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  1. The primary function of the eyelids is
  2. Which is the primary muscle for closing the eyelids?
    Orbicularis Oculi
  3. The glands of Krause and Wolfring secrete
  4. From where do our tears begin?
    Lacrimal gland.
  5. The optic nerve passes through the optic foramen in which bone?
    Lesser wing of sphenoid.
  6. A fossa in a bone is best described as a
  7. Extraocular muscles are named based on
    where they attach.
  8. The primary action of the medial rectus is
  9. Which extraocular muscle is innervated by the sixth cranial nerve?
    Lateral rectus.
  10. Which muscle passes through the trochlear pulley?
    Superior oblique.
  11. Which muscle has the primary action of rotating the top of the eye outward toward the temple?
    Inferior oblique.
  12. The formula for remembering which cranial nerves innervate which muscles is
  13. A muscle that works against another muscle in the same eye is called
    an antagonist.
  14. How much refractive power (diopters [D]) does the cornea have?
  15. Which layer of the cornea acts as a physiological pump?
  16. Where does the sclera get its primary blood supply?
  17. In the iris, the longitudinal muscles that go from the edge of the pupil to the base of the iris are called
  18. The more posterior section of the ciliary body is called the
    pars plana.
  19. The anterior (forward) termination point of the choroid is called the
    ora serrata.
  20. The posterior pole refers to the
    macula, vortex veins, equator, and disk.
  21. The cones that contain the visual pigment erythrolabe are sensitive to the color
  22. How many structures make up the visual (afferent) pathway?
  23. The exact center of the retina is the
    fovea centralis.
  24. What kind of blind spot (scotoma) does the optic nerve cause in each eye?
  25. The second order neuron begins at the ganglion cells of the retina and ends at the
    lateral geniculate body.
  26. The efferent pupillary pathway, which tells the pupils whether they should get bigger, smaller, or stay the same, begins at the
  27. "A measure of the resolving power of the visual system" is a definition of visual
  28. The eye can generally see wavelengths (of light) between 400 and
    750 nm.
  29. When light rays from a distant object enter an eye that is at rest, and those light rays are brought to a focus beyond the retina, we consider that person to be
  30. What are the results of a VA test of an absolute hyperope?
    Decreased distant VA; even worse near VA.
  31. Which condition can cause a person to be myopic?
    Eye too long.
  32. Which prescription is for a compound hyperopic astigmatic patient?
    +4.75 -1.00 x 086.
  33. A person who has reached an age where he or she can no longer accommodate for near objects is called
    a presbyope.
  34. What is a primary cue to depth perception?
  35. The cue to depth perception used when dealing with two-dimensional drawings is
  36. If rods are more sensitive to light than cones, night vision is poorer than day vision because the
    rods give a coarse-grain image.
  37. Nyctalopia can be caused by glaucoma, retinitis pigmentosa, or
    vitamin A deficiency.
  38. Blepharitis is an infection of the
  39. Congenital ptosis is caused by a weakness of the
    Levator palpebrae superioris.
  40. Orbital cellulitis is also known as
  41. Preseptal cellulitis is located
    anterior to the tarsal plate.
  42. Epiphora is defined as
    overproduction of tears.
  43. What describes how persistent and quick an organism spreads?
  44. What shape describes a bacilli bacterium?
  45. Which bacterium is responsible for neonatal conjunctivitis?
  46. Which bacterium is frequently found in contaminated fluorescein solutions, saline, and contact lens solutions?
    Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
  47. How long does the adenovirus remain contagious?
    10 to 12 days.
  48. How is HIV transmitted?
    Coming into contact with the blood of an infected person.
  49. Which type of conjunctivitis is characterized by a stringy discharge?
  50. Which fungus targets immunosuppressed and hospitalized patients?
  51. A subconjunctival hemorrhage is created when blood is trapped between the
    conjunctiva and sclera.
  52. What describes a thickening of the conjunctiva?
  53. Which condition causes dendrites?
    Herpetic keratitis.
  54. What describes keratoconus?
    Thinning of the cornea.
