitis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  175. What giant cell is present in Hodgkins disease?
    A. C cell
    B. T cell
    C. B cell
    D. Reed-Sternberg
    D. Reed-Sternberg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  176. The average number of years of survival for multiple myeloma is:
    A. 10
    B. 20
    C. 5
    D. 3
    D. 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  177. Injection of vitamin B may be prescribed for this type of anemia:
    A. aplastic
    B. pernicious
    C. sickle cell
    D. sideroblastic
    B. pernicious
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  178. These are large stem cells:
    A. leukocytes
    B. granulocytes
    C. megoblasts
    D. erythrocytes
    C. megoblasts
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  179. This is known as the kissing disease:
    A. infectious mononucleosis
    B. granulocytosis
    C. leukocytopenia
    D. monocytosis
    A. infectious mononucleosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  180. This lymphoma is usually found in Africa:
    A. Burkitt
    B. T cell
    C. multiple
    D. B cell
    A. Burkitt
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  181. Which of the following is NOT affected by the endocrine system?
    A. development
    B. digestion
    C. metabolism
    D. progesterone
    D. progesterone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  182. Gland that overlays the trachea:
    A. thyroid
    B. adrenal
    C. parathyroid
    D. pancreas
    A. thyroid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  183. Gland that is located on the top of each kidney:
    A. parathyroid
    B. pancreas
    C. adrenal
    D. thyroid
    C. adrenal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  184. The outer region of the adrenal gland that secretes coricosteroids:
    A. medullary
    B. cortex
    C. sternum
    D. medulla
    B. cortex
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  185. Located on the thyroid:
    A. parathyroid
    B. pineal
    C. thymus
    D. hypophysis
    A. parathyroid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  186. Located at the base of the brain in a depression in the skull:
    A. thymus
    B. adrenal
    C. pituitary
    D. pineal
    C. pituitary
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  187. Stimulates contractions during childbirth:
    A. PTH
    B. oxytocin
    C. ADH
    D. corisol
    B. oxytocin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  188. Produced only during pregnancy by the placenta:
    A. estrogen and progesterone
    B. adrenocorticotropic horomone
    C. tnymosin
    D. melatonin
    A. estrogen and progesterone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  189. Combining form meaning secrete:
    A. dips/o
    B. crin/o
    C. gluc/o
    D. kal/i
    B. crin/o
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  190. Prefix meaning good:
    A. tri-
    B. eu-
    C. pan-
    D. tropin-
    B. eu-
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  191. This type of diabetes typically occurs before age 30:
    a. type 1
    b. type 2
    a. type 1
  192. The acronym that indicates that insulin is not required is:
    A. IDDM
    B. NDDMI
    C. NIDDM
    D. PIDDM
    C. NIDDM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  193. The most common cause of pituitary disorders is:
    A. tumor
    B. infection
    C. hyposecretion
    D. hypersecretion
    A. tumor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  194. In excess, this horomone can cause gigantism:
    A. thyroid
    B. adrenocortical
    C. somatotrophin
    D. mineralocorticoids
    C. somatotrophin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  195. Goiter can be caused by which of the following:
    A. hyperthyroidism
    B. hypothyroidism
    C. both a and c
    D. parathyroidism
    C. both a and c
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  196. This type of hypothyroidism is an autoimmune disorder:
    A. myxedemia
    B. cretinism
    C. hypokalemia
    D. Hashimoto's
    D. Hashimoto's
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  197. Tetany can be caused by:
    A. hyperthyroidism
    B. hypoparahyroidism
    C. hyperparathyroidism
    D. hyperaldosteronism
    B. hypoparahyroidism
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  198. Conn's syndrome is also known as:
    A. primary hypoparathyroidism
    B. primary hyperaldosteronism
    C. primary hyperparathyroidism
    D. primary hyperthyroidism
    B. primary hyperaldosteronism
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  199. Development of male characteristicsis known as:
    A. hypertrophy
    B. feminizaion
    C. virilization
    D. hyperaldosteronism
    C. virilization
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  200. The treatment for Addison disease is often:
    A. hormone replacement
    B. radiation
    C. chemotherapy
    d. all of the above
    A. hormone replacement
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  201. Portion of the nervous system that contains the cranial and spinal nerves:
    A. central
    B. autonomic
    C. peripheral
    D. parawympathetic
    C. peripheral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  202. The part of the neuron that receives signals:
    A. axon
    B. cell body
    C. dendrites
    D. myelin sheath
    C. dendrites
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  203. NOT associated with glia:
    A. microglia
    B. monocytes
    C. oligodendrocytes
    D. astrocytes
    B. monocytes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  204. Largest part of the brain:
    A. pons
    B. cortex
    C. cerebellum
    D. cerebrum
    D. cerebrum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  205. Divided into two hemispheres:
    A. cerebellum
    B. cortex
    C. pons
    D. cerebrum
    D. cerebrum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  206. The number of pairs of cranial nerves:
    A. 12
    B. 10
    C. 11
    D. 13
    A. 12
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  207. Controls the right side of the body:
    A. left cerebrum
    B. right cortex
    C. left cortex
    D. right cerebrum
    A. left cerebrum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  208. Combining form that means brain:
    A. mening/o
    B. encephal/o
    C. mon/o
    D. esthesi/o
    B. encephal/o
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  209. Prefix that means four:
    A. per-
    B. para-
    C. tetra-
    D. bi-
    C. tetra-
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  210. Combining form that means speech:
