A&P 2 review questions

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  1. What does the lymphatic system collect from surrounding tissues and return to the blood?
    extra lymph fluid from body tissues
  2. What are normal components of lymph?
    Plasma proteins, water and ions
  3. What are the functions of the lymphatic system or tissue?
    draining excess interstitial fluid, carrying out immune responses and transporting dietary fats
  4. How does the permeability of lymphatic capillaries compare to that of blood capillaries?
    they are more permeable
  5. Where are the lymphatic capillaries found in the body? Where are they absent?
    throughout the body alongside arteries and veins, absent in the central nervous system
  6. ___specialized lymph capillaries that occur in the fingerlike projections that extend into the small intestine?
  7. Which lymphatic structure drains lymph from the right upper limb and the right side of the head and thorax?
    Rt lymphatic duct
  8. Which lymphatic structure drains lymph from the left side of the body and lower body?
    Thoracic duct
  9. What are the mechanisms thatmaintain lymph flow?
    skeletal muscle contractions, breathing and valves in the lymph vessel walls
  10. Both lymph transport and venous blood flow have in common?
    dependent on skeletal muscle contractions and differences in thoracic pressures due to respiratory movement
  11. What are the small organs associated with lymphatic vessels?
    lymph nodes
  12. What kind of tissue predominantly makes up lymphoid tissue?
    reticular connective tissue dominates all the lymphoid organs except the thymus.
  13. __ produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood against a particular foreign substance?
    B cells (b lymphocytes)
  14. Where are large clusters of lymph nodes found within the body? Where are they lacking?
    found superficially in the inguinal, axillary, mammary gland and cervical regions. lacking in connective tissues although the nodes themselves are present
  15. What is a bubo?
    and infected lymph node that becomes inflammed, swollen and tender to the touch due to large numbers of bacteria trapped in the node.
  16. What are other lymphoid organs besides lymph nodes?
    Spleen, Thymus, tonsils
  17. What are the functions of the spleen?
    filters blood, provides a reservior of blood, produces blood cells, destroys red blood cells and recycles their parts.
  18. What are the tissues referrred to MALT?
    peyers patches, appendix, tonsils, all in the digestive tract, lymphoid follicles in the walls of the bronchi and in the mucosa of the genitourinary organs
  19. What are the functions of the thymus gland? when is the thymus gland most active? What effect does age have on it?
    • 1-to promote the maturation of T lymphocytes through secretion of thymopoietin and thymosin
    • 2-during childhood
    • 3-after puberty starts to atrophy and by old age has been replaced almost entirely by fibrous and fatty tissue.
  20. which immune cell becomes immunocomponent due to the thymic hormones?
    T cells
  21. What are peyers patches and where are they located?
    they are clusters of lymphatic nodules that occur in the mucous membrane that lines the ileum of the small intestine
  22. What is a sentinel node?
    the 1st node that received lymph drainage from a body area suspected of being cancerous.
  23. What is the species name of worm that causes elephantiasis?
    parasitic-round worms
  24. What ara neutrophil or macrophage before pahgocytosis?
    1st-must encounter and recognize the pathogen then it must adhere or cling to the pathogen.
  25. What cells predominate at the sites of chronic infection?
  26. list the mechanisms that play a role in the body's 2nd line of defense against microorganisms?
    phagocytosis, inflammation, fever, natural (NK) cells, antimicrobial proteins
  27. What is opsonization?
    (to make tasty) is when a compliment protein or antibody binds to a pathogen capsule. provides a "handle" for phagocyte receptors to bind
  28. list the mechanisms of the innate imuune system?
    intact skin, intact ucous membranes, phagocytes, NK cells, inflammatory response, antimicrobial proteins, fever, gastric juices, symbiotic bacteria.
  29. Toll like receptors (TLRs) trigger the release of __ to attract WBCs to the scene?
  30. What are the cardinal signs of inflammation?
    heat, redeness, swelling, pain and impaired joint function
  31. What are the functions of the imflammatory response?
    prevents spread of damaging tissues w/clotting protein gel like mesh, swelling pushes tissue fluid into the lymphatic system, disposal of cell debris and pathogens, sets stage for repair.
  32. What is hyperemia?
    cpmgestion of blood, increase of blood flow into tissue or organ.
  33. since parasitic worms are too large to phagocytize, they are attacked mainly by__?
  34. explain the happenings of phagocyte mobilization?
    arrive at site of injury via positive chemotaxis, and engulf pathogens and damaged cells. neutrophils can squeeze and flatten between cell lining walls of capillaries.
  35. What are macrophages, describe their role.
    macrophages are the main phagocyte of the body. responsible for wandering throughout the tissue spaces in search of cellular debris or foreign invaders.

