Ethics, Business & Mortuary Law

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Jeka07
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145970
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Ethics, Business & Mortuary Law
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2012-06-02 23:43:31
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Ethics Law
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  1. which of the following would be a part of a funeral director's individual/personal ethics
    professionalism
  2. which of the following is a rule of ethical conduct that is found in most major religons?
    the Golden Rule
  3. which of the following is considered unethical publicity for a funeral director?
    misrepresentation in warranties
  4. declaration or public statement of professional standards of right & wrong conduct defines an
    code of ethics
  5. the ethical funeral director should NOT
    advise each family what casket they should select
  6. with respect to the funeral industry, private & govermental agencies are examples of
    allied services
  7. which of the following is desirable characteristic of an ethical funeral director?
    compassionate
  8. with respect to the pre-need funeral arrangements, all of the following records should be kept on file at the funeral home except?
    preferences of family members who have not signed the contract
  9. with personal effects of deceased in his custody, the ethical funeral director should not
    place them in a bag & leave them in the prep room
  10. law is defined as
    rules that govern society
  11. in regard to an ethical funeral directors relationship with his competitors, which of the following is considered a proper goal
    cooperation
  12. the set of values, ideas & opinions of an individual or group is known as
    philosophy
  13. when a funeral director makes funeral arrangements with a family, he should
    be factual & knowledgeable
  14. with respect to ethics, the term citizenship refers to
    the behavior or character of an individual viewed as a member of society
  15. which of the following is an ethical obligation that a funeral director owes to his professional association
    participate in continuing education
  16. which of the following is an allied professional or service that the ethical funeral director is professionally concerned with
    organ donation
  17. in regard to employer-employee relationships, the ethical funeral director should
    provide thorough training
  18. which of the following consists of the rules, ideas, and the beliefs shared by members of society for living & dying, which are learned directly or indirectly
    culture
  19. a philosophy that does not focus on the worship of a god or gods is considered to be
    non-theistic
  20. the branch of philosophy dealing with values relating to human conduct, with respect to the rightness & wrongness of certain actions & to the goodness & badness of the movtives & ends of such action is
    ethics
  21. in choosing your source supply of caskets, the most important qualification of the manufacturer is
    a policy of standing behind their product
  22. principles of morality, including both the science of good & the nature of right is
    ethics
  23. in regard to professional boards, the ethical funeral director should not
    only abide by the rules that he agrees with
  24. which of the following is not considered ethical in regard to the deceased body
    allowing a personal friend to watch the embalming procedure
  25. the cultural heritage or identity of a group, based on factors such as language or country of origin is known as
    ethnicity
  26. what is good & moral in in business transactions is the definition of
    business ethics
  27. a stage of moral development in which the expectations of the social group (family, community, & nation) are supported & maintained is known as the
    conventional stage
  28. in reference to ethics, advice given to someone else to help them with a problem is termed
    counseling
  29. which of the following should not be discussed in the funeral arrangements conference
    educational programs
  30. if a funeral director receives the remains from another funeral home & the conditions are below standard, he should
    attempt to make the remains presentable before viewing
  31. when making pre-need arrangements, a good ethical practice is to
    secure all funeral home records in a safe place
  32. fidelity to moral principles is the definition of
    intergrity
  33. a term that is synonymous with ethical, and that refers to the customs, values & standards of practice of a group, age, or theory intended to be timeless is
    moral
  34. a philosophy that focuses on the worship of a god or gods is called
    a theistic philosophy
  35. when with a family during an arrangment conference, it is good ethical practice to
    provide the family with documentation of all business transactions
  36. in regards to competitive relationships, which of the following is not a good ethical practice
    defamation of competitor
  37. which of the following is not a good example of ethical employer-employee relationships
    favoritism
  38. according to Kohlberg, stage of moral development in which the individual considers universal moral principles which supersede the authority of the group is called
    post-conventional stage
  39. Kohlberg's stage of moral development in which moral reasoning is based on reward & punishment from those authority is the
    pre-conventional stage
  40. Kohlberg's stage of moral devlopment in which the individual is characterized as not understanding the rules or feeling a sense of obligation to them is the
    pre-moral stage
  41. a culturally entrenched pattern of behavior made up for sacred beliefs, emotional feelings accompanying the beliefs, and overt conduct, presumably implementing the beliefs & feelings is known as
    religon
  42. moral principles that vary with circumstances are referred to as
    situational ethics
  43. which of the following is not good ethical behavior in regard to treatment of the deceased
    necromania
  44. which of the following is not an allied profession or service to the funeral industry
    banking professional
  45. which of the following denotes good professional ethics in community relationships
    speaking to a local church group
  46. which of the following is not a good personal ethical trait
    infidelit
  47. beliefs that are held in high esteem are
    valuees
  48. which of the following is a consideration in the funeral director's community relationships
    the funeral directors relationship with the clergy
  49. which of the following terms means related, as in related professions
    allied
  50. a system or code of morals of a particular philosopher, religion, group or profession is called
    code of ethics
  51. maintaining discreet client relationships would fulfull what ethical practice
    confidental responsibility
  52. all of the following statements are true of ethics EXCEPT
    that ethics are imposed externally
  53. all of the following are true of laws EXCEPT
    they are imposed internally
  54. an ethical funeral director is expected to be knowledgable & give factual representation of all of the following EXCEPT
    all known religious practices
  55. which of the following terms is defined as having a sense of honor, and fair dealing?