    A. rhiz/o
    B. myel/o
    C. phas/o
    D. poli/o
    C. phas/o
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  211. The most common dementia is:
    A. nutritional degenerative disease
    B. Alzheimer's disease
    C. Lou Gehrig's
    D. secondary
    B. Alzheimer's disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  212. MND stands for:
    A. maximal neuron disorder
    B. motor neuropathic disorder
    C. motor neuron disease
    D. migrating niacin disorder
    C. motor neuron disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  213. Dopamine replacement is useful in treating:
    A. Parkinson's disease
    B. multiple sclerosis
    C. Huntington's disease
    D. CVA
    A. Parkinson's disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  214. The condition in which the primary symptoms are muscle weakness and fatigability:
    A. dyskinesis
    B. myasthenia gravis
    C. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
    D. multiple sclerosis
    B. myasthenia gravis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  215. Another name for idiopathic polyneuritis is:
    A. Guillain-Barre syndrome
    B. multiple sclerosis
    C. postpolio syndrome
    D. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
    A. Guillain-Barre syndrome
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  216. The condition is thought to be caused by genetic factors and possibly fetal brain damage:
    A. Guillain-Barre syndrome
    B. Parkinson's
    C. spina bifida
    D. schizophrenia
    D. schizophrenia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  217. This condition is associated with viral infection, especially when aspirin has been administered:
    A. Conn's syndrome
    B. Lou Gehrig's
    C. Guillain-Barre syndrome
    D. Reye's syndrome
    D. Reye's syndrome
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  218. Concussion is a mild blow to the head in which recovery is expected within _________ hours.
    A. 24
    B. 48
    C. 12
    D. 1 week
    A. 24
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  219. ICP means:
    A. intensive cranial pressure
    B. intercranial pressure
    C. intracranial pressure
    D. interior cranial pressure
    C. intracranial pressure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  220. In this type of hematoma, blood mixes with cerebrospinal fluid:
    A. intracerebral
    B. subarachnoid
    C. epidural
    D. subdural
    B. subarachnoid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  221. The middle layer of the eye:
    A. retina
    B. episclera
    C. choroid
    D. sclera
    C. choroid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  222. The covering of the front of sclera and lining of eyelid:
    A. vitreous
    B. conjunctive
    C. aqueous humor
    D. ossicles
    B. conjunctive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  223. Which of the following is NOT a bone of the middle ear?
    A. stapes
    B. malleus
    C. incus
    D. cochlea
    D. cochlea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  224. This cranial nerve controls the sense of smell:
    A. I
    B. II
    C. III
    D. IV
    A. I
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  225. Which of the following is NOT part of the inner ear?
    A. pinna
    B. semicircular canals
    C. vestibule
    D. cochlea
    A. pinna
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  226. These receptors react to touch:
    A. nociceptors
    B. mechanoreceptors
    C. thermoreceptors
    D. proprioceptors
    B. mechanoreceptors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  227. These react to positon and orientation:
    A. thermoreceptors
    B. nociceptors
    C. mechanoreceptors
    D. proprioceptors
    D. proprioceptors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  228. Combining form meaning eyelid:
    A. optic/o
    B. uve/o
    C. aque/o
    D. blephar/o
    D. blephar/o
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  229. Combining form meaning eye lens:
    A. phak/o
    B. ocul/o
    C. cor/o
    D. irid/o
    A. phak/o
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  230. Abbreviation meaning the pupils are round, reactive to light, equal, and reactive to accommodation:
    A. PERL
    B. PERRLA
    C. PERRL
    D. PURL
    B. PERRLA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  231. This condition can be acquired or congenital and results in an irregular curvature of the refractive surfaces of the eye:
    A. nystagmus
    B. astigmatism
    C. diplopia
    D. hyperopia
    B. astigmatism
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  232. In this condition the eyeball is shorter than normal and results in being able to see objects in the distance but not close up:
    A. hyperopia
    B. astigmatism
    C. diplopia
    D. nystagmus
    A. hyperopia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  233. Rapid, involuntary eye movement is the predominant symptom of this condition:
    A. diplopia
    B. astigmatism
    C. hyperopia
    D. nystagmus
    D. nystagmus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  234. Age-related farsightedness is:
    A. hyperopia
    B. presbyopia
    C. myopia
    D. diplopia
    B. presbyopia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  235. Another name for a stye is:
    A. keratitis
    B. hordeolum
    C. strabismus
    D. hyperopia
    B. hordeolum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  236. An inflammation of the cornea that is cause by herpes simplex virus is:
    A. hyperopia
    B. strabisums
    C. keratitis
    D. hordeolum
    C. keratitis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  237. In this condition there is destruction of the fovea centralis:
    A. cataract
    B. detached retina
    C. macular degeneration
    D. glaucoma
    C. macular degeneration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  238. This is an infection that occurs in the middle ear cavity:
    A. otitis media
    B. retrocochlear
    C. ototoxic
    D. otitis externa
    A. otitis media
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  239. The hearing loss that can be due to a lesion on the cochlea is:
    A. sensorineural
    B. transmission
    C. ototoxic
    D. conductive
    A. sensorineural
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  240. This conduction is also known as perceptive deafness:
    A. tranmission
    B. sensorineural
    C. otitis media
    D. conductive
    B. sensorineural
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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