Board Exam

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GEORGINA
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143492
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Board Exam
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2012-04-04 23:05:59
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If you fail to prepare, prepare to fail : )
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  1. the science of _________ is concerned with the structure of the human body?
    A) physiology
    B) anatomy
    C)embalming
    D) biology
    B) Anatomy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. what was one of the main reasons for restricting the study of anatomy by using cadavers?
    A)greek ideals
    B)religion
    C)roman conquest
    D) lack of cadavers
    B) Religion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Who is thought to have written the first anatomy book?
    A) leonard Da vinci
    B)Menes
    C) aristotle
    D) galen
    D) menes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. what early greek physician developed theh concept that the body has four humors, each associated with a body organ?
    A) homer
    B) hipocrates
    C)herophilus
    D) dedrick of salame
    B)Hippocrates
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. What was one of the most significsnt constribution of the 20th century in anatomy?
    A) the simplification and standarization of wording and terms
    B) the light microscope
    C) the cell theory
    d) none od the above
    A) the simplification and standarization of wording and terms
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. The fundamental unit of all living thing is____?
    A) molecule
    B)atom
    C)organelle
    D) Cell
    D) Cell
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Which one of the following is the largest Organ in the body?
    A)a and b
    B) endocrine system
    C)kidney
    D)the skin
    D)the skin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. The _____ system is responsible for the absorption of fats, drainage of tissues fluids and immunity?
    A) urinary
    B) digestive
    C) endocrine
    D) respitary
    B) Digestive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. The _____ plane divides the body into right and left halves.
    A) coronal
    B)frontal
    C) sagital
    D) transverse
    C) Sagital
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. When examining a patient, medical personel will use ___ to tap sharply on various locations of the thorax or abdomen to detect excess fluids or abnormalities.
    A) inspection
    B) auscultation
    C)percussion
    D) palpation
    C) perccusion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. THE ARMPIT IS LOCATED IN THE _____ REGION?
    A) facial
    B) cervical
    C) mamary
    D) axillary
    D) axillary
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. the back of the knee is referred to as the ______?
    A) crural region
    B) Politeal Fossa
    C)dorsum
    D)tarsus
    B) Politeal Fossa
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. ______ is the epidermal skin layer the develops all other layers of the epidermis.
    A) stratum cornea
    B) stratum basele
    C)stratum lucidum
    D)stratum granuloum
    B) Stratum Basale
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. The pungent secretionof the _____ glands is thought to fuction as a sexual attractant?
    A)sebaceus
    B) apocrine sweat
    C) ceruminous
    D)endocrine sweat
    B) Apocrine Sweat
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. There are ______ cranial bone in the adult skull?
    A)12
    B) 22
    C) 9
    D)4
    C) 9
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. There are ____facial bones in the adult Skull?
    A)8
    B) 10
    C)14
    D)93
    C) 14
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Which of the following surface feature represents a bone depression?
    A)process
    B) fossa
    C) condyle
    D)a and b
    B) Fossa
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. which of the following is a normal function of the human skeleton?
    A) mineral storage
    B) a and b
    C) protection of the underlying tissue
    d) none of the above
    B) mineral storage and protection of the underlying tissue
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. The medultary cavity of a long boneis lined with_____?
    A) fatty tissue
    B)endosteuum
    C) blood
    D) diaphysis
    B) endosteum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. _____ are the type of bone cells that break down bone structure during bone building and bone healing processes?
    A)osteocytes
    B)osteoblast
    C) bone lining cells
    D)osteoclast
    D) osteoclast
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. What 2 bones, or portions of bones, makes up the nasal septum?
    A) perpendicular plate and ethmoid /vomer
    B)nasal/vomer
    C)interior concha/ethmoid
    D)maxilla/sphemoid
    A)Perpendicular plate and the ethmoid/vomer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Cervical vertebrae dentical lumba vertebrae are identical in:
    A)presence of transverse famina
    B)presence of transverse process
    C)size
    D)tranverse latitude
    B) presence of transverse process
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. the body tissue that covers body surfaces, cavities and ducts is:_______?
    A)epithelial
    B)muscle
    C) nerveous
    D)connective
    A) Epithelial
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium is adapted for ________?
    A)absortion
    B) secretion
    C)excretion
    D)protection
    A) Absorption
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. ______ is charactherized by large amounts of densely packed collagenous fibers running parrallel to the direction of an applied force.
    A) elastic connective tissue
