OH DIP

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Author:
anna1983
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147214
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OH DIP
Updated:
2012-04-20 05:55:28
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OH
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Occupational health MCQs
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  1. With regard to tumours of occupational origin the following are correct:
    (a) probably account for around 3%of all tumours?
    true
  2. With regard to tumours of occupational origin the following are correct:
    (b) Usually have a short latent period?
    false. There is usually a long latent period between time of first exposure and appearance of the tumour.
  3. With regard to tumours of occupational origin the following are correct:
    (c) Deaths as a result may occur at a younger age?
    • True.
    • Due to the appearance of tumours at an earlier age than would be normally expected. However some tumours of occupational origin may have a very long latent period e.g. asbestos related tumours and in these cases death may be after retirement age.
  4. With regard to tumours of occupational origin the following are correct:
    (d) may occur in clusters?
    • true.
    • May get an unusually large incidence of a tumour in a particular location related to an exposure in that area.
  5. With regard to tumours of occupational origin the following are correct:
    (e) In the aetiology, repeated continuous exposure to a carcinogenic agent is crucial?
    false. The exposure does not need to be continuous.
  6. In occupational cancer:
    (a) carcinogenesis is a single step process?
    • False.
    • It is multi-step.Classically it is initiation, promotion and progression.
  7. In occupational cancer:
    (b) Specific genes may be involved in the development of the condition?
    • true.
    • - oncogenes
  8. In occupational cancer:

    (c) Organotrophy is the term used to describe carcinogenic genetic mutation?
    • False.
    • Organotrophy is the term used to describe the induction of tumours at specific sites by chemical carcinogens.
  9. In occupational cancer:
    (d) Metal salts account for most occupationally linked cancers?
    • False.
    • Chemicals are the group most associated.
  10. In occupational cancer:
    (e) The Ames test is an in-vitro test of mutagenicity?
    • True.
    • It is used to evaluate the carcinogenic potential of chemicals by looking for a mutagenic effect in bacteria.
  11. Cancer of the skin is associated with ?
    pitch, cutting oils and UV light.

    sunlight is important to those who work regularly outdoors e.g. roadworkers or farmers, also ionizing radiation.
  12. Carcinoma of the bladder is associated with ?
    • aromatic amines
    • eg. benzidine and MOCA, chemical, dyestuff, rubber cable industries.
  13. Tumours of the liver are associated with?
    • vinyl chloride monomer
    • - causes angiosarcoma
  14. bronchial carcinoma is associated with?
    uranium, nickel carbonyl, chromates and asbestos.

    -also arsenic trioxide and arsenites found in smelting and pesticides.
  15. Nasal cancer is associated with?
    leather workers, hardwoods and nickel