    honesty
  56. a reason or desire that acts as a catalyst to spur one to a specific action is called
    a motive
  57. which of the following is an example of unethical publicity
    fraudulent promotion
  58. which of the following is a reason to have continued education in funeral service
    good for self improvement
  59. which of the following would be an ethical obligation to your professional association
    to share time & talents
  60. all of the following would be considered part of a funeral directors individual/personal ethics EXCEPT
    his or her relationship to allied professions
  61. the ethical funeral director should
    provide professional service to all who apply
  62. all of the following ethical standards apply to the deceased while under care of the funeral home or embalming service EXCEPT
    embalming should be completed as quickly as possible without regard to proper case analysis
  63. all of the following would be considered an allied service EXCEPT
    the public agency
  64. when dealing responsibly with the media, an ethical funeral director should
    be discrete in the info he/she releases
  65. all of the following would be considered components of an ethical funeral directors employer-employee relationship EXCEPT
    the employees religious background
  66. which of the following is a good ethical behavior in regard to treatment of the deceased
    cleanliness to the prep room
  67. which of the following is an ethical consideration in regard to the care of the deceased body
    entrusted care by the family
  68. all of the following would be considered fiducary components of prefunded funeral arrangements EXCEPT
    maintaing the privacy & security of the arrangments
  69. in regard to employer-employee relationships, the ethical funeral director should
    provide enviormentally safe working conditions
  70. which of the following would be the best example of ethnicity
    jewish
  71. with regards to colleagues, an ethical funeral director should be willing to do all of the following EXCEPT
    share profits with less fortunate funeral directors
  72. in maintaing high standard of conduct with a competitor, the funeral director would be wise to
    respect the bereaved familys choice of a funeral establishment
  73. in recongnizing ethical standard in his professional responsibility to the press, the funeral director
    must excercise discreation in releasing confidental info
  74. which of the folloiwng is considered to be a component of a funeral directors individual relationship
    his/her relationship with family
  75. if a person complies with the laws of his/her community soley because of fear of going to prison, which stage of Kohlbergs moral development are they complying with
    the pre-conventional stage
  76. the state attorney general of a given state requires $10 fee for each pre need contract written, this would be an example of
    a law
  77. all of the following examples of Kohlbergs stages of moral development EXCEPT
    the moral stage
  78. if a person considers universal moral principle to supersede the authority of the group, he/she is complying with which of Kohlbergs stages of moral development
    the post-conventional stage
  79. ethics is probably best defined
    as the discipline dealing with moral duty & obligation
  80. in his ethical obligations to various professional associations, the funeral director should
    urge professional solidarity
  81. when a funeral director has a dead human body in his care, he is properly termed a
    custodian
  82. when a funeral director has the personal effects of a dead human body in his possesion, his is properly termed a
    bailee
  83. a person appointed by the court to oversee the estate of an instate is called
    administrator
  84. a personal representative of the decedent appointed in the will to carry out the provisions of the will is called
    excecutor
  85. the right to sue the federal gov. is derived from
    the federal claims act
  86. a written disposition of property, real or personal, to take effect after death of an individual is called
    will
  87. when a person dies without a will he is said to die
    intestate
  88. a person who dies leaving a valid will is called a
    testator
  89. an addition or modification of a will is known as
    codicil
  90. the filing & proving of the will following death is called
    probate
  91. a contract that is of no legal effect is
    void
  92. a contract that may be set aside by at least one of the parties is
    voidable
  93. a contract which is enforcable by the court is
    valid
  94. you recieve an offer in the mail containing no stipulations as to the acceptance, and you decide to return your acceptance by mail. the agreement is complete when the acceptance is
    placed in mail by the offeree
  95. one who induces another to enter into a contract as a result of an intentionally or recklessly false statement of material fact is guilty of
    fraud
  96. a private or civil wrong, either intentional or caused by negligence, for which there may be action for damages is
    tort