    B) dense regular tissue
    C) dense irregular connective tissue
    D) dehydrated connetive tissue
    B) Dense regular tissue
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. The type of cartilage found in intervertebral dics is ______.
    A) elastic cartilage
    B) fibrocartilage
    C)coastal cartilage
    D) hyaline cartilage
    B) Fibrocartilage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. The type of joint that is distinguished by having a fluid-filled joint cavity is called a ______ joint?
    A) cartilaginous
    B) fibrous
    C) synovial
    D)suture
    C) Synovial
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. The movement of the sole of the foot outward or laterally is called:______?
    A) retraction
    B)elevation
    C)eversion
    D) inversion
    D) Inversion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. The ___________ of the shoulder joint functions to deepen the cavity of the glenoid fossa.
    A) transverse humeral retinaculum
    B) subscaputar bursa
    C) glenoid labrum
    D) coracohumeral ligament
    C) Glenoid Labrum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Which of the following features of the hip joint are also features of the shoulder joints?
    a) strength
    b) deep articulating fossa
    c) a and b
    d)none of the above
    • c) a and b
    • Strength and deep articulating fossa
  31. Which two ligaments lie within the Knee joint?
    A) anterior and posterior crciate ligament
    B) oblique and arcuate ligament
    C)lateral and medial ligament
    d) none of the above
    A) Anterior and Posterior Curciate Ligaments
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Contratitility is a general trait of the human muscle? true/false
    True
  33. In the wrist and ankle, tendors are enclosed by a strong band of connective tissue called:____?
    A) tendon sheath
    B) retinaculum
    C) ligament
    D) skin
    B) Retinaculum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Whichof the following is a muscle of Mustication?
    A)temporalis
    B)medial pteygoid
    C) masseter
    D) orbliclaris
    C) Masseter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Which muscle originates on the sternum and terminates on the mastoid process of the temporal bone?
    A) spenius capitis
    B) sternocleiodmastoid
    C) trapezius
    d) none of the above
    B) sternocleidmastoid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. What is the deepest of the 4 abdominal muscles?
    A)external abdominal oblique
    B) transverses abdominis
    C) rectus abdominis
    D)internal abdominal oblique
    B) transverse abdominis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. The thenar and hypothenar muscles are located_______?
    A) in the hand
    B)in the thigh
    C) in the foot
    D) in the forearm
    A) In the hand
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. The___________nerve conducts impulses from the eyes' photoreceptors?
    A) olfactory
    B) oculomotor
    C) optic
    D) trochlear
    C) Optic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. If______ nerve is damaged, the person will have difficulty speaking, swallowing and protruding the tongue?
    A) accessory
    B)facial
    C)glossopharyngeal
    D)hypoglossal
    D) Hypoglossal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. The static nerve is the largest in the human body. True/False
    True
  41. The ____ nerve of the brachial plexus innervates the skin of the lateral 2/3of the hand, the flexors of the anterior forearm, and the lateral palm.
    A)radial
    B)median
    C)axillary
    D) ulnar
    B) Median
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. One of the branches of the cervical plexus leading to the diaphragm is the_____?
    A) ansa cervicalis
    B)lesser occipital
    C)supraclavicular
    D)phrenic
    D) Phrenic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Deoxygenated blood carried in the vena cava empties into the______ of the heart?
    A) leftatrium
    B) left ventricle
    C) right atrium
    D) right ventricle
    C) right Atrium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. The ____________ severs as a blood resovoir and also house lymphocytes that are critical to body immunity?
    A)lymph nodes
    B)thymus
    C)heart
    D) spleen
    D)spleen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Which of the following is the major nerve of the posterior leg?
    A)tibial
    B) arterial
    C) femoral
    D)sciatic
    D) Sciatic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. The Femoral artery narrows to become the _____as it traverses in the posterior knee region.
    A)popliteal vessel
    B) arterial
    C)tibila vessel
    D)dorsalis pedis vessel
    A)Popliteal Vessel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. The sciatic nerve runs directly beneath the____muscle.
    A)glulteau maxim
    B)pectinaeus
    C)piriformis
    D)satorious
    C) Piriformis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. The muscles which adduct the hip are located on the ______surface of the femur.
    A)Lateral
    B)posterior
    C)medial
    D)anterior
    C) Medial
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. The main muscles of the the hip extention are the gluteals and hamstrings. True/False
    True
  50. The Spinal cord the ends at the level L-2 where it becomes the_______.
    A)cauda squine
    B)crassius ceasarum
    C) columna nidbel
    D) cassius labida
    A) Cauda Squine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Excess of body heat can be lost most rapidly though______.
    A)conduction
    B) convection
    C)evaporation
    D)radiation
    C) Evaporation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Hypodermia os a condition which begins when the body temperature reaches____degrees fahrenheit.
    A)85
    B)89
    C)92
    D)95
    D) 95