    - nasal cancer is a rare adenocarcinoma, the very fine dust produced by power tools on hardwoods is particularly carcinogenic.
  16. Occupations recognized as having a carcinogenic risk?
    (a) road work?
    • true.
    • skin cancer due to UV light exposure, also seamen and farmers.
  17. Occupations recognized as having a carcinogenic risk?
    (b) shipbuilding?
    • true
    • as complications of exposure to asbestos- lung cancer and mesothelioma.
  18. Occupations recognized as having a carcinogenic risk?
    (c) hairdressing?
    false
  19. Occupations recognized as having a carcinogenic risk?
    (d) cabinet making?
    • true
    • cancer of the nasal sinuses due to wood dust.
  20. Occupations recognized as having a carcinogenic risk?
    (e) drug manufacture?
    • true
    • pharmaceutical manufacture of cytotoxic drugs potentially causing bone marrow tumours.
  21. With regard to the relationship between occupation and leukaemia the following are correct:
    (a) associated primarily with radium salts?
    • false.
    • Radium salts are most associated with osteosarcoma in workers using luminous paints.
  22. With regard to the relationship between occupation and leukaemia the following are correct:
    (b) found in some cases of benzene exposure?
    • true.
    • frequently as the end point of aplastic anaemia. Myeloid type is commonest.
  23. With regard to the relationship between occupation and leukaemia the following are correct:
    (c) associated with the asbestos industry?
    false
  24. With regard to the relationship between occupation and leukaemia the following are correct:
    (d) linked with ionising radiation exposure?
    • true.
    • dose related relationship
  25. With regard to the relationship between occupation and leukaemia the following are correct:
    (e) the rubber industry has been implicated?
    • true
    • Acute lymphoid leukaemia. Aetiology unknown.
  26. With regard to mesothelioma the following are true:
    (a) It is a secondary tumour of peritoneum and pleura?
    • false.
    • It is a primary tumour
  27. With regard to mesothelioma the following are true:
    (b) most cases in the uk are related to asbestos exposure?
    true
  28. With regard to mesothelioma the following are true:
    (c) was formerly a prescribed industrial disease?
    • false.
    • It still is.
  29. With regard to mesothelioma the following are true:
    (d) smoking produces a higher incidence?
    • false
    • Smoking does not appear to be a contributory factor, it seems to increase the chance of those exposed to asbestos developing lung cancer.
  30. With regard to mesothelioma the following are true:
    (e) Has a latent period of fifteen to twenty five years?
    • false
    • latent period is usually forty or more years.
  31. Ergonomics:
    (a) aims to optimize working conditions for its human operators.
    • true
    • fitting the task to the person
  32. Ergonomics:
    (b) makes use of anthropometrics?
    • True
    • This is the use of measurements relating to height, shoulder width, reach, arm span etc and body movements.
  33. Ergonomics:
    (c) Tries to fit the person to the task
    • false
    • the task to the person
  34. Ergonomics:
    (d) concentrates largely on equipment design?
    • false
    • The environment, the individual, and the work design are also taken into account
  35. Ergonomics:
    (e) Has a role in setting patterns of work?
    true
  36. Musculoskeletal problems at work may be due to:
    (a) Excessive range, frequency and force of movement?
    true
  37. Musculoskeletal problems at work may be due to:
    (b) Abnormal positioning of limbs?
    true
  38. Musculoskeletal problems at work may be due to:
    (c) primarily psychological factors?
    • false.
    • psychological factors (e.g.stress) may have a bearing but not necessarily a primary role
  39. Musculoskeletal problems at work may be due to:
    (d) static loading
    true
  40. Musculoskeletal problems at work may be due to:
    (e) lack of motivation
    • false
    • May contribute to a greater or lesser extent but unlikely to be the sole cause of a musculoskeletal disorder.
  41. Factors contributing to work related upper limb disorders (WRULDs) include:
    (a) poor work design- task factors
    true
  42. Factors contributing to work related upper limb disorders (WRULDs) include:
    (b) environmental factors- such as task lighting and temperature
    true
  43. Factors contributing to work related upper limb disorders (WRULDs) include:
    (c) inadequate protective equipment
    • false
    • only if the PPE contributes to poor work design
  44. Factors contributing to work related upper limb disorders (WRULDs) include:
    (d) sudden or prolonged increases in work rates
    true
  45. Factors contributing to work related upper limb disorders (WRULDs) include:
    (e) inadequate pre-employment assessment?
    • false
    • pre-employment assessment will not identify those likely to suffer from WRULDS except if a past history is elicited.
  46. The following are all clinical entities commonly associated with WRULDs:
    (a) tenosynovitis
    true
  47. The following are all clinical entities commonly associated with WRULDs:
    (b) ganglion
    false
  48. The following are all clinical entities commonly associated with WRULDs:
    (c) carpal tunnel syndrome
    • true
    • - also radial and cubital tunnel syndrome
  49. The following are all clinical entities commonly associated with WRULDs:
    (d) tendonitis crepitans
    • true
    • also tendonitis and de quervains disorder
  50. Features of WRULDs are:
    (a) inflammation of tendon or tendon sheaths?
    • true
    • or trauma of these structures
  51. Features of WRULDs are:
    (b) diagnosis is usually obvious?
    • false
    • - diagnosis is difficult
  52. Features of WRULDs are:
    (c) finger tip ulceration due to ischaemia?
    • false
    • this is a feature of hand arm vibration syndrome
  53. Features of WRULDs are:
    (d) relationship with prolonged static postures?
    • true
    • Also awkward and extremes of postures
  54. Features of WRULDs are:
    (e) dominant hand more often affected?
    true
  55. In the carpal tunnel syndrome:
    (a) hyperaesthesia is restricted to the median nerve distribution?
    true
  56. In the carpal tunnel syndrome:
    (b) wrist extension for one minute causes tingling in the fingers (phalens test)?
    • false
    • phalens test is wrist flexion for one minute producing tingling in the fingers
  57. In the carpal tunnel syndrome:
    (c) there is an association with acromegaly?
    • true
    • also myxoedema and fluid retention in pregnancy
  58. In the carpal tunnel syndrome:
    (d) tinels test may be positive?
    • true
    • - this is tingling in fingers produced by percussion over the carpal tunnel
  59. In the carpal tunnel syndrome:
    (e) Forceful, repetitive movements can cause median nerve neuropathy?
    • true
    • - due to both mechanical and ischaemic mechanisms
  60. In tenosynovitis:
    (a) The principal lesion is inflammation of a tendon?
    • false
    • This is tendonitis. Tenosynovitis involves inflammation of the lining of the tendon sheath.
  61. In tenosynovitis:
    (b) Excessive unaccustomed exercise may be causative?
    • true
    • as well as repetitive microtrauma and strain
  62. In tenosynovitis:
    There are no apparent x-ray changes ?
    • false
    • calcification on the tendon sheath may on occasion be found
  63. In tenosynovitis:
    (d) gentle exercise may give symptomatic relief?
    • false
    • Relief is usually provided by rest or immobilisation of the part
  64. In tenosynovitis:
    (e) Work related cases are bilateral?
    • false
    • Can be either unilateral or bilateral depending on the nature of the work
  65. Salmonella food poisoning?
    • Onset of symptoms between two to seventy two hours. Biggest single cause of food poisoning in uk.
    • Associated with poultry and poultry products.
    • Most common strain is S. typhimurium.
  66. staph aureus food poisoning?
    • Onset of symptoms in two to six hours.
    • Organism is found in skin folds, nasal passages and septic skin lesions. A toxin is produced by the bacterium. Recovery is rapid- within six hours.
  67. Clostridium welchii food poisoning?
    • enterotoxin
    • onset of symptoms within 8-24hrs
    • anaerobic organism
    • found in human and animal excreta as well as on raw meat
    • illness may last one to three days
  68. bacillus cereus food poisoning?
    • toxin, spore producing organism
    • onset of symptoms 1-16 hours
    • associated with fried rice
  69. clostridium botulinum food poisoning?
    • Toxin
    • can be rapidly fatal
    • onset of symptoms between eighteen to thirty six hours
    • rare in uk
    • anaerobic spore producing bacterium which produces a potent toxin
  70. Regarding food hygiene-
    conditions for bacterial growth?
    • - suitable food medium and temperature
    • - adequate moisture and sufficient time
    • - bacteria do not multiply below 15 degrees and above 40 degrees
    • - spores will only be killed at high temperatures such as boiling
  71. Regarding food hygiene-
    Risk factors when controlling contamination?
    • -condition of raw food and hygiene of handlers
    • -cleansiness of kitchens and equipment
    • -conditions for food storage
  72. Regarding food hygiene-
    assessment of food handlers?
    • Exclude infectious diseases.
    • Investigate diarrhoeal illness.
    • disqualify active and persistent infective discharges from ears, nose and eyes.
  73. Regarding food hygiene-
    action following outbreak of food poisoning?
    • notify public health department
    • identify affected persons and source for analysis
    • share info with EHO, local hospitals, labs and GPs
    • non return to work by those infected until shown by stool sampling to be clear of infection
  74. Regarding food hygiene-
    Ideal factory or kitchen environments?
    • clean premises/ machinery with adequate ventilation and waste disposal
    • separate cloakroom facilities
    • maintained refrigerators/chillers for food storage
    • good hygienic systems of work
    • trained and informed staff
  75. With regard to microbiological hazards-
    There are six bacterial diseases in the schedule of prescribed diseases?
    • true
    • anthrax, glanders, leptospirosis, TB, farmers lung, brucella abortus.
  76. With regard to microbiological hazards-
    HIV is a prescribed disease?
    false