  97. a term involving a relation of trust of confidence is
    bailment
  98. a breach of the duty of care one individual has toward another is called
    negligence
  99. the max amount of interest that may be charged is called
    contract rate
  100. any rate of interest above the max rate allowable by law is said to be
    usurious
  101. a contract in which the terms have not been fully perormed by all the parties is said to be
    executory
  102. a contract in which undue influence was proven is considered
    voidable
  103. the laws of city councils are called
    ordinances
  104. the power or authority which each court has to hear cases is called its
    jurisdicition
  105. in order to be enforcable, a valid contract must meet which of the following requirements
    • 1. mutual agreement
    • 2. competent parties
    • 3. supported by considerations
    • 4. lawful purposes
  106. a contract under seal is called
    formal
  107. mutual mistakes as to the existence of the subject matter renders a contract
    void
  108. the election to void a contract is called
    disaffirmance
  109. a restatement of one's willingness to be bound by his promises made during minority is called
    ratification
  110. a contract made by a legally declared insane person is
    void
  111. a contract made by a person who is intoxicated, but aware of the consequences of his/her actions is
    valid
  112. whatever the promiser demands & receives as the price for his promise is called
    consideration
  113. when one promises to refrain from doing something, his conduct is known as
    forbearance
  114. the statue listing certain classes of contracts which must be in writing to be enforcable is called the
    statute of frauds
  115. the means whereby one party conveys his rights in a contract to another who is not a party to the original contract is called
    assignment
  116. the substitution of a new party for the original party who is to perform is called
    novation
  117. when one party to a contract breaches it, the other party has the right to sue for breach of contract, but he must exercise this right within the time fixed by a statute which is called
    statute of limitations
  118. customs which have come to be reconginzed by the courts as laws decribes
    common law
  119. a contract made by an insane person who has not been declared so judically is
    voidable
  120. the damages awarded an injured party in a contract in which the injured party is entitled to compensation for the exact amount of the loss are called
    compnsatory damages
  121. written instruments drawn in a special form, which can be transferred from person to person as a subsitute for money or as insturments of credit, are called
    negotiable instruments
  122. an unconditional written promise made by one person to another, signed by the maker, engaging to pay on demand or at a fixed future time, a sum certain in money to order or to bearer is a
    promissory note
  123. a draft drawn on a bank & payable on demand is a
    check
  124. the contract between a principal & a agent creates a relationship called
    agency
  125. an association of individuals united for a common purpose & permitted by law to use a common name & to change its members without dissolution of the association is an
    corporation
  126. a corporation has a distinct existence seperate & apart from the existence of its individual members which is known as
    entity
  127. the owners of a corporation are known as
    stockholders
  128. the right to declare dividends depends upon the discretion of the
    board of directors
  129. the profits of a corporation belong to the corporation until set aside by the directors for distribution as
    dividends
  130. all physical items that are not real property are classified as
    personal property
  131. anything that may be owned, possessed, used or disposed of for a price is called
    property
  132. land, timber, minerals, buildings, and other manmade property permanently attached to land are called
    real property
  133. property rights consisting merely of evidences of ownership of property, such as copyrights, checks, notes & stocks are
    intangible personal property
  134. personal property which can be seen and touched is
    tangible property
  135. the law whose purpose is to compenstate the aggrieved, not to punish the wrongdoer is
    tort law
  136. when the duty of care that a motorist owes other motorist & pedestrians is breached & results in injury or damage to another, that motorist has commited a
    tort
  137. the extinction or withdrawl of a legacy by an act equivalent to revocation is called
    ademption
  138. a will written entirely by the testator with his own hand is properly termed a
    holographic will
  139. a proportional reduction of a legacy when the funds or assets out of which such legacy are payable are non sufficent to pay it in full is
    abatement
  140. the condition of an estate of a deceased person which is unable to pay the debts of the decedent and the estate is referred to as being
    insolvent estate