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. There are ______ vertebrae in the lumbar spine of a human skeleton.
    A)5
    B)7
    C)12
    D)18
    A) 5
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. The most common location for spondylolisthesis is____?
    A)between C7 and T1
    B)beween L7 and S2
    C)between L5 and S1
    d)all of the above
    C) Between L5 and S1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. The sacrum of a bone located in the_____?
    A)leg
    B) cranium
    C)pelvis
    D)sternum
    C) Pelvis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. Injuries to the intevertebral disks are common in the thoracic spine. T/F
    False
  57. Scoliosis involves a lateral curvature of the spine. T/F
    True
  58. Tinea pedis os an infection of the_____?
    A)groin
    B)foot
    C)rectum
    D)scalp
    B)Foot
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Pydorma is a pus producing infection of the skin. T/F
    False
  60. Plantar warts are caused by________?
    A)fungi
    B)viruses
    C)insect bites
    D)radiation
    B)Viruses
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Active HIV/AIDS can be readily transmited via blood-to-blood contact. T/F
    True
  62. All patients who are homesexual have AIDS/HIV. T/F
    False
  63. Reddeding of the skin is known as______?
    A)histamination
    B)erythema
    C)vasodilation
    b)hematoma
    B) Erythema
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. A steroid compound can bedriven into the skin by ultrasoun by a proceses called_______.
    A)iontophoresis
    B)phonophoresis
    C)thermotherapy
    d)none of the above
    B)Phonophoresis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Phagocytosis means "Cell Eating". T/F
    True
  66. Which of the following is Correct regarding an acute injury?
    A)no clear causative mechanism
    B)vague symptoms
    C)characterized by rapid onset from a traumatic event
    d) all of the above
    C)Characterized by rapid onset from a traumatic event
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. The _____ and spinal cord compose the nerveous system.
    A)lungs
    B)heart
    C)spleen
    D)brain
    D)the brain
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. the first cervical vertebra is referred to as the______.
    A)atlas
    B)diogenes
    C)hercules
    D)zeus
    A)atlas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. There are 27 pairs of spinal nerve. T/F
    False
  70. The _________is given additionalstability by the glenoid labrum.
    A)stermaoclavicular
    B)acrpstopular
    C)glenohumeral
    D)coracclaviclure
    C)glenohumeral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. The ______ and the clavicle make up for the shoulder girdle.
    A)humerous
    B)radius
    C)scapula
    d)none of the above
    C)Scapula
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. A common clavicular fracture on adolescent athletes is often reffered to as a _____.
    A) green stick fracture
    B)compound fracture
    C)adolescent break
    D)teen fracture
    A)Green stick fracture
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. The best copulant medium for ultrasound is ______?
    A) air
    B)gel
    C)water
    D)mineral oil
    C) Water
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Which of the following are physiologic effects of ultrasound?
    a)phonophoresis
    b) mechanical effects
    d) chemical effects
    d) all of the above
    • d) all of the above
    • Phonophoresis
    • mechanical effects
    • chemical effects
  75. _____is another term for amplitude modulated waveform operation in ultrasound.
    A) stationary average
    B) continuos output
    C) pulsed output
    D) unattended
    C)Pulsed output
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. This modality produces arteriole vasoconstriction.
    A) moist heat
    B)ultrasound
    C)cryotherapy
    D)tappotment
    C)Cryotherapy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. ____ is a unique technique to treat anirregular surface that cannot be submerged in water by using a thin air-free plastic bag.
    A)subnersion
    B)barrier method
    C)coupling cushion
    d)none of the above
    C)Coupling Cushion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. Antisepsis is the use of ultrasound to increase phagocytic/antibacterial activity.T/F
    True
  79. The effect produced by an ultrasonic bean in tissues occurring primarily at the cell-membrane interface is called____.
    A)microdestruction
    B)acoustic straming
    C)low level cavitation
    D)micromassage
    B)Acoustic streaming
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. ____ is the electromotive force that pushes current.
    A)power
    B)voltage
    C)electrical charge
    D)tesla coupling
    B)Voltage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. Pulse rate refers to the number of times per minute that a certain electric flow or pulse is repeated. T/F
    True
  82. Low frequency currents can either be direct or alternating.T/F
    True
  83. A tissue is a group of _____ with similiar functios?
    A)cells
    B)molecules
    C)atoms
    d)none of the above
    A) Cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. To be effective, a muscle stimulus must have a certain intensityand durattion. T/F
    True
  85. Anatomy is the study of the body struture. T/F
    True
  86. Which subdivision of anatomy involves the study of organ fuctions?
    A) regional
    B)histology
    C) systemic
    D)surface anatomy
    C)Systemic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. The Liver, gallbladder, and stomach are part of the _____.
    A)digestive system
    B)nerveous system
    C)skeletal system
    D) endocrine system
    A) Digestive System
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. Homeostasis is definied as:_____?
    A) the amplification of deviation from normal range