    viral hepatitis as a result of an occupation involving contact with human blood products or contact with a source of viral hepatitis is the only viral disease in the list of prescribed diseases.
  77. With regard to microbiological hazards-
    ankylostomiasis is the only helminthic disease in the schedule of prescribed diseases?
    • true
    • rare in uk
    • associated with work in or around mines
  78. With regard to microbiological hazards-
    anyone contracting one of the prescribed microbiological diseases is entitled to compensation?
    • false
    • contraction of the disease must be in the context of satisfying the occupational requirement as laid down in the schedule of prescribed diseases
  79. With regard to microbiological hazards-
    Occupations most at risk include laboratory workers, health care workers and animal handlers?
    true
  80. Lyme disease-
    Was first recognised in australia?
    • false
    • lyme connecticut USA
    • It is an occupational zoonosis i.e. an infectious disease transmitted from animals to man and contracted in the course of employment
  81. Lyme disease-
    Is caused by infectious spores entering the body?
    • false
    • It is caused by bacterium borrelia burgdorferri which is transmitted by the tick ixodes ricinus
  82. Lyme disease-
    is characterised by erythema multiforme?
    • False-
    • it is erythema chronicum migrans - an area of redness spreading out from the bite
  83. Lyme disease-
    Has sheep and cattle as the primary animal reservoir in the uk?
    false- usually associated with deer
  84. Lyme disease-
    May be associated with neurological symptoms following infection?
    • true
    • facial nerve neuritis, myelitis, encephalitis and meningitis can all occur as may a myocarditis, chronic polyarthritis may also be found
  85. The following with regard to leptospirosis are correct-
    when caused by bacterium L. icterohaemorrhagiae is known as weils disease?
    • true
    • it is an occupational zoonosis
  86. The following with regard to leptospirosis are correct-
    primary preventative measure is drainage of wet ground?
    • false-
    • It is the control of rats whose urine contains the bacteria
  87. The following with regard to leptospirosis are correct-
    Is a prescribed industrial disease?
    true
  88. The following with regard to leptospirosis are correct-
    vaccination is available to workers at risk in uk?
    false
  89. The following with regard to leptospirosis are correct-
    Is not a serious illness and symptoms subside quickly?
    • false
    • it is a serious disease with up to 20% cases being fatal.
  90. With regard to hepatitis B (HBV) the following are correct:
    health care workers are particularly at risk?
    true- surgical procedures needlesticks
  91. With regard to hepatitis B (HBV) the following are correct:
    vaccination for HBV is 100% effective?
    • false
    • sero conversion is 80-90%
  92. With regard to hepatitis B (HBV) the following are correct:
    There is a recognized risk of transmission in mouth to mouth resuscitation manoeuvres?
    false
  93. With regard to hepatitis B (HBV) the following are correct:
    No risk of infection following a bite by a known carrier?
    • false
    • Can be transmitted by injury or by being bitten by an infectious patient
  94. In hepatitis B (HBV):
    A major prolongation of prothrombin time is common?
    • false
    • it is uncommon and when present indicates severe illness
  95. In hepatitis B (HBV):
    Incubation period of six to twenty five weeks?
    true
  96. In hepatitis B (HBV):
    Chronicity occurs in over 50% cases?
    • false
    • in 5-10% of cases
  97. In hepatitis B (HBV):
    presence of HbsAg (surface antigen) indicates acute infection?
    • true
    • usually appears during incubationperiod, it is used to diagnose HBV
  98. In hepatitis B (HBV):
    There is no association with hepatocellular carcinoma?
    • false
    • associated with hepatocellular carcinoma, chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis
  99. The following statements relating to hepatitis A (HAV) are correct:
    Incubation period is eight to twelve weeks?
    • false
    • two to six weeks
  100. The following statements relating to hepatitis A (HAV) are correct:
    sewerage workers may be at risk?
    true
  101. The following statements relating to hepatitis A (HAV) are correct:
    a vaccine is not available
    false
  102. The following statements relating to hepatitis A (HAV) are correct:
    most infections are subclinical?
    true

    and thus unrecognized
  103. The following statements relating to hepatitis A (HAV) are correct:
    chronic carrier states are common?
    • false
    • HAV has no known carrier state and plays no role in the production of chronic active hepatitis or cirrhosis.
  104. Features of hepatitis C:

    Common in children and young adults?
    false

    Tends to be associated with post- transfusion hepatitis and contaminated needle sharing in drug users.
  105. Features of hepatitis C:

    Transmitted in blood and blood products?
    true
  106. Features of hepatitis C:

    average incubation of 2 to 4 weeks?
    false

    it is seven to eight weeks
  107. Features of hepatitis C:

    vaccination is available for healthcare workers?
    false

    no vaccine for HCV
  108. In aquired immune deficiency syndrome:

    Risk of infection from needlestick injury is greater than for HBV?
    • false
    • estimated to be less of a risk
  109. In aquired immune deficiency syndrome:
    There is an association with chlaymdiae pneumoniae?
    false

    associated with pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
  110. In aquired immune deficiency syndrome:
    workplace infection risk is low?
    true
  111. Anthrax ( B. anthracis)?
    Handling of wool, hides and carcases of infected animals. Two forms, cutaneous and pulmonary.

    • Rare in uk
    • imported bone/fish meal account for most cases.
  112. Leptospirosis?
    flu like illness with jaundice

    involves contact with urine of rodents, dogs or bovines.

    occupations at risk include: farmers, sewerage workers and watercourse workers.
  113. Brucellosis ( B abortus)?
    contracted from infected bovine carcasses or ingesting raw milk

    rare in uk

    occupational contraction is usually by handling infected animals (placental or fetal tissue particularly)or by inhalation of infected aerosols from such animals.
  114. Hepatitis B?
    from infected blood or blood products
  115. Legionellosis ( L. pneumophilia) ?
    • Occurs in outbreaks
    • associated with cooling towers and air conditioning systems.
  116. Vapours?
    Gaseous form of a substance normally solid or liquid which occurs by the process of evaporation.
  117. fumes?
    solid particles generated by condensation from the gaseous state, generally after volatization from molten metals
  118. mists?
    suspended droplets generated by condensation from gaseous to liquid state or the breaking up of a liquid into a dispersed state.
  119. aerosols?
    liquid droplets or solid particles dispersedin air of a fine enough particle size to remain dispersed for some time.
  120. In toxicology:

    Inhalation is a less imporant route of entry for a toxic substance than percutaneous absorption?
    false

    generally absorption is more effective via the lungs than the gut
  121. In metal toxicology:

    some metals undergo biotransformation?
    false

    no metals are bio- transformed, most are excreted in the urine
  122. In metal toxicology:

    Age is an important factor in metal poisoning?
    true

    in general as age increases the absorption of metals from the gut decreases
  123. In metal toxicology:

    dietary considerations are unimportant?
    false

    constituents of diet may cause interactions e.g. lead absorption varies inversely with calcium and iron in the diet
  124. In metal toxicology:
    important factors relating to toxicity are particle size, solubility and interactions between metals.
    true. particle size is important for lung absorption ie. they must be respirable. Interactions between metals will influence uptake as will solubility.
  125. In toxicology:

    There can be individual susceptibility in reaction to exposure of a toxic substance?
    true
  126. In toxicology:

    Metabolism of a non- toxic substance may provide a toxic metabolite?
    • true
    • The converse is also true.
  127. In toxicology:

    Possible toxic include irritation, asthma and asphyxiation?
    true
  128. In toxicology:

    Latent periods can be associated with most toxic substances?
    false
  129. Biological monitoring:
    Is applicable to substances that act locally?
    • false
    • not usually applicable to locally acting substances or in detecting peak exposures to rapidly acting substances
  130. Biological monitoring:
    can be used to detect peak exposures to rapidly acting substances?
    false
  131. Biological monitoring:
    gives a biological index of an internal dose?
    • true
    • This is likely to be more closely related to a systemic effect than any environmental measurement.
  132. Biological monitoring:
    takes account of all routes of absorption?
    • true
    • and individual variation
  133. Biological monitoring:
    Involves measurement of the agent or its metabolite usually in the blood or urine?
    true
  134. Definition of biological monitoring?
    It is the measurement and assesssment of workplace agents or their metabolites either in tissues, secreta, excreta or any combination of these to evaluate exposure and health risk compared with an appropriate reference standard.
  135. In carbon monoxide poisoning:
    There is cyanotic skin discolouration?
    false

    it is cherry red
  136. In carbon monoxide poisoning:
    Hyperbaric oxygen therapy may be used in the treatment?
    true
  137. In carbon monoxide poisoning:
    Industrial exposure is a common source?
    true
  138. In carbon monoxide poisoning:

    Death usually occurs with 60-80% carboxyhaemoglobin?
    true
  139. In carbon monoxide poisoning:

    Industrial exposure is a common source?
    • true
    • for example exhaust fumes and afterdamp in mines
  140. With regard to lead the following are correct:
    the suspension level for blood in male workers is 70 micrograms/dl (3.5 micromol/l)?
    true
  141. With regard to lead the following are correct:

    suspension is required when blood lead is greater than 30micrograms/dl (1.5micromol/l)in women of child bearing age?
    • false
    • suspension for women of child bearing age: 40micrograms/dl (2.0micromol/l)
    • 70micrograms/dl (3.5 micromol/l) is correct for males
  142. With regard to lead the following are correct:
    lead poisoning is one of the most commonest forms of occupational poisoning in the uk?
    • false
    • this is the case in developing countries however.
  143. With regard to lead the following are correct:

    Inorganic lead is absorbed through the skin?
    false

    organo-leads may be absorbed throught the skin (tetra-ethyl lead)
  144. With regard to lead the following are correct:

    In occupational exposure inhalation is the most common route of entry?
    • true
    • Although ingestion remains important especially if personal hygiene is poor leading to contamination of ingested food
  145. In relation to mercury the following statements are true:

    Poisoning by mercury or a mercury compound is a prescribed disease?
    true
  146. In relation to mercury the following statements are true:

    elemental, alkyl and inorganic forms are the most toxic?
    true
  147. With regard to mercury the following are correct:

    Mercury workers usually have blood mercury levels routinely monitored?
    • false
    • It is the periodic measurement of mercury in the urine.
  148. In relation to mercury the following statments are true:

    principal target organs are the kidney and CNS?
    true

    Inorganic mercury does not cross the blood brain barrier as readily as elemental or alkyl forms.
  149. In relation to mercury the following statements are true:

    Acute poisoning is common from occupational exposure and is usually due to ingestion?
    • false
    • Acute poisoning is not common in an occupational setting. When poisoning does occur it is usually as a result of inhalation of mercury vapours.
  150. With regard to cadmium the following are true:

    Acute effects of cadmium poisoning after inhalation of fumes may show a delay in presentation?
    • true
    • Acute effects due to inhalation of Cd oxide fumes may show a latent period of up to ten hours- chest pain, dysponea and cough
  151. With regard to cadmium the following are true:

    chronic poisoning principally affects the liver?
    • False
    • The kidney- tubular damage
  152. With regard to cadmium the following are true:

    may get discolouration in teeth?
    true
  153. With regard to cadmium the following are true:
    Is linked to a high risk of prostate cancer?
    false
  154. With regard to cadmium the following are true:
    biological monitoring of exposed workers involves both blood and urinary estimations?
    true
  155. The following statements relating to arsenic are correct:
    Occupational exposure is likely to occur in pesticide/herbicide manufacture and smelting?
    true

    also in chemical and pharmaceutical industries
  156. The following statements relating to arsenic are correct:
    Has a very short half life in the blood?
    • false
    • half life in the blood is two to two and a half days, it is rapidly eliminated in the kidney
  157. The following statements relating to arsenic are correct:
    chronic poisoning may cause skin changes?
    • true
    • skin ulceration, hyperkeratosis of the palms and soles. Hyperpigmentation and eczematous dermatitis.Also skin cancer.
  158. The following statements relating to arsenic are correct:
    associated with angiosarcoma of the liver
    • true
    • and lung cancer.
  159. The following statements relating to arsenic are correct:
    The characteristic respiratory tract lesion is cancer of maxillary sinuses.
    false

    it is perforation of cartilaginous nasal septum
  160. With regard to manganese the following are correct:
    Is well absorbed through the intestine and easily crosses the blood brain barrier?
    false

    it is poorly absorbed throught the GIT and crosses blood brain barrier with difficulty.
  161. With regard to manganese the following are correct:
    poisoning is characterised by two phases?
    • false
    • Three phases: general lassitude, tiredness, pain, dysarthria, imbalance and hypersalivation, parkinsons type features
  162. With regard to manganese the following are correct:
    Periodic medical examination is useful
    • true
    • To detect early behavioural or neuro changes
  163. With regard to manganese the following are correct:
    Uptake is associated by iron deficiency?
    true
  164. With regard to manganese the following are correct:
    An individual susceptibility to poisoning is described?
    true
  165. In relation to phosphorus the following statements are true:

    red phosphorus is assc with necrosis of the jaw?
    • false
    • this is associated with white or yellow phosphorus- phossy jaw.
  166. In relation to phosphorus the following statements are true:
    -poisoning is a prescribed disease?
    true
  167. In relation to phosphorus the following statements are true:

    may cause serious burning of the skin on contact?
    true
  168. In relation to phosphorus the following statements are true:

    Dental examination is an important feature of monitoring?
    true
  169. In relation to phosphorus the following statements are true:

    Phosphene gas is a hazard associated with pesticides?
    • false
    • a very toxic asphyxiant gas formed in the manufacture of acetylene
  170. With regards to beryllium:
    may get an allergic contact dermatitis?
    true
  171. With regards to beryllium:
    GIT absorption is good?
    false, GIT absorption poor lung absorption rapid
  172. With regards to beryllium:
    Is associated with chronic pulmonary conditions?
    • true
    • called berylliosis
  173. With regards to beryllium:
    chronic poisoning is associated with gliomatous
    • false
    • It causes sarcoid like granulomatous lesions affecting lungs and s/c tissues.
  174. With regards to beryllium:
    blood beryllium levels are a reliable method of biological monitoring?
    false, there is no reliable method. found in urine though. CXR and resp function tests to screen
  175. The following statements in relation to glutaraldehyde are true:
    has antimicrobial properties?
    • true
    • hence it is used as a sterilising agent
  176. The following statements in relation to glutaraldehyde are true:
    health care workers are at risk of toxic effects?
    • true
    • prinicipally nurses in endoscopy units
  177. The following statements in relation to glutaraldehyde are true:
    formic acid in urine is used to monitor exposure?
    false
  178. The following statements in relation to glutaraldehyde are correct:
    is a known sensitiser?
    true
  179. The following statemetns in relation to glutatarldehyde are correct:

    has a teratogenic effect?
    false not shown to be the case in humans
  180. Regarding vanadium the following statements are correct:
    inhalation is the principal route of entry?
    true
  181. Regarding vanadium the following statments are correct:

    excessive exposure can be associated with a green and black tongue and a metallic taste in the mouth?
    true
  182. Regarding vanadium the following statements are correct:

    main effects due to over exposure are due to irritation of mucous membranes?
    • true
    • it causes respiratory tract irritation and pneumonitis.
  183. Regarding vanadium the following statements are correct:
    blood vanadium levels is the preferred method of monitoring?
    false

    main monitoring urinary vanadium
  184. Vanadium causes a coarse tremor?
    false it causes a fine tremor of fingers and hands in cases of toxicity
  185. With regards to chromium the following are true:
    trivalent chromium salts are irritant corrosive and carcinogenic?
    false