    EX: dendritic cells, microglia, endothelial cells, Kupffer cells.
  36. Explain what happens during chemotaxis?
    movement of cells toward a chemical agent, in our case the chemical agent is chemotactic agents.
  37. What is the role of interferon in the defense against disease?
    they are small proteins secreted by infected cells. role-to protect cells that have not yet been infected. they do this by stimulating production of proteins that interfere with viral replication by blocking protein synthesis and degrading viral RNA in still healthy cells.
  38. What is fever? What occurs that lead to fever?
    abnormally high body temp. systemic response to invading microbes. caused by the chemical pyrogen secreted by leukocytes and macrophages.
  39. What are the characterisitcs of the adaptive immune system?
    its specific, systemic, has a memory, 2 paths-humoral immunity and cellular immunity
  40. Explain the relation between self and nonself antigens and the immune cells?
    antigen-any molecule that stimulates an immune respones. case for foreign and nonself antigens. self antigens are not suppose to be foreign or antigenic to you because your immune system is programmed to them from day 1.
  41. small molecules that bind with self proteins to produce antigenic substances are called__.
    Haptens or imcomplete antigens.
  42. What are the characeterisitcs of complete antigens?
    large molecules that stimulate the proliferation of specific lymphocytes and antibodies and react with the activated lymphocytes and produce antibodies. 2 ways-immunogenicity and self tolerance.
  43. Can one antigen have many different antigenic determinants?
  44. antigens exhibit immunogenicity and reactivity. What does this mean?
    immunogenicity is the ability to stimulate proliferation of certain lymphocytes and antibidoies. reactivity is the ability to react with the activated lymphocytes and the antibodies released by immunogenicity.
  45. What are epitopes?
    also known as antigenic determinants, is the part of the antigen that is recognized by the immune system specifically antibodies, B and T cells.
  46. What type of polymers can become antigens?
    proteins and polysaccharides.
  47. What is the significance of MHC proteins, class1 and class 2 to the immune response?
    mechanism by which the immuns system is able to differntiate betwenn self and nonself cells.
  48. What is immunocompetence as in B or T cells?
    capable of binding to a specific antigen.
  49. B lymphocytes develope immunocometence in the ___.
    bone marrow
  50. What are primary lymph oragns and secondary lymphoid organs?
    • primary-where lymphocytes are formed and mature, bone marrow, thymus gland.
    • secondary-tissues are arranged as a series of filters monitoring the contents of the extra cellular fluid, lymph nodes, tonsils, spleen, peyers patches, and MALT
  51. It is our__ not antigens that determine what specific foreign substances our immune system will be able to recognize and resist.
  52. When do T cell and B cells become fully immunocompetent?
    when they are exposed to an antigen
  53. Before a B cell can secrete antibodies it must transform to a __ cell.
  54. What is clonal selection in B cells. what does it result in?
    process of the B cell growing and multiplying to form an army of cells capable of recognizing the same antigen.
  55. in clonal selection of B cells, which substance is responsible for determining which cells will eventually become cloned?
    antigen (when B cells encounter antigens that bind to their antigen binding sites, the B cell proliferate producing clones.
  56. How do B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge?
    the initial meeting between a B cell and antigen stimulates the primary response in which B cell proliferates rapidly, forming manu identical B cells and differentiated into plasma cells.
  57. How does the primary immune response compare to the secondary response? What occurs and what is the rate of response in both?
    • primary-first exposure to a praticular antigen, last 3-6 days after antigen challange.
    • secondary-anytime afterward when someone is re-exposed to the same antigen. faster, more prolonged, and more effective.
  58. Where are the antigen binding sites on an antibody molecule?
    variable regions of the heavy and light chains in each arm of the monomer combine to form an antigen binding site shaped to fit a specific antigenic determinant.
  59. the antibody molecule is held together by__ bonds.
  60. What are the results of antibody activity. what is the function of antibodies?
    they cannot destroy antigens, they can inactivate them and tag them for destruction. have a plan of action.