    B)the production of cells by energy
    C)the maintenance of relative constant enviroment of the body.
    D)the combinationof growth, repair and energy release
    C)The maintenance of relative constant enviroment of the body
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. The term that means "AWAY FROM THE MIDDLEOF THE BODY" is:____.
    A)medial
    B)proximal
    C)distal
    D)lareral
    D) Lateral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. The thoracic cavity is separated fom the abdominal cavity by the:___.
    A) splenal curriculum
    B) sternum
    C) heart
    D) diaphragm
    D) Diaphragm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. Another tern for finger is:_____?
    Phalanges
  92. The amount of time it takes for an electrical stimulation to go from 0 to peak amplitude is know as:_____.
    A) frecuency time
    B) current time
    C) duty cycle time
    D) ramp time
    D) Ramp Time.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. Which of the following is Not a term used to described electricity?
    A.Charge
    B. current
    C.Voltage
    D.Excitability
    D. Excitability
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. With electrical stimulation, fatigue is at greater or higher frequencies because:___?
    A) the resistance of the skin is lower
    B) the inner-pulse interval is shorterned
    C) the muscle temperature decreases
    D) muscle recovery time is increased
    B) the inner-pulse interval is shorterned
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. Pregnancy should be considered a contraindications of electrical stimulation.T/F
    True
  96. Which of the following are contraindications to electrical stimulation?
    a)Application over a cancerous lesion
    b)Application over an area of thrombophlebitis
    c)Application over an an implanted pacemaker
    d) all of the above
    • d) all of the above
    • Application over a cancerous lesion
    • Application over an area of thrombophlebitis
    • Application over an an implanted pacemaker
  97. Electrical stimulation uses indirect current. T/F
    False
  98. _____ current is a continuos flow of charged particles of duration of at leat 1 second where one electrode is positive and is negative.
    A) direct
    B) Pulsed
    C) indirect
    D) Alternating
    A) Direct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. _____ current is an uninterrupted bidrectional flow of charged particles changing direction at least once a second that does not allow charges to build up.
    A) indirect
    B) Pulsed
    C) direct
    D) Alternating
    D) alternating
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. Triphasic is basic current waveform used with electrical stimulation. T/F
    True
  101. Phase duration, frequency, ramp and on/off time are ll characteristics of:_____?
    A)Electrical Current
    B) Stimulation intervals
    C) therapeutic Goals
    D)Duty cycles
    A) Electrical current
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. The practitioner may use a two pronged plug adapter to connect an electrical stimulation device with a three prong plug to a wall outlet. T/F
    False
  103. ______ law states that the delivered energy is dicrectly related to the amount of resistance encountered.
    A)Burkes Law
    B) Ohms Law
    C)Columbus Law
    D)Newtons Law
    B) Ohms Law
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. Hot packs are one of the most common ways to deliver superficial moist heat to patients. T/F
    True
  105. '' Cryo'' literally means cold. T/F
    True
  106. _______ would be the best therapy for acute inflammation and edema?
    a) heat
    b) cold
    b) Cold
  107. A sensory deficit patient should be monitored the same as any other patient during heat treatments. F/T
    False
  108. The local application of superficial heat may decrease inflammatory response when treating an acute injury. T/F
    False
  109. When using ice massage, the acronym " CBAN" refers to ''cold, burning, aching and numbness''. T/F
    True
  110. Knowing the potential adverse effects of a thermal agent is an important consideration when treating a patients.T/F
    True
  111. With therapeutic ultrasound, the actual sound wave cannot be heard by the patients or the CA. T/F
    TRUE
  112. Therapeutic ultrasound is almost always applied at these 2 frequencies:
    a) 1mhz or 2 mhz
    b) 1mhz or 3mhz
    c)1mgz or 4mhz
    d)2mhz or 5mhz
    1 MHz or 3 MHz
  113. In treating a superficial injury, the best parameter selection is ____ MHz?
    A)4
    B)3
    C)2
    D)1
    B)3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. Heat generated within tissues as a result of therepeutic ultrasound is caused by radioactive materials found in the ultrasound transmitter. T/F
    TRUE
  115. The most appropiate rate of transducer movement in therapeutic ultrasound should be slow with an overlap at a rate of______ to ______ cm/sec?
    A)7 to 8
    B)3-4
    C)5-6
    D)1-2
    B) 3 to 4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. Which of the following is correct regarding the placements of electrodes when treating a patient?
    A) place it away from the painful area
    B) place it over areas where peripheral nerves cannot be innervated
    C)place it as afar as possible from the spinal cord segment innervating a painful area
    D) none of the above is correct
    D) none of the above is correct
  117. Which of the following is not a phase of the healing process?
    A) degeneration phase
    B)maturation phase
    C)fioblastic phase
    D) inflammatory phase
    A) degeneration phase
  118. Which of the following is a common, affective treatment in controlling edema?
    A)stretching
    B)compression
    C)heat
    D) vibration
    B) compression
  119. The amount of time that ultrasound is generated over one pulse period is called________?
    A) refractory period