    this describes hexavalent salts are carcinogenic in relation to lung cancer, the trivalent salts are virtually non-toxic
  186. With regard to chromium the following are true:
    chromium compounds are sensitisers?
    true cause contact dermatitis and occ asthma.
  187. With regard to chromium the following are true:
    it is no longer a prescribed disease?
    • false
    • for chronic skin irritation and lung cancer
  188. with regard to chromium the following are true:
    associated with nasal perforation?
    • true
    • due to inhalation of chrome vapours
  189. chromium monitoring?
    urinary levels - not routinely, but gives index of exposure to soluble hexavalent chromium compounds.
  190. in relation to acrylamide the following are true:
    poisoning is associated with polymer and monomers?
  191. false
    Only the monomer is toxic
  192. In relation to acrylamide the following are true:
    Acute effects are those of irritation to the skin and mucous membranes?
    • true
    • blistering of the skin may occur with prolonged contact
  193. In relation to acyrlamide the following are correct:
    upper and lower limb parasthesia is a complication of poisoning?
    • true
    • peripheral neuropathy is a feature of chronic exposure usually of the legs and hands
  194. In relation to acrylamide the following are true:
    inhalation is the commonest route of entry?
    • false.
    • Skin absorption is the commonest route
  195. In relation to acrylamide the following are true:

    chronic poisoning is associated with mid-brain lesions?
    • true
    • ataxia tremor dysarthria and increased sweating.
  196. Lead
    amino levalunic acid, blood lead is used more freq as bio monitor.
  197. trichlorehylene?
    urinary trichloracetic acid
  198. vinyl chloride monomer?
    urinary thiodyglycolic acid
  199. benzene?
    urinary phenols
  200. xylene?
    urinary methyl hippruric acid
  201. The following cause cataracts?
    • welding - due to infrared radiation
    • mercury-f
    • electrocution- true rarely
    • beryllium-f causes conjunctivitis
    • dinitrophenol-t
  202. The following are known to cause peripheral neuropathy?
    • organophosphates-true
    • thallium scan-true
    • acrylamide-true

    • magnesium-f
    • vanadium peroxide-f
  203. Lead poisoning?
    • abdominal pain
    • anaemia
    • rasied erythrocyte protoporphyrins
    • and siderocytes
  204. Mercury poisoning?
    brown blue line on gums, fulminant itch, erethism- organic psychosis, cerebellar cortical atrophy, dislocation of the lens
  205. cadmium poisoning?
    • focal emphysema
    • anosmia
    • renal calculi
    • glycosuria
  206. chromium poisoning?
    • skin ulceration
    • asthma
    • pneumonitits
    • lung cancer
  207. Manganese poisoning?
    • respiratory irritation
    • organic psychosis
    • parkinsonism
  208. In solvent toxicology:
    water soluble sovents penetrate the skin and accumulate in the nervous system?
    • false
    • fat soluble
  209. In solvent toxicology:
    All sovlents in a vapour form are rapidly absorbed into the lungs?
    true
  210. In solvent toxicology:
    solvent volatility determines toxicity to an extent?
    true
  211. In solvent toxicology:
    mixtures of solvents can cause biological competition and thus interfere with the action of each component?
    true
  212. Regarding chloronated hydrocarbons the following are correct:
    Are inflammable and explosive?
    • false
    • non inflammable, non combustible, non explosive
  213. Regarding chloronated hydrocarbons the following are correct:
    used widely as degreasing agents, paint solvents and dry cleaning fluids?
    true
  214. Regarding chloronated hydrocarbons the following are correct:
    the intro of the chlorine radical reduces their toxicity?
    • false
    • the reverse is true
  215. Regarding chloronated hydrocarbons the following are correct:
    as molecular weight falls so does toxicity?
    • false
    • as the molecular weight incrreases the toxicity increases
  216. Regarding chloronated hydrocarbons the following are correct:
    toxicity is related to volatility?
    true
  217. The following statements relating to carbon disulphide are correct:
    It is the most common organic chemical that contains a carbon sulphidde group?
    true
  218. The following statements relating to carbon disulphide are correct:
    skin absorption is the main route of entry?
    • false
    • inhalation is
  219. The following statements relating to carbon disulphide are correct:
    may be associated with infertility in males and females?
    true
  220. The following statements relating to carbon disulphide are correct:
    only recently used in the synthetic fibre industry?
    false
  221. The following statements relating to carbon disulphide are correct:
    Is a recognised multi system poison?
    • true
    • multi system poison
    • ihd, psychosis and parkinsons
  222. Features of carbon tetrachloride are:
    a colourless, volatile, non inflammatory, with sweet smelling odour?
    true
  223. Features of carbon tetrachloride are:
    water soluble solvent?
    • false,
    • lipid soluble therefore pentrates skin
  224. Features of carbon tetrachloride are:
    nephrotoxic?
    • true
    • prinicipally affects prox tubules.
  225. Features of carbon tetrachloride are:
    the possibility of toxic effects is not affected by alcohol intake?
    • false
    • high alc synergistic effect on exposure
  226. Features of carbon tetrachloride are:
    liver complications are rare?
    • false
    • it is hepatotoxic causes liver necrosis
  227. The following are true regarding tetrachloroethane:
    it is a prescribed disease in the case of poisoning?
    true
  228. The following are true regarding tetrachloroethane:
    widely used in general purpose solvents?
    false
  229. The following are true regarding tetrachloroethane:
    poisoning associated with a toxic polyneuropathy?
    true
  230. The following are true regarding tetrachloroethane:
    renal syndrome is recognised as an effect of chronic exposure?
    false

    a hepatic syndrome may lead to liver failure and death
  231. The following are true regarding tetrachloroethane:
    has teratogenic effects?
    false
  232. With regard to tetrachloroethene:
    used in dry cleaning fluid and degrerasing agent?
    true
  233. With regard to tetrachloroethene:
    not absorbed through the skin?
    false

    skin absorption does occur lung inhalation main route
  234. With regard to tetrachloroethene:
    prinicipal effect is CNS depression?
    true

    causes narcotic effects
  235. With regard to tetrachloroethene:

    gamma GT could be used in medical surveillance?
  236. true
    but need to r/o other causes
  237. With regard to tetrachloroethene:
    carcinogenic in workers chronically exposed?
    false
  238. In relation to methyl bromide the following are true:
    it is generally a colourless odourless and sweet smelling?
    false
  239. In relation to methyl bromide the following are true:
    acute exposure my be associated with convulsions?
    true
  240. In relation to methyl bromide the following are true:
    chronic exposure may lead to hepatic failure principally?
    false

    mainly causes kidney failure, peripheral neuropathy, psychosis etc
  241. In relation to methyl bromide the following are true:
    get a dry scaly rash in excessive skin exposure?
    false

    get a characteristic erythematous vesicular rash
  242. Trichloroethane (also called methyl chloroform):
    is commonly known as trike?
    • false
    • trichloroethene
  243. trichloroethane:
    being phase out of industry?
    true
  244. trichloroethane:
    used for degreasing of metals?
    true
  245. trichloroethane:
    teratogenic?
    false
  246. trichloroethane:
    Associated with fatalities?
    true