  141. of the following, under normal circumstances, the ones having the primary right to control final dispostion of a deceased person is
    child of legal age
  142. when a dead human body is in the mortuary, the funeral home is said to have
    actual custody
  143. perjury is
    false testimony
  144. a docment which defines the relationship of the gov. itself and of the citizens is
    consititution
  145. in the field of business law, the most important statute is
    the Uniform Commercial Code
  146. a permanent order, issued by a court, forbidding activities, which would be detrmental to other is
    an injunction
  147. to read the charge of an indictment is
    to arraign
  148. defamation of character by spoken words or gestures is
    slander
  149. laws enacted by legislative bodies ar
    statutes
  150. in the state court, the chief officer is
    the judge
  151. a temporary order forbidding a certain action is
    a restraining order
  152. the court having sole jurisdiction over estates is
    the probate court
  153. common law is based on
    customs
  154. parol evidence is
    spoken words
  155. a formal written command issued by a court of law
    a writ
  156. the failure to volunteer or reveal info not requested is termed
    concealment
  157. which of the following is not a type of inferior state court
    juvenile court
  158. laws passed by local gov. are
    ordinances
  159. the doctrine of stare decisis is concerned with
    case law
  160. a court of original general jurisdiction is
    a trial court
  161. the law of the land in the US is the
    U.S Consitution
  162. what is right & just refers to
    equity
  163. the party to institutes a court action is the
    plaintiff
  164. the highest court of the land in the US is the
    U.S Supreme court
  165. the highest court of a state is the
    state supreme court
  166. a process may be reerred to as
    a summons
  167. the decision of a jury is the
    verdict
  168. a federal court of appeals is
    an appellate court
  169. common law developed in
    England
  170. rules of civil conduct commanding what is right & prohibiting what is wrong defines
    law
  171. law which is concerened primarily with those rules of conduct involving financial transactions between individuals or legal entities is
    business law
  172. orders & decrees from gov. agencies which have the force of law is considered
    administrative law
  173. a contract made by a person who is so intoxicated as to be unaware of the consequences is
    voidable
  174. a news paper advertisment can be an offer if it shows
    intent
  175. an expressed willingness from a person to enter into a contractual agreement is
    an offer
  176. which of the following is a mistake tha does NOT render an agreement defective
    terms of the contract
  177. to cancel or annul or avoid a contract is to
    rescind
  178. a person below the adult age is
    a minor
  179. laws that are designed to protect or prevent any individual from controlling a large share of a market or products are
    antitrust laws
  180. a contract made with which of these people would be considered void
    judically declared insane person
  181. a change in parties with the formation of a new contract is
    novation
  182. the violation of the terms of a contract is referred to as
    breach of contract
  183. a term for blood kin is
    consanguinity
  184. the right a minor has to avoid a contract is termed
    disaffirmance
  185. generally, a minor is fully liable for his/her
    torts
  186. which of the following is not a necessary
    movie ticket
  187. the Statute of Frauds states that for contracts classified under this statute to be enforceable they must be
    written contracts
  188. a term which means the transfer of ones duty alone without transfer of rights is
    delegation
  189. usury is a term which refers to
    excess interest
  190. a breach of contractual obligation other than money is
    default
  191. a term which means a fact that could alter ones decision to enter into a legal biding contract is
    a material fact
  192. contracts in which fraud is proven are considered
    voidable
  193. price fixing agreements are
    illegal
  194. oral contracts are
    spoken
  195. an offer is rejected by
    a counteroffer
  196. the party who makes the offer is the
    offeror
  197. which of these is a necessary
    medical bill
  198. a contract whose terms have been fully carried out is
    executed
  199. a contract must always be
    an agreement
  200. a contract which is based upon acts being done in consideration for a promise is called a
    unilateral contract
  201. a contract in which the duties & obligations assumed by the parties are not verbalized but indicated by their actions is known as
    an implied contract
  202. a contract in which the parties make known their intentions by words is
    an express contract
  203. a contract whic is written so that either party may consider it as a joint obligation or a group of individual obligations is
    a joint & several contract
  204. caveat emptor means
    let the buyer beware