    B) spatial intensity
    C)temporal peak
    D)duty cycle
    D) duty cycle
  120. Which of the following is correct regarding the human endocrine system?
    A) it directly assists in food disgestion
    B) it serves to aid the funtions of the optic nerves
    C) it releases hormones that alter metabolic activities
    D) its main purpose is to to aid the heart in blood flow
    C) it releases hormones that alter metabolic activities
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. the heart is _____ to the lungs?
    A) superior
    B) dorsal
    C)medial
    D) lateral
    C)medial
  122. The term ''articulation'' refers to:
    A) blood flow
    B) nerve impulse
    C)joint function
    D)bone growth
    C)joint function
  123. Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton?
    A)femur
    B)sternum
    C)mandible
    D) sacrum
    A)femur
  124. The common phrase '' hunchback'' is really:
    A) scoliosis
    B)cleft palate
    C)kyphosis
    D)spina bifida
    C)kyphosis
  125. '' Spina bifida" refers to an incomplete closure of the vertebral column?
    A) true
    B)false
    A) true
  126. A ligament running along the side of the knee joint is:
    A) cruciate
    B)collateral
    B) collateral
  127. Which of the following best describes painful and tender joints?
    A) fibromyalaia
    B)muscular dystrophy
    C)myasthenia gravis
    D)all of the above
    A) fibromyalaia
  128. The central nervous system is comprised of______?
    A) brain
    B) brain and spinal cord
    C)brain and peripheral nerves
    D) brain and thalamus
    B) brain and spinal cord
  129. The nerves located outside of the brain and spinal cord comprise the ______ nervous system?
    A) central
    B)general
    C)peripheal
    D)basal
    C)peripheal
  130. The mediastinum is located in the_____?
    A)thoracic cavity
    B) leg
    C)cranial cavity
    D)larynx
    A)thoracic cavity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. The difference between systolic and diastolic pressure is called_____ pressure?
    A) pulse
    B)mean arterial
    C)blood
    D) ventricular
    A) pulse
  132. A high HLD level may contribute and leade to:
    A) active AIDS/HIV
    B)atherosclerosis
    C)liver disease
    D) skin rash
    B)atherosclerosis
  133. Which of the following is not found in the urine?
    A) glucose
    B)uric acid
    C)urea
    D)creatinine
    A) glucose
  134. Which of the following is not a function of the nervous system?
    A) sensory
    B)integrative
    C) nourishment
    D)motor
    C) nourishment
  135. Threshold stimulus is the minimal strenght required to cause a msucle contraction?
    A)true
    B)false
    A)true
  136. The_________ moves the pectoral girdle?
    A) spenius
    B) trapezius
    C)spincter
    D) buccinator
    B) trapezius
  137. Regulating body temperature is a function of the human skin?
    A) true
    B)false
    A)true
  138. If a patient complains of a strong ''itchy'' sensation after vibration with a G-5 device, this is most likely due to:
    A) a rush of blood to the area
    B) a localized infection
    C) superficial tissue damage
    D) nerve damage
    A) a rush of blood to the area
  139. Sine waves of constant amplitude but of slightly different frequencies from 2 sources best describes inferential current?
    A)true
    B)false
    A)true
  140. The frequency for Russian stimulation is______Hz?
    A)2500
    B)3000
    C)3500
    D)4000
    A)2500
  141. Which frequency is the best for treating acute lumbar disc syndrome?
    A) 1-15Hz
    B)80-120Hz
    C)35-40Hz
    D) 1-150Hz
    B) 80-120Hz
  142. Which frequency is the best for treating chronic cervical spine pain?
    A) 1-15Hz
    B)80-120Hz
    C)1-150Hz
    D)35-40Hz
    A)1-15Hz
  143. Frequency of electrical current may be expressed in either pulses per second (pps) or in cycles per second (cps)?
    A) AC
    B)DC
    C)T.E.N.S
    D) IFC
    B)DC
  144. Which of the following would not be considered a general physiologic effect of electrical muscle stimulation?
    A) decreased blood flow
    B)reducd edema
    C)relaxed muscles spasm
    D)recruitment of muscles fibers
    A) decreased blood flow
  145. Heat is best transferred Deep into the body by______?
    A) conversion
    B)convection
    C)radiation
    D)conduction
    A) conversion
  146. Short waive diathermy is best used for________?
    A) sub-acute and chronic conditions
    B)acute conditions
    C) inflammatory condition
    D) transient condition
    A) sub-acute and chronic conditions
  147. Parrafin bath may be applied over an open wound or lesion?
    A)true
    B)false
    B)false
  148. The intensity of a UV lamp will________ the closer it is placed to the treatment area?
    A) increase
    B)decrease
    A)increase
  149. The intensity of radiation is always greatest at the right angle (90 degrees) to the treatment area?
    A)True
    B)False
    A)true
  150. T.E.N.S is primarily used to help heal bone fracture?
    A) true
    B)False
    B)false
  151. Hubbard tanks should be cleaned and sterilized:
    A)montly
    B)weekly
    C)after each patient use
    D) when requested by a patient
    C)after each patient use
  152. When using constant ultrasound, for best effect, the applicator head should be?
    A) turned off
    B)constantly moved over the treatment area
    C)left directly over the treatment area in a stationary position
    D) used with no coupling medium
    B)constantly moved over the treatment area
  153. The term pain threshold refers to the ______ stimulus that will excite the sensation of pain?
    A) lowest
    B) highest
    C)average
    D)mean
    A)lowest
  154. Treatment for intermittent traction is normally between?
    A) 5-10min
    B)10-15min
    C)15-30min
    D)30-70min
    C)15-30min
  155. The primary purpose of combining ultrasound and electrical muscle stimulation is for :
    A) better pain control
    B) decreased skin ressistance and penetration
    C) increased fluid
    D)muscle rehabilitation
    B) decreased skin ressistance and penetration
  156. In which of the following should electrical stimulation not be used?
    A) over a pacemaker
    B) over a pregnant uterus
    C)over the cranium
    D)all of the above
    D)all of the above
  157. High volt stimulation is best used for?
    A) pain control
    B)blood flow improvement
    C)edema reduction
    D)wound healing
    A) pain control
  158. Burns during electrotherapy are usually caused by:
    A) voltage
    B) amperage
    C)wattage
    D)baggage
    B) amperage