    inenclosed spaces
  247. tetrachloroethene:
    volatile and rapidly absorbed through the lungs?
    true
  248. tetrachloroethene:
    can cause peripheral nerve damage?
    false

    causes cranial nerve damage
  249. tetrachloroethene:
    Is associated with a degreasers flush?
    true

    vasodilataion in response to drinking alcohol
  250. tetrachloroethene:
    is a severe skin irritant?
    false

    it is mild
  251. tetrachloroethene:

    may cause sudden death by ventricular fibrillation in a young adult?
    true

    this may occur after exposure following exertion
  252. The following statements relating to solvent neurotoxicity are correct:
    it is related to lipid solubility?
    true
  253. The following statements relating to solvent neurotoxicity are correct:
    carbon disulphide can cause parkinson symptoms and poly neuropathies?
    true
  254. The following statements relating to solvent neurotoxicity are correct:
    presenile dementia is a feature of styrene poisoning?
    false

    it is associated with white spirit
  255. The following statements relating to solvent neurotoxicity are correct:
    addiction to solvents is a possibility?
    true
  256. The following statements relating to solvent neurotoxicity are correct:
    neurotoxic effects are largely reversible?
    false
  257. with regard to vinyl chloride the following are true:
    it is a colourless gas used in synthesis of pvc?
    true
  258. with regard to vinyl chloride the following are true:
    does not penetrate skin?
    false
  259. with regard to vinyl chloride the following are true:
    is associated with scleroderma like changes?
    • true
    • affects hands and forearms
  260. with regard to vinyl chloride the following are true:
    acro-osteolysis at the distal ends of the long bones are sometimes found in workers who are chronically exposed?
    false

    affects distal phalanges of hands, causes pseudo clubbing
  261. with regard to vinyl chloride the following are true:
    angiosarcoma of liver can be a feature of chronic exposure?
    true
  262. In relation to nickel carbonyl the following are correct:
    it is formed in the MOND process?
    true
  263. In relation to nickel carbonyl the following are correct:
    highly toxic, colourless, volatile, rapidly absorbed via the lungs?
    true
  264. In relation to nickel carbonyl the following are correct:
    in chronic poisoning raised levels of met- haemoglobin are found?
    false

    raised carboxy HB
  265. In relation to nickel carbonyl the following are correct:
    is a prescribed industrial disease?
    true
  266. In relation to nickel carbonyl the following are correct:
    repeated exposure is associated with lung cancer?
    • false
    • may lead to asthma
  267. The following are correct regarding hydrogen cyanide:
    The toxicity residue in the cyanide radical?
    true
  268. The following are correct regarding hydrogen cyanide:
    in poisoning the cytochrome oxidase is blocked and hence oxygen transport
    • false
    • oxygen transport not affected
  269. The following are correct regarding hydrogen cyanide:
    symptoms of poisoning are rapid onset and can be fatal?
    true


    • headache
    • vomiting
    • excitability
    • convulsions
  270. The following are correct regarding hydrogen cyanide:
    Treatment can involve the use of oxygen and amyl nitrite casules?
    true
  271. The following are correct regarding hydrogen cyanide:
    lactic acidosis is a prominent feature of poisoning?
    true
  272. With regards to pesticides the following are true:

    is not covered by riddor?
    false
  273. With regards to pesticides the following are true:

    neurotoxicity is a prominent feature of many insecticides?
    true

    it blocks nerve transmission
  274. With regards to pesticides the following are true:
    organochlorides persist in the environment for long periods?
    true
  275. with regard to pesticides the following are true:

    organophosphates and carbamate groups inhibit acetylcholinesterase?
    true

    cause respiratory paralysis
  276. The herbicide paraquate principally affects lungs?
    true

    rapidly absorbed by ingestion and specifically accumulates in lung tissue causing lung damage. Liver and renal faiure also.
  277. medical and occupational rehabilitation should occur together?
    true
  278. Rehabilitation includes the following:
    activities that help an individual return to former employment or to be redeployed with new skills
    false

    that is resettlement
  279. Rehabilitation includes the following:
    assessment of disability and employment handicap are the most important aspects in rehabilitation?
    true

    To allow a determination of functional recovery after injury or illness and hence whether a return to work/ redeployment is feasible
  280. In back pain:
    most are functional in origin?
    false

    most are mechanical
  281. In back pain:
    sleeplessness at night indicates a mechanical origin?
    • false
    • backache causing sleeplessness should be considered to be serious and malignancy ruled out
  282. The following statements with regard to ill health retirement are correct:

    it should be considered only when it is clear that an employees health problems prevent a return to previous employment?
    true
  283. but relocation could be an option
  284. The following statements with regard to ill health retirement are correct:

    an employer cannot dismiss an employee with a genuine health problem?
    • false
    • If an employee is unsatisfactory the cause of it may not be important. However established disciplinary procedures must be followed, retirement on ill health grounds could be an alternative option.
  285. The following statements with regard to ill health retirement are correct:

    the Occupational physician may recommend retirement if the working environment would continually affect the employees health adversely?
    true
  286. The following statements with regard to ill health retirement are correct:

    the company medical officer is usually well placed to give advice?
    true
  287. He will know the tasks and the requirements in terms of fitness for the job
  288. The following statements with regard to ill health retirement are correct:

    It is the OH duty that redeployment has been considered before proceeding with the recommendation of retirement on ill health grounds?
    true
  289. Features of prolapsed intervertebral discs are:
    L3 and L4 nerve roots are most commonly affected?
    • false
    • usually L5 and S1 nerve roots
  290. Features of prolapsed intervertebral discs:
    S1 radiculopathy causes loss of ankle jerk?
    • true
    • also causes sensory loss over lateral side of calf and foot
  291. Features of prolapsed intervertebral discs:

    L5 nerve root compression results in extensor plantar response?
    false
  292. there is a dropped foot and sensory loss over the shin and dorsum of the foot
  293. features of prolapsed intervertebral discs:
    include retention of urine?
    true
  294. due to cauda equina
  295. Features of prolapsed intervertebral discs:
    is made worse by valsalva manoeuvre?
    true also coughing, straining, laughing
  296. In vocational driving (LGV and PCV):
    minimum vision standard for new applicants is 6/9 and 6/12 corrected?
    true
  297. and 3/60 uncorrected
  298. with regard to occupational disease the following are correct:
    information from the registrar of deaths gives good information?
    • false
    • open to incorrect/vague diagnoses by doctors and mis reporting of occupations by relatives.
  299. working in confined spaces:
    includes tanks, culverts, tunnels and trenches?
    true
  300. working in confined spaces:
    may lead to some medical restrictions being imposed?
    true