  205. when a buyer takes actual possesion of goods which have been offered for sale, this action is called
    an acceptance
  206. goods which are owned by the seller & are physically in existence at the time of the contract are known as
    exsisting goods
  207. when the buyer makes a selection of goods which are to be purchased from the seller, the goods are classified as
    identifiable goods
  208. goods of homogenous nature which are sold by weight or measure are known as
    fungible goods
  209. bailment in which the bailee does not recieve any compensation is
    gratutious bailment
  210. resonable care, under the circumstances, is a required standard in ordinary bailments by the
    bailee
  211. a carrier owned by a shipper for the purpose of shipping its own goods is
    a private carrier
  212. a document of title which sets forth the contract between the shipper & the carrier is the
    billing of lading
  213. the deposit of tangible personal property as security for some debt or obligation is
    a pawn
  214. in a bailment, the person who retains title but gives up possessions of the goods is the
    bailor
  215. in an auction, goods which are offered for sale that cannot be withdrawn are classified as
    goods offered without reserve
  216. a carrier that transports goods or persons for all who apply for the services & without discrimination is called a
    common carrier
  217. indorsements of commercial paper inculude which of the following
    • 1. blank indorsement
    • 2. qualified indorsement
    • 3. restrictive indorsement
  218. the person who signs a promissory note & is obligated to pay at maturity is called the
    maker of the note
  219. a sealed written contract usually issued a corportation, a municipality, or a gov. which contains a promises to pay a sum certain in money at a fixed or determinable future time is
    a bond
  220. a check that a bank draws on its own funds & is signed by a responsible bank official but may be used by anyone to pay a debt is
    a cashiers check
  221. an indorsement which limits the liability of the endorser is called a
    qualified indorsement
  222. factors del credere are
    commission merchants
  223. the most common method of creating an agency is by
    appointment
  224. an individual who brings together contracting parties is called a
    broker
  225. the party appointed by another to act in his/her name in forming contracts with a third party is
    an agent
  226. the party who appoints an agent is the
    principal
  227. oen who recieves possesion of another's property for sale on commission is
    a factor
  228. an agent that has been appointed by a sealed written authorization which states that the agent is to act in the prinipals behalf is
    an attorney in fact
  229. a principal owes which of the following duties to the agent?
    compensation
  230. an agent owes which of the following duties to his principal
    loyalty & good faith
  231. an agency is terminated by operation of the law if which of the following conditions occur
    death or incapactity of either principal or agent
  232. ownership of corporate stocks is represented by
    stock certificates
  233. an advantage to a corporation is
    limited liability
  234. a gift of personal property received thru a will is a
    bequest
  235. a nuncupative will is a
    oral will
  236. the right that one person has to use the property of another for special purpose is known as
    an easment
  237. a charge against another property as security for a debt or claim is
    a lien
  238. the power of goverment to tae private property against the objection of the owner for a public purpose is
    eminent domain
  239. a lien or mortgage against real property is
    an encumbrance
  240. which of the following is classified as a movable personal property
    furniture
  241. the person who receives the proceeds from an insurance policy is called the
    beneficiary
  242. a written insurance contract is
    a policy
  243. a reducing term insurance policy plus savings account is called
    an endownment policy
  244. a life insurance policy in which premium payments continue to death or until age 100, which ever occurs first is
    a whole-life policy
  245. another term for the insurer is
    underwriter
  246. ther person protected against a loss is the
    policy holder
  247. the consideration of an insurance policy is
    a premium
  248. in regards to the no property theory, the dead body was under the control of
    the church
  249. the power to adopt laws for protection of the public is
    police power
  250. an action to recover possessions of property unlawfully detained is
    replevined
  251. the term synonymous to a dead body is
    corpose
  252. the major source of mortuary science law is
    common law
  253. a dead human body used for anatomical study is
    a cadaver
  254. the most positive sign of death is
    decomp
  255. the legal status of a dead human body known as the property theory is
    never used in this country
  256. quasi-property means
    almost property
  257. the law states that every person has a right to a