  159. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication when using short waves diathermy?
    A) metal table
    B)artritis
    C)bronchitis
    D) woolen underwear
    B)metal table
  160. Which of the following would have the greatest current flow?
    A) bone
    B)skin
    C)muscle
    D) fat
    C)muscle
  161. ''Hemotoma" is a:
    A) blood clot
    B) bone spur
    A) blood clot
  162. The part of the small intestine where most food absorption occurs is the:
    A) ilieum
    B) dudodenum
    C) cecum
    D) jelunum
    A) ilieum
  163. Microscopic filtration plants that filter the skin to the blood and from urine are:
    A) hilum
    B) gall bladder
    C)nephrons
    D)Medullia
    A) hilum
  164. Nerves that carry impulses from the sskin to the central nervous system are:
    A) impulse nerves
    B) basal nerves
    C) motor nerves
    D) sensory nerves/eference
    D) sensory nerves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  165. The_____ conducts impulses away from the cell body of the nerve?
    A) axon
    B)nuclei
    C)dendrite
    D)cilia
    C)dendrite
  166. Relay stations of the autonomic nervous system are:
    A) ganglia
    B) plexuses
    C)motor points
    D)spinal nerves
    A) ganglia
  167. The transparent anterior portion of the outer coating of the eye is the?
    A) choroid
    B) sclera
    C)cornea
    D)retina
    C)cornea
  168. The part of the eye which may be torn by trauma which causes a patient to complain of partial vision?
    A) cornea
    B)retina
    C)sclera
    D)choroid
    B)retina
  169. The part of the eye which may be become jaundices (yellowed) due to liver disease?
    A) cornea
    B)retina
    C) sclera
    D) choroids
    C) sclera
  170. Vitrious fluid is foud in the_____________?
    A)lacrimal apparatus
    B) posterior cavity
    C)cochlea
    D)anterior cavity
    B) posterior cavity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  171. _________ is the hormone that regulates the body metabolism?
    A) insulin
    B)thyroxin
    C)epinephrine
    D)parathormone
    B)thyroxin
  172. ________ is the endocrine gland that produces stimulating hormones?
    A) pituitary
    B) periosteum
    C) synovial
    D)adrenals
    A) pituitary
  173. Which of the following are contraindications to using most hot packs?
    A) bleeding tendency
    B) pregnant uterus
    C) malignant tumor
    D) all of the above
    D) all of the above
  174. Which of the following devices is used to diagnose/treat certain diseases such as tinea pedis (atheletes foot)?
    A) sun lamp
    B) cold quartz lamp
    C)woods lamp
    D)mercury vapor lamp
    C)woods lamp
  175. The________ law states that if the distance between thelight source and the patient is cut in half, the intensity of the source is quadrupled?
    A) law of averages
    B) inverse square law
    C) cosign law
    D) absorption flow law
    B) inverse square law
  176. __________________increases visceral circulation?
    A) moist heat
    B)infra red
    C) hot water
    D) short wave diathermy
    D) short wave diathermy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  177. __________ minutes is the normal amount of time to treat with short wave diathermy?
    A)10
    B)30
    C)60
    D)90
    A)10
  178. The power produced by an ultrasound unit is measured at the sound head in_____?
    A)amps
    B)pulses
    C) volts
    D)watts
    D)watts
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  179. Ultrasound absorption occurs primarily in tissue proteins?
    A) true
    B) False
    A) TRUE
  180. The best effects of ultrasound occur at different tissue interfaces due to waves reflexions?
    A) true
    B)false
    A)true
  181. The ultrasound frequency best used to treat deep fibrotic is_____ MHz?
    A)3.3
    B)7.7
    C) 1.1
    D)5.5
    C)1.1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  182. When treating small superficial areas with ultrasound such as fingers, it is best to use_______ MHz?
    A) 1.1
    B)3.3
    C)5.5
    D)7.7
    B)3.3
  183. Ultrasound treatments normally should not exceed_______ minutes per area?
    A) 4-8
    B)10-15
    C) 20-30
    D) none of the above the patients will tell you when to stop
    A) 4-8
  184. When using a tens unit for pain control, a frequency of_____ pps should be used?
    A) 1-15
    B)70-150
    C)100-250
    D)500-1000
    B)70-150
  185. low volt electro therapy is defined as using less than_____ volts with an average current of 1-30ma?
    A) 5
    B)50
    C)150
    D)300
    C)150
  186. low volt therapy may not be used on a patient with a pace-maker?
    A)true
    B)false
    true
  187. placing the electrodes farther apart in inferential therapy causes the depth of the penetration to_________?
    A) increase
    B)decrease
    A) increase
  188. using a 4-pole technique to electronically control the therapy site is called?
    A) vectoring
    B)frequency modulation
    A) vectoring
  189. the frequency to be used in Russian stimulation is 2500Hz?
    A) True
    B)False
    A)true
  190. The treatment schedule for muscle strengthening should be?
    A) 10 second contraction followed by 50seconds rest
    7-10reps.
    B) 20 second contraction followed by 20sencond rest
    20-30 reps.
    C) 30 second contraction followed by 2 minutes rest
    3-4 reps.
    D) 10 second contraction followed by 5 second rest
    2-3 reps
    A) 10 second contraction followed by 50seconds rest 7-10reps.
  191. if your supervising chiropractor appears red-eyed,wobbly and smells of alcohol while treating patients, you should:
    A) advise him/her to sober up
    B)immediately call the board and report the incident
    C) buy him/her breath mints
    D) none of the above
    B)immediately call the board and report the incident
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  192. A patient presents with acute strain of the lumbar spine. The best therapy is_____________?
    A) high volt
    B) inferential
    C)ultrasound
    D) laser
    A) high volt
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  193. You may use low level laser therapy on a patient____.
    A) if you are certified in laser
    B) if directed by your supervising chiropractor
    C) never
    D)Whenever requested in writing by the patient
    C) never
  194. The maximum amount of weight that may be used in traction is________pounds?
    A)30
    B) 20
    C) 15
    D) 5
    A)30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  195. The board of examiners has no jurisdiction over massage therapist.