    • epilepsy
    • angina
    • vertigo
    • also blackouts, fainting, clasotrophobia, visual defects, severe respiratory disease or exertional dysponea.
  301. working in confined spaces:
    has lack of room to manouevre as the main hazard?
    false

    main problem is due to oxygen deficiency and build up of toxic gases
  302. working in confined spaces:
    can be carried out if well ventilated before entry?
    true

    or if not feasible wear breathing apparatus
  303. Consideration of reproductive health in the workplace will include the following:

    VDU work is commonly associated with miscarriage?
    false
  304. Consideration of reproductive health in the workplace will include the following:

    physically strenuous work in females may lead to amenorrhea?
    true
  305. features of sick building syndrome:
    lethargy and tiredness?
    true
  306. features of sick building syndrome:
    equal sex distribution?
    false more females
  307. features of sick building syndrome:
    migrainous headaches?
    • false
    • can cause headaches but not migraines
  308. features of sick building syndrome:
    influenza symptoms, asc with air conditioning systems?
    true

    seems to be more apparent when compared with naturally ventilated buildings
  309. TB does not cause finger clubbing?
    true
  310. The following are associated with parkinsonism:
    bradykinesia?
    true
  311. The following are associated with parkinsonism:

    carbon monoxide poisoning?
    true

    it is a cause of secondary parkinsonism
  312. The pregnant worker:
    is suspended from work with lead?
    true
  313. occupational hygiene?
    science and practice of protecting health persons at work by controlling their exposure to workplace hazards.

    • anticipitation
    • recognition
    • evaluation
    • control
  314. risk
    the likelihood of harm occuring in conditions of use of the substance
  315. OES
    occupational exposure standard

    level to which employees can be exposed without harming their health
  316. OEL occupational exposure limits
    related to adequate control of substances by COSHH.
  317. draeger tube
    location sampling of gases and vapours
  318. kata thermometer
    air velocity

    this is a liquid filled thermometer with a large silver bulb and a smaller bulb. It measures the cooling power of air and using a formula the air velocity is calculated
  319. whirling hygrometer
    measures air humidity


    contains a wet and dry bulb the difference in readings used to calculate humidity of the air
  320. a pump operated personal sampler?
    sampling of gas vapour and dust
  321. globe thermometer
    radiant temperature
  322. aibourne concentrations of dust
    mg/m 3
  323. vapour concentration in air
    ppm
  324. asbetos dust
    fibres/ml
  325. The following statements with regard to the aerodynamic diameter of particles are correct:

    it is that of a theorhetical sphere of unit density with same air speed characteristics as a particle under investigation
    true
  326. ionising radiation
    sievert
  327. The following statements with regard to the aerodynamic diameter of particles are correct:

    inhalable into the nose between 100micrometers and 1000 micrometers in diameter?
    false

    50-100micrometers
  328. The following statements with regard to the aerodynamic diameter of particles are correct:

    inhalable into bronchus and bronchioles between 25-50 micrometers ?
    false

    between 8-20 micrometers
  329. The following statements with regard to the aerodynamic diameter of particles are correct:
    inhalation into the alveoli is less than 7mirometers?
  330. true
  331. In fibres the length rather than the diameter determines the respirability?
    false
  332. control of exposure by ventilation:

    is preferable to total enclosure?
    false

    total enclosure of a hazardous process is preferable to general ventilation
  333. control of exposure by ventilation:

    separates the worker from hazards by surrounding his breathing zone with good quality air?
    true
  334. control of exposure by ventilation:

    uses dilution ventilation for substances with moderate to high toxicity?
    false only suitable for substances with low toxicity
  335. PPE
    effectiveness of hearing protectors is defined in terms of assumed protection levels at the wearers ear to below Led'p of 90dB
  336. risk assessment
    is an examination of the workplace to see what could cause harm and what precautions need to prevent harm occurring
  337. Risk assessment:

    Needs to be carried out by a certified risk assessor?
    false

    can be done by safety officer or safety representative
  338. Risk assessment:
    written records?
    true

    if five or more employees
  339. Risk assessment key steps
    recognition

    evaluation

    control

    review
  340. In the properties of sound:
    an octave band is a frequency interval where the top f is four times that of the bottom f?
    false

    the top f is double the bottom f
  341. In the properties of sound:
    the decibel scale is a logarithmic scale of sound frequency?
    false

    it is a logarithmic scale of sound intensity
  342. In the properties of sound:
    a 10 db increase represents a sound twice as loud?
    true
  343. In the properties of sound:

    a three decibel increase in noise level results in halving the allowable exposure time?
    true

    known as the three decibel rule
  344. In noise induced hearing loss:

    a familial type of hearing loss may cause a 4kHz dip?
    true

    an autosomal dominant hearing loss in the range 3KHz to 6KHZ
  345. In noise induced hearing loss:
    the characteristics of the noise are important?
    true

    impact noise may affect 6KHz more than other frequencies. The maximum effect of a single frequency noise is usually one half of an octave band above the frequency.
  346. In noise induced hearing loss:
    individual variation or susceptibility does not apply?
    false
  347. In noise induced hearing loss:
    duration of exposure is important ?
    true
  348. dB (A)
    noise weighting that closely simulates the human ear
  349. Lep'd
    level of daily continual exposure

    it is used to represent personal exposure over an eight hour period.
  350. 2nd action level
    hearing protection mandatory

    Lep'd of 90dB (A) the level below which noise should be reduced if possible
  351. noise dose
    depends on level of noise and exposure time
  352. peak action level
    140dB
  353. In occupational deafness:
    there is a classical 2kHZ dip?
    false

    it is a four kHZ dip
  354. In occupational deafness:
    pure tone audiometry is used for assessment?
    true

    the subject should not have been exposed to loud noise for up to twelve hours before the test
  355. In occupational deafness:
    A loss of 50 dB in each ear is a prescribed disease?
    true
  356. In occupational deafness:
    tinnitus is an early warning sign?
    false

    it is a late sign
  357. A hearing conservation programme involves:
    a noise survey and designation of hearing protection zones?
    true
  358. A hearing conservation programme involves:
    total enclosure of all sounds greater than 90dB?
    false

    90dB is the second action level ( noise at work regs 1989) and hearing protection is mandatory at these levels
  359. Associated with sensorineural deafness?
    • rubella
    • acoustic neuroma


    otosclerosis, pagets--> false CONDUCTIVE DEAFNESS
  360. Vibration:

    is measured in terms of frequency and acceleration?
    true
  361. vibration:

    is covered by the EU physical agents directive?
    true
  362. vibration:

    has a critical range for segmental vibration of 8-1400HZ?
    true
  363. Hand arm vibration syndrome:
    is a chronic progressive disorder with a latent period of 1-15years?
    true
  364. HAVs:
    Is a prescribed industrial disease?
    false

    vibration white finger is a prescribed industrial disease
  365. HAVs:
    causes damage to the digital nerves and arteries?
    true

    there is occlusion of the proximal segment of the digital arteries which reduces the size of the lumen
  366. HAVs:

    is classified with which scale?
    stockholm scale
  367. The differential diagnoses of HAVs:
    • primary raynauds
    • costoclavicle syndrome
    • SLE
    • carpal tunnel syndrome
  368. In the managment of HAVs the following are correct:
    each hand is assessed separately?
    true
  369. In the managment of HAVs the following are correct:
    doppler finger blood flow tests are diagnostic?
    false