  55. Which benign tumor can cause chronic conjunctivitis and is usually treated by surgical removal?
    Molluscum contagiosum.
  56. Squamous cell carcinomas metastasize via which system?
  57. Which term refers to the iris coming in contact with the crystalline lens or cornea?
  58. Which symptom describes retinitis pigmentosa?
    Early signs include loss of night vision.
  59. During which stage of diabetic retinopathy is pan retinal photocoagulation first considered as a viable treatment?
    2, preproliferative.
  60. Which condition causes the most rapid loss of vision and suffocates the retina?
    Central retinal artery occlusion.
  61. A degenerative condition in which tiny, opaque, calcium deposits get suspended in vitreous best describes
    asteroid hyalosis.
  62. Which phrase best describes the reason for opacification when a cataract occurs?
    Protein clumping within the lens.
  63. Cataracts are removed by
    intracapsular, extracapsular, and phacoemulsification.
  64. Which internal tumor is often seen as a white pupillary reflex?
  65. The causes of battle field injuries include
  66. Which body organ is most sensitive to mustard vapor injury?
  67. Which term refers to a thermal burn?
  68. Irrigation for a chemical burn should be done for at least
    30 minutes.
  69. Which situation causes snow blindness?
    UV radiation.
  70. Hyphema refers to blood in which chamber of the eye?
  71. Which types of lid lacerations tend to have a less-damaging long-term effect?
  72. If a patient complains of eye pain, diplopia, nausea, and limited movement in one eye, the most likely cause is a
    blowout fracture.
  73. Aqueous pushing fluorescein away from a perforation is known as a
    positive Seidel.
  74. An ocular migraine is considered to be which type of disorder?
  75. The visual hallucinations that usually precede the onset of a migraine headache are called
  76. What is an urgent ocular case that should be seen the same day?
    Acute narrow-angle glaucoma.
  77. After a chemical is splashed in the eye the patient may suffer from blepharospasm, which is caused by a muscle spasm of the
    orbicularis oculi.
  78. When irrigating a patient's eye, you irrigate from
    nasal to temporal.
  79. Incorrect advice to give a patient after applying a pressure patch is
    if the patch comes off, replace it immediately.
  80. Which term associated with aseptic technique is synonymous with clean technique?
    Medical asepsis.
  81. Which term describes an infection the patient contracts while receiving health care?
  82. What is the single most important means of preventing the spread of infection?
    Hand washing.
  83. When ophthalmic medications are exposed to excessive heat or light, they
  84. What are correct methods to increase the penetration or effectiveness of an eye drop?
    Increased dosage and frequency.
  85. When instilling a drop topically, about how far from the eye should the bottle be kept to avoid contamination, but still allow accurate placement?
  86. The most effective way to avoid an adverse drug reaction in a patient is to
    take a good case history.
  87. Which nervous system causes pupil dilation, ciliary muscle relaxation, and heart rate increase when you are alarmed or threatened?
  88. The most common simple mydriatic is
  89. Which drug is used for cycloplegic refractions in flying class I and IA examinations?
  90. Which category of medications is the initial drug of choice for lowering intraocular pressure?
  91. Which beta-blocker does not affect the beta-2 (pulmonary) receptors' functioning?
  92. Chronic use of high doses of cholinesterase inhibitors can lead to the formation of
    iris cysts.
  93. What is a combination of a topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and a topical beta-adrenergic receptor blocking agent?
  94. Which hyperosmotic should not be used on diabetic patients?
  95. Which technique is used to paralyze the extraocular muscles behind the globe?
    Retrobulbar block.
  96. Liquid fluorescein is quite susceptible to contamination by
    pseudomonas aeruginosa.
  97. Which steroid-antibiotic combination is considered the drug of choice for moderate to severe conditions?
  98. Which is the correct treatment for the adenovirus?
    Let it run its course.
  99. Which is the drug of choice for treating systemic fungal infections (e.g., Histoplasma capsulatum and Candida)?
    Amphotericin B (Fungizone®).
  100. Degenerative eye diseases, like the aging process, are believed to be caused by an excess of
    free radicals.
Card Set:
2012-04-04 03:26:31

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