    A) TRUE
    B) FALSE
    B)FALSE
  196. The board of examiners also regulated licensed physical therapist.

    A) TRUE
    B)FALSE
    B)FALSE
  197. A CA is permitted to:

    A) develop x-ray film
    B) adjust patients on the x-rays platform or table
    C) read the x-ray
    D) all of the above
    A) develop x-ray film
  198. CA's may perform massage on a patient:

    A) never
    B) only if they are licensed as a licensed massage therapist
    C) only if directed by the supervising chiropractor
    D) none of the above
    B) only if they are licensed as a licensed massage therapist
  199. A CA may sign patient treatment records on behalf of a chiropractor when directed to do so by the doctor.

    A) TRUE
    B) FALSE
    B) FALSE
  200. A supervising Chiropractor must be present in the building at all times and in the treatment area when a CA is working with patients.

    A) TRUE
    B) FALSE
    A) TRUE
  201. It the supervising chiropractor has not yet arrived and patient is scheduled for treatment, the CA should ;

    A) start the scheduled treatment
    B) do nothing until the supervising chiropractor arrives
    C) only conduct treatment using hot or cold packs
    D) a and c
    B) do nothing until the supervising chiropractor arrives.
  202. A CA may assist in low level laser therapy:

    A) never
    B) when the laser is a class IV, non penetrating device
    C) when the supervising chiroprators is providing direct supervision.
    D) a and c
    A) never
  203. Your supervising Chiropractor has just directed you to perform a task that is clearly in violation of the board regulations; you should

    A) perform the task as directed
    B) perform the task as directed if refusal will cause you to be fired
    C) refuse and advise the doctor that you cannot perform the task under law and regulations & report it to the board if the doctor persists in ordering you to do it
    D) none of the above
    C) refuse and advise the doctor that you cannot perform the task under law and regulations & report it to the board if the doctor persists in ordering you to do it
  204. A CA applicant must be at least 18 years old and a high school graduate.

    A) TRUE
    B) FALSE
    A) TRUE
  205. To qualify as registered CA, you must complete a total of______ hours of in servise, on the job training of which the first________ hours must be spent observing procedures.

    A) 100 & 50
    B) 200 & 60
    C) 650 & 70
    D) 520 & 40
    D) 520 & 40
  206. CA's must renew their registrations every________ years.

    A) 5
    B) 2
    C) 3
    D)10
    B) 2
  207. CA's must have at least______ hours of continuing education to qualify for renewing their registrations.

    A) 5
    B) 10
    C) 15
    D) 20
    B) 10
  208. CA's may take which of the pre approved of the following continuing education courses?

    A) only courses approved by the board of chiropractors examiners
    B) only courses approved by a chiropractic college
    C) only courses approved by the MD chiropractic association
    D) only courses approved by a former instuctor
    A) only courses approved by the board of chiropractors examiners
  209. A CA may take the height and weight of a patient without the direct supervision of a Supervising Chiropractor.

    A) TRUE
    B) FALSE
    A) TRUE
  210. Demonstrating exercise to patients requires__________ of a supervising chiropractor;

    A) direct supervision
    B) indirect supervision
    C) no supervision
    D) moderate supervision
    A) direct supervision
  211. Hot and cold packs may only be applied under direct supervision.

    A) TRUE
    B) FALSE
    A) TRUE
  212. A CA registration document must be:

    A) encased in clear plastic
    B) copied and the copy posted on the wall where the CA practices
    C) Conspicuously posted on the wall where the CA practices
    D) framed in black plastic or wood
    C) Conspicuously posted on the wall where the CA practices
  213. A person may practice as a CA without a registration.

    A) only if directed by a supervising chiropractor
    B) only if the person holds another license as a nurse or therapist
    C) never
    D) only if a waiver fee has been paid to the board of examiners
    C) never
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  214. A CA may diagnose patient symptoms:

    A) when directed to do so by the doctor
    B) after 5 years in practice as a CA
    C) never
    D) only on thursday
    C) never
  215. A CA must maintain a current mailing address or be subject to a ________________--.

    A) $1500 penalty
    B) automatic suspension of registration
    C) immediate arrest and imprisonment
    D) $200 penalty
    D) $200 penalty
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  216. A CA applicant must take a total of______ hours of jurisprudence.

    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 4
    D)5
    B) 3
  217. A CA applicant must successfully complete all classroom and in-service training and board examination within__________ of application.

    A) 2months
    B) 4months
    C) 1 year
    D) 2 year
    C) 1 year
  218. By regulation, the CPR level required for CA's is:

    A) novice level
    B) provider level
    C) intermediate level
    D) none of the above-CPR is nor required fo CA's
    B) provider level
  219. which of the following would be approved methods for destroying old patient records:

    A) throwing them in the dumpster
    B) shredding them in a mechenical shredder
    C) tearing them in half and putting them in the trash
    D) all of the above
    B) shredding them in a mechenical shredder
  220. You are taking telephone appointments. Ms. Davis calls for an appointments and advises you that she has active AIDS/HIV. YOU should;

    A) advise her to see
    B) advise her that your practice cannot treat her
    C) refer her to a practice that treats active AIDs patients
    D) set the appointment and discreetly notify your doctor of the issue
    D) set the appointment and discreetly notify your doctor of the issue
  221. You receive your CA registration and develop a severe addiction to beer which affects your ability to practice. Which of the following should you do?