    these can be done but it is not diagnostic
  370. In the managment of HAVs the following are correct:
    stellate ganglion blocks are a first line treatment?
    false
  371. In the managment of HAVs the following are correct:
    cold and smoking should be avoided?
    true
  372. light- visibility of a task depends on:
    luminance of the task?
    true
  373. light- visibility of a task depends on: visual fringing?
    false
  374. light- visibility of a task depends on: contrast?
    true
  375. light- visibility of a task depends on: colour flickering?
    false
  376. Illuminance
    the intensity of light falling on a surface, measured in lux which is lumen per m2
  377. luminous intensity?
    power of source to emit light units candela
  378. luminance
    the physical brightness of a surface, measured in candela per m2
  379. Reflectance?
    luminous flux reflected: luminous flux incident
  380. luminous flux
    the light emitted by a source or recieved by a surface
  381. Beta particles?
    can penetrate the skin to 1cm and are hazardous to superficial tissue.
  382. radioactivity?
    spontaneous process of decay
  383. gamma rays?
    very penetrative and hazardous
  384. alpha particles ?
    • positively charged
    • cannot penetrate the skin
    • not a significant hazard
  385. The following statements with regard to ionizing radiation are correct:
    tissues with rapidly developing cells are most sensitive?
    true

    lymphocytes, gonads, bone marrow, epidermis, intestine lining
  386. An example of a stochastic effect is a cataract?
    false

    stochastic effects are those such as carcinogenesis and genetic damage.
  387. The following statements with regard to ioninsing radiation are correct:
    deterministic effects vary according to dose?
    true

    also known as non-stochastic

    e.g. acute radiation syndrome
  388. The following statements with regard to ioninsing radiation are correct:
    statutory dose limits are to prevent stochastic effects?
    false

    limits are set to prevent non-stochastic effects as they have a threshold.
  389. A sievert is a unit of dose equivalence?
    true

    the absorbed dose in grays multiplied by a factor to take account of the type of radiation ( the factor is known as the relative biological effectiveness)
  390. The following statements with regard to ioninsing radiation are correct:
    acute radiation syndrome develops following whole body irradiation of two sieverts or more?
    true

    in a single dose or over a short period
  391. The following statements with regard to ioninsing radiation are correct:
    background radiation is about 10mSv per year?
    false

    in uk it is 1mSv per year
  392. The following statements with regard to ioninsing radiation are correct:
    threshold for skin damage is 3sv acute or 0.5sv per year?
    true
  393. The following statements with regard to ioninsing radiation are correct:

    ICRP dose limits for pregnant women is 10msv per year?
    true

    furthermore for women of child reporductive capacity the abdominal dose is 13msv in any consecutive 3 month period
  394. The following statements with regard to ioninsing radiation are correct:
    classified workers are those liable to recieve in excess of three tenths of the annual dose limit?
    true
  395. Features of ultraviolet radiation are:
    divided into two wavelengths?
    false

    • three wavelengths: UV (A) 315-400nm,
    • UV (B) 280-315nm, UV (C) 100-280nm

    UV(C) is mostly absorbed in the atmosphere
  396. Features of ultraviolet radiation are:
    UV (A) produces serious side effects on the skin and cornea?
    false

    UV(B) is associated with photokeratitis of the arc eye. Most of the UV (B) is filtered by the cornea.
  397. Features of ultraviolet radiation are:
    over exposure may lead to cataract formation?
    true

    usually associated with UV (A) as most of this is absorbed in the lens
  398. Features of ultraviolet radiation are:
    UV(B) is associated with snow blindness?
    true
  399. Features of infrared radiation are:
    three wavelengths?
    true IRA 760-1400nm, IVB 1400-3000nm, IRC 300nm-1mm
  400. Features of infrared radiation are: severe skin burns?
    false

    skin can burn but relatively slowly
  401. Features of infrared radiation are:
    can cause injury to the lens and retina?
    true

    causing cataract formation
  402. Features of infrared radiation are:
    IRA is normally visible?
    false
  403. Features of infrared radiation are:
    a recognised hazard in glass blowing?
    true

    glass blowing cataract
  404. Features of microwave radiation:
    it is at the high end of the EM spectrum?
    false

    • it is at the low end
    • 1nm to 1m
  405. Features of microwave radiation: it is linked to eye damage?
    • true
    • cataracts
  406. Features of microwave radiation: pulsed waves are more damaging than continuous?
    true
  407. Features of microwave radiation: carcinogenicity in humans?
    false
  408. The following statements with regards to lasers are correct:
    they emit light of different wavelengths depending on the type of laser?
    true
  409. The following statements with regards to lasers are correct:
    it is safe to view their reflection without the need for eye protection?
    false

    reflections of class 1-3 ok 4 no
  410. The following statements with regards to lasers are correct: main risk is cataracts?
    false

    main risk retinal burns
  411. convection
    depends on air temperature and velocity
  412. thermoregulatory mechanisms?
    perioheral vasodilation and sweating
  413. radiation
    does not depend on air movement
  414. evaporation
    dependent on temperature humidity and air velocity
  415. treatment of heat stroke involves slow cooling?
    false

    involves rapid cooling
  416. compressed air and diving-
    The following statments with regard to decompression sickness are correct:
    only occurs in workers exposed to helium at high pressures?
    false

    can occur in anyone exposed to air or any other gas at increased pressures.
  417. compressed air and diving-The following statments with regard to decompression sickness are correct:
    niggles and bends are example of type 1 symptoms?
    true

    type 1 symptoms are mainly peripheral effects

    • niggles- pleuritis and limb discomfort
    • bends- extreme limb pain and both exhibit skin mottling
  418. compressed air and diving-The following statments with regard to decompression sickness are correct:
    chokes and staggers are related to type 2 symptoms?
    true

    type 2 symptoms - generalised and severe, chokes relate to dysponea and staggers relate to vertigo
  419. compressed air and diving-The following statments with regard to decompression sickness are correct:
    aseptic bone necrosis occurs at the proximal end of the phalanges?
    false

    thought to be due to infarction of nitrogen emboli in the arterial vessels of the bone, the distal end of the femur, prox tibia and humerus are common sites
  420. compressed air and diving-The following statments with regard to decompression sickness are correct:
    incidence is about 10-12% of all decompression?
  421. false, incidence varies from less than 1-2% of total decompressions. The majority are type 1 less severe.
  422. In medical assessment for diving:
    a certificate for fitness in diving how often?
    annually
  423. In medical assessment for diving: peptic ulcers, hernias and obesity are deterents to employment?
    true
  424. In medical assessment for diving:personal medical records are held by the diver?
    true
  425. In medical assessment for diving: a dental assessment is important?
    true

    air entrapment in the dental caries
  426. In medical assessment for diving: assessments are laid down by COSHH?
    false

    laid down by medical code of practice for work in compressed air and diving operations at work regulations 1981

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