    decent burial
  258. embalming is a form of
    mutliation
  259. a trade embalmer acts as
    an independent contractor
  260. another term for autopsy is
    necropsy
  261. exhumation is a term for
    disinterment
  262. a funeral homes family car is considered a
    private carrier
  263. a probate court is concerned with
    wills
  264. a dead human body is said to be
    quasi-property
  265. a dead human body
    is not property in a real sense
  266. as a rule, the right of decent disposal belongs to the
    surviving spouse
  267. with regards to a dead human body, the courts have adopted a
    quasi-property theory
  268. a surviving spouse may avoid being written out of a will by invoking
    the inheritance statute
  269. the method of dividing an intestate estate where a class or group of distributees take the share which their deceased should have been entitled to & not as so many individuals is distribution of
    per stirpes
  270. a person receiving a gift of real estate in a will is a
    devisee
  271. which of the following is not considered to be consanguineous
    the wife
  272. the person who is the beneficiary of personal property by a will is the
    legatee
  273. an oral will stated to a witness is a
    nuncupative will
  274. a contact is legally enforacble agreement between
    twoo or more legally competent persons
  275. another name for a prosecutor is
    district attorney
  276. the requirement for a valid offer includes which of the following
    • 1. it must appear seriously intended
    • 2. it must be communicated to the offeree
  277. the two essential elements of a contract are
    • 1. there must be an offer
    • 2. there must be acceptance
  278. duress is classified according to the nature of the threat as
    • 1. physical duress
    • 2. emotional duress
    • 3. economic distress
  279. parties who acquire rights superior to those of the original owner is known as
    holder in due course
  280. a foreign corporation is one that is charted in
    another state
  281. for certain contracts to be enforcable they must be in writing according to the statute of frauds, they include
    • 1. contracts for sales of $500 or more
    • 2. contracts that cant be completed in one year
  282. a sale is different from a contract to sell in that in a sale
    the title & the item are transferred upon completion of the transaction
  283. accord & satisifaction is an agreement made & executed in satisfaction of the rights one has
    from a previous contract
  284. a crime usually punishable by death or incarceration in a penitentiary for more than one year is a
    felony
  285. damages in excess of those required to compensate the plantiff for wrong done are
    punitive
  286. courts that handle divorce & child custody cases are known as
    domestic relations court
  287. a punishable offense against society is defined as a
    crime
  288. for the average citizen, the most important courts of the state court system are the
    courts of original general jurisdiction
  289. a contract in which two or more people individually agree to perform the same obligation is called
    several contract
  290. the power or authority which each court has to hear cases is called
    jurisdiction
  291. a contract in which two or more persons are bound both jointly & individually is known as a
    joint & several contract
  292. a partner who takes no active part in the management of the business, but who possibly, may be known as a partner is a
    silent partner
  293. courts concerned with delinquent, dependent & neglected children are called
    juvenile courts
  294. a life insurance policy which continues until the death of the insured is
    whole life
  295. courts that have exclusive jurisdiction of bankrupcty matters, claims against the US, & patent & copyright cases are defined as
    special federal courts
  296. a partnership engaged in the buying & selling of merchandise is an
    trading partnership
  297. failure to excercise resonable care toward another party is known as
    negligence
  298. an action to recover possesion of property unlawfully detained is termed
    replevin
  299. the failure to perform with ability & care normally excercised by people in the profession is known as
    malpractice
  300. laws designed to prevent one individual or group from controlling too large a share in the market for a product are called
    antitrust laws
  301. corporations formed by individuals to perform some non govermental function are called
    private corporations
  302. the recorder in state & federal courts is the
    clerk
  303. a partnership in which one partners liability is limited to a capital contribution only is a
    limited partnership
  304. persons who sign a promissory note & obiligate themselves to pay at maturity are called the
    makers
  305. a contract in which undue influence was proven is considered
    voidable
  306. with respect to the funeral industry, private & governmental agencies are examples of
    allied services

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