    A) voluntarily report the issue to your doctor and the board under its rehabilitation program
    B) try and reduce the volume of alcohol consumed
    C) report the matter to alcoholics anonymous
    D) nothing-it is impossible for beer drinkers to be alcoholics
    A) voluntarily report the issue to your doctor and the board under its rehabilitation program
  222. If a foreign-born patient has very limited ability to speak english and you are takeing their appointment for treatment the best action is:

    A) do not take them as a patient -it is impossible to treat them
    B)Patiently ask them if they have a frined or family member who might help translate for them
    C) Advice them to call a chiroprator who speaks teir language
    D) all of the baove ar good courses of action to take
    B)Patiently ask them if they have a friend or family member who might help translate for them
  223. you see a fellow CA smoking marijuana in his car during his lunch break. When he returns from lunch, he smells of marijuana, his eyes are glassy and he is giddy. your best course of action is:

    A) talk directly to the CA and advise hiim to stop smoking marijuana
    B) give the CA a chance and ignore the situation
    C) Report the matter immediately to your supervising chiropractor
    D) do nothing until you have further evidence of marijuana use
    C) Report the matter immediately to your supervising chiropractor
  224. You work with two othe CA'S jan and joe. A foreign born patient arrives. The patient speaks very poor english and is difficult to undertand. After joe escorts the patients to the treatment room, he starts joking about the patient's accent with jan. You overhear thair laughter and joking. which of the folllowing should u do.

    A) DO NOTHING-the matter is outside the scope of CA practice
    B) dO NOTHING- it is a private joke and no harm is done to the patient
    C) REPORT IT TO THE SUPERVISING CHIROPRACTOR-it is unproffesional behavior
    D) try and join in the joke-it wwill be best the office morale
    C) REPORT IT TO THE SUPERVISING CHIROPRACTOR-it is unproffesional behavior
  225. You work as a CA for Dr. X. He is very friendly with u and often tells sex jokes. the jokes are funny but you feel a little uncomfortable with the jokes. Which of the following best describes the situation:

    A) it may inappropriate behavior
    B) it may unprofessional behavior
    C) it is not inappropriate abd unprofessional-it is only a joke and the doctor has not engaged is any prhysical touching
    D) A AND B
    D) A AND B
  226. There is no fee to take the CA examination.

    A) TRUE
    B) FALSE
    B) FALSE
  227. A supervising chiropractor receives a cerficate from the board attesting to his/her supervising status.

    A) TRUE
    B) FALSE
    A) TRUE
  228. Office wall. Tom has photocopy of his resgistration on the wall. When asked about his original registration, tom tells you to mind your own business. You should;

    A) mind you own business
    B) do nothing-a photocopy of the registratiion is fine
    C) report the matter immediately to the supervising chiropractor
    D) none of the above
    C) report the matter immediately to the supervising chiropractor
  229. CA, amelia has an idea. She advises Dr.Z, that the practice could make good profits by adjunting dogs and cats. What should Dr. Z's response be?

    A) '' good idea-there are substantial profits possible
    B) '' bad idea- chiropractor and CA's may not work on non-humans
    C) good idea- as long as we do not file insurance claims
    D) bad idea- there id no real profit in adjsuting domstic animals
    B) '' bad idea- chiropractor and CA's may not work on non-humans
  230. CA, Ben helps patient, freda onto the x-rays table. Ben then gently positions freda so that the supervising chiropractor can take an accurate x-ray of freda's lower back.

    A) ben has acted properly within the scope of CA practice
    B) Ben has acted improperly outside the scope of CA practice
    B) Ben has acted improperly outside the scope of CA practice
  231. CA, sally arrives at the office at 8;30 am new patients start arriving at 9;00 am . Her supervising chiropractor calls and advises that she will be 1 hour late because of heavy traffic on the beltway. Which of the following is true?

    A) SALLY may sign patients in
    B) Sally may take basic vitals such as height and weight
    C) A and/or B
    D) none of the above
    A and/or B
  232. Taking height and weight of a patient can only be done under the direct supervision of the supervising chitopractor.

    A) TRUE
    B)FALSE
    B)FALSE
  233. Patient gait practice and ambulation can only be done under the direct supervision of the supervising chiropractor.

    A) TRUE
    B) FALSE
    A) TRUE
  234. Assisting in the dressing and undressing of patients can only be done under direct supervision of the supervising chiropractor.

    A) TRUE
    B) FALSE
    B) FALSE
  235. Demonstration of follow-up exercise may never be conducted by a registered CA.

    A) TRUE
    B) FALSE
    B) FALSE
  236. Your supervising chiropractor tells you to verbally pass his diagnosis to the patient at the conclusion of the treatment you:

    A) may do as directed
    B) may do it only if the doctor directs it in writing
    C) may not pass a diagnosis to a patient in any manner
    D) may only pass your personal, written diagnosis to the patient
    C) may not pass a diagnosis to a patient in any manner
  237. The board investigator subpoenas your office appointment calendar. under the regualtions, the calendar___ considered an official office record.

    A) is
    B) IS NOT
    A) IS
  238. Patient billing records___ have to be released to the board on request.

    A) do
    B) do not
    A) do

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