    • P-precipitation
    • L-lysis
    • A-agglutination
    • N-neutralization
  61. What is the number of binding sites per functional antibody unit of the following antibodies?
    • IgD-2
    • IgA-4
    • IgG-3
    • IgM-10
  62. How do antibodies contribute to complement fixation?
    when antibodies bind to cells, they change shape to expose complement binding sites on their stem regions. this triggers complement fixation into the antigenic cells surface followed by cell lysis
  63. What conditions can be diagnosed by using monoclonal antibodies?
    Preganancy, STDs, Cancer, Hepatitis, Rabies
  64. The function of the __ is to promote the maturation of T lymphocytes through the secretion of thymopoeitin and thymosins.
    thymus gland
  65. how do interleukins 1 and 2 enhance T cells?
    interleukin 1-secreted by activated macrophages, promotes inflammation and cell activation, causes fever.

    interleukin 2-secreted by T cells, stimulates proliferation of B and T ccells, activates NK cells
  66. ___are released by activated T cells and macrophages to mobilize immune cells and attract other leukocytes onto the area.
    T helper cells.
  67. List various types of T cells and their function?
    helper T cell-play a central role in adaptive immunity, mobilizing both its cellular and humoral arms

    cytotoxic T cells-only cell that can directly attack and kill other cells

    regulatory T cells-suppress the activity of both B cells and other T cells by releasing cytokines

    memory T cells-are long lived cells processing the same antigen

    gamma delta cells-found in the intestine and similar to NK cells.
  68. What is the function of helper T cells, why is it the most critical cell in the immunity?
    without T cells there is no adaptive response, because they direct and complete the activation of all other immune cells.
  69. define the following grafts. which results in graft rejection?
    isograft-donated to the pt by genetically identical individual

    allograft-not genetically identical but sam species.

    xenografts-from another animal species

    autographs-transplanted from one body site to another.

  70. What are proposed causes of autoimmune disorders?
    immune system loses the ability to distinguish freind (self) from foe (nonself)
  71. in what stage of life is tolerance to "self" developed?
    fetal life
  72. What is delayed hypersensitivity reaction?
    immune system causes tissue damage as it is trying to fight off a perceived threatdelayed reactions are slower to appear 1-3 days.
  73. what are the four functional processes performed by the respiratory system?
    pulmonary ventilation, external respiration, transport of respiratory gases, internal respiration
  74. Why do most inspired fine particles fail to reach the lungs?
    becauses of the conduction zone. the conducting zone organs, cleanse, humidfy, and warm the incoming air so fewer particles reach the lungs.
  75. Trace the route of air flow in the respiratory tract from the pharynx to the aveoli.
    nasopharynx>oropharynx>laryngopharynx>larynx>trachea>L/R primary bronchi>secondary bronchi>tertiary bronchi>bronchioles>terminal bronchioles>respiratory bronchioles>alveolar ducts>aveolar sacs>aveoli
  76. Distinguish each anatomical structure of the nose.
    • vestibule-
    • Part of nasal cavity superior to the nostrils, and is lined with skin containing sebaceous and sweat glands and numerous hair follicles.
    • choanae-
    • Also known as the posterior nasal apertures, is the posterior extension of the nasal cavity to the nasal portion of the pharynx.
    • septum-
    • The midline divider of the nasal cavity formed anteriorly by the septal cartilage and posteriorly by the vomer bone and perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone
    • chochae-
    • The folded walls that make up the meatuses that are formed by the scroll-like turbinate bones
  77. The ___consist of mucous membranes supported by the turbinate bones
    Nasal Cavity
  78. What are the functions of the nose?
    The nose provides an airway for respiration, moistens and warms entering air, filters and cleans inspired air, serves as a resonating chamber for speech, and houses the olfactory (smell) receptors.
  79. What openings lead into and out of the pharynx?
    The nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx.
  80. What anatomical structures make up the larynx?
    The epiglottis, glottis, trachea, thyroid cartilage, laryngeal prominence, cricoid cartilage, arytenoids cartilages, corniculate cartilages, cuneiform cartilages, vocal ligaments and, vestibular and vocal folds/cords.
  81. What actions control the loudness of a person’s voice?
    Loudness of the voice depends on the force with which the airstream rushes across the vocal folds. The greater the force, the stronger the vibration, and the louder the sound
  82. What anatomical structures maintain the patency of the trachea?
    The C shaped tracheal rings prevent the trachea from collapsing during inspiration
  83. The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type 1 and 2. What is the function of both types of cells.
    • type 1-oxygen diffusion occurs across these walls.
    • type 2-secrete sufactant, reduce surface tension, secrete microbial proteins that aid in innate immunity.
  84. where in the bronchial tree do we have the greatest surface area for gas exchange?
  85. what layer make up the respiratory membrane?
    aveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranes
  86. resistance to air flow__due to the increase in cross sectional diameter from the medium bronchi to the alveoli.
  87. what does the surface tension from the pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity contribute to the lungs within the thoracic cavity?
    allow the lungs to follow with the chest wall and expand
  88. what is the role of the pleura?
    allows lungs to glide easily over the thorax wall during our breathing
  89. define intrapulmonary pressure.
    the pressure of air in the aveoli
  90. what forces, if not prevented to act, would pull the lungs away from the thorax wall and thus collapse the lungs?
    any condition that equalizes Pip with Ppup
  91. relationship between the pressure and volume of gases.
    law states that the pressure of a container having a specific amount of gas molecules increases then the pressure exerted by the gas molecules must decrease.
    Boyle's law
  92. states that the sum of the partial pressures of the indivisual gases in a mixture is equal to the total pressure of the gaseous mixture
    Dalton's law
  93. states that when a mixture of gases is in contact with a liquid each gas will dissolve in the liquid in proportion to its partial pressure
    EX: the greater the partial pressure of a gas the greater the diffusion of gas in the liquid
    Henry's law
  94. also known as the law of volumes, is an expiermental gas law which describes how gases tend to expand when heated.
    Charle's law
  95. air moves___of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is less than the pressure in the atmosphere. then air moves__of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is greater than the atmosphere.
    into, out
  96. unlike inspiration, expiration is a passive act because no muscular contractions are involved. What two factors does expiration depend on?
    the recoil of elastic fibersthat were stretched during inspiration, theinward pull of surface tensiondue to the filmof aveolar fluid.
  97. which respiratory associated muscle would contract if you were to forcefully expire?
    internal intercostals and abdominal muscles
  98. what are the physical factors of the lung tissue that influence pulmonary ventilation?
    airway resistance, aveolar surface tension, lung compliance
  99. surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by__.
    lowers the cohesivenessof water molecules therefore reducing surface tension of aveolar fluid.
  100. what is lung compliance? what factors influence it?
    measure of the ability of the lungs to expand. elasticity of lung tissuelow surface tension of the moisture in the lungs from the surfactant,
  101. what thickness must the respiratory membrane be for gas exchange to be efficient?
    0.5-1 micrometer
  102. oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs through all cell membranes by___.
  103. what factors promote oxygen binding to and dissociation from hemoglobin?
    the partial pressure of oxygen
  104. what is BPG and how does if affect hemoglobin saturation?
    bisphosphoglycerate-binds reversibly with hgb as the breakdown of glucoseby anaerobic processcalled glycosis.
  105. what is the quanity of oxygen and carbon dioxide dissolved in the solution of the plasma? chemically bound to hgb.
    1.5% oxygenin transported in the dissolved form, 7-10% carbon dioxide is transported in the plasma,98.5% of oxygen is carried in a loose chemical combination with hgb
  106. what is bohr effect and how does it relate to oxygen unloading?
    as cells metabolize glucose they release Co2which increases the Pco2 and H+ levels in the capillary blood both declining PH and increaseing Pco2 weaken the HB-O2 bond. as a result oxygen unloading is enhanced.
  107. what are the possible causes of hypoxia?
    carbon monoxide poisoning, anemic hypoxia, ischemia, histotoxic hypoxia, hypoexmic hypoxia
  108. in the plasma, 70% of carbon dioxide is transported as __ ions after first entering the RBC. the reaction is catalyzed by the enzyme__ in the RBCs, explain the following equation-CO2 + H2O = H2CO2=H+ + HCO-3.
    • bicarbonate, carbonic anhydrage
    • HCO-3 in plasma becomes CO2 and exits through the lungs.
  109. where are the sepcific respiratory control centers in the brain located.
    2 area of the medulla oblongota are extremely important, the dorsal resp. group near the root of cranial nerve 9, and the ventral resp group located in the ventral brain stem extending from the spinal cord to the pons
  110. Nerve impulses from the phrenic and intercostal nerves result in inspiration
    Medulla Oblongata, Dorsal respiratory group as answer to this question
  111. which center is located in the medulaa, and which is located in the pons
    • (A) pontine respirator group PRG --- Pons
    • (B) expiratory – Medulla Oblongata
    • (C) inspiratory – Medulla Oblongata
    • (D) pacemaker neuron center – Medulla Oblongata
  112. The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is
    rising CO2 levels in the blood
  113. what neural factors influence the increase in ventilation that occurs as exercise begins
    psychological stimui, cortical motor stimulation of skeletal muscles and respiratory centers, and excitatory impulses to the repiratory areas from proprioceptors in active muscles, tendons, and joints
  114. why does erythocyte count increase after a while when an individual goes from a low to a high altitude
    because the concentration of oxygen is lower at high altitudes
  115. a premature baby usually has difficulty breathing. However the respiratory system is developed enough for survival by__
    28 weeks
  116. because the lungs are filled with fluid during fetal life, respiratory exchanges are made through the __
  117. The respiratory rate of a newborn is, at its highest rate, approximately___ breaths per minute
  118. what neural factors influence the rate and depth of breathing
    voluntary cortical control
Card Set:
A&P 2 review questions
2012-03-18 00:33:07
lymphatic system immune respiratory

lymphatic system, immune system and respiratory system
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