Pharmacology Exam

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Pharmacology Exam
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2012-04-17 14:24:35
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  1. RESPIRATORY DISORDERS


    what is allergic rhinitis
    inflammatory response of nasal mucosa
  2. what response does histamine NOT cause
    GI upset
  3. astemizole has a serious risk of _________ toxicity
    cardiovascular
  4. what is flonase and how is it admin
    nasal steroid; admin as nasal vapor
  5. who should go to dr for respiratory infections
    (*all) elderly, chronic, prolonged
  6. how are nose drops inserted
    supine position with neck extended to 90 degree angle
  7. when admin nose drops, the bulb of the dropper should be slanted how
    toward the jaw
  8. pts allergic to aspirin should do what when buying OTC allergy meds
    read contents of label
  9. who should not get ephedrine
    children 5 and under
  10. use caution with histamines when pts have
    asthma
  11. effective agent for motion sickness
    meclizine
  12. pt understands teaching on proper use of nasal spray if they say
    "stand or sit when spraying and sniff as i spray"
  13. a decongestant should be admin before bedtime when sinus drainage is
    profuse
  14. dimetane and sudafed are useful for treating because they contain
    both decongestant and antihistamine
  15. afrin causes
    rebound congestion
  16. sudafed in contraindicated in pts with
    (*all) ischemic, hyperthyroidism, and DM
  17. afrin and neo-synephrine are _____similar in action
    most
  18. zyrtec is
    new antihistamine and causes less drowsiness
  19. which is not a decongestant: neosynephrine, sudafed, benzedrex or astemizole
    astemizole
  20. pts with blocked nasal passages that use intranasal steroid products should be advised to
    use decongestant shortly before steroid
  21. why should nasal sprays be advised to use on one person and one episode of illness
    viruses may colonize on tip of container thus spreading infection
  22. infants should be admin nasal decongestants when
    20 min before eating
  23. nurses functioning in environments like summer camps should
    (*all) be aware of allergies, have emergency supplies, and consult dr for protocol
  24. how do you admin SSKI to a pt
    mix with fruit juice, ask pt is allergic to codeine, and drink thru straw
  25. comb of guaifenesin and codeine is an example of a ____________ and ____________cough agent
    narcotic and nonnarcotic
  26. tessalon
    acts by exerting local anesthetic effect on parts of respiratory tract
  27. a priority nursing dx for a pt with thick, copious, tenacious secretion is
    ineffective airway clearance r/t respiratory secretions
  28. primary consideration when planning care for pts receiving expectorants
    encourage fluid intake
  29. when admin narcotic cough meds the nurse should observe
    slowing of respirations
  30. diphenhydramine is an antitussive and
    antihistamine (benedryl)
  31. codeine cough suppressants commonly cause
    constipation
  32. ipecac syrup is used an expectorant in low doses....in high doses it is an
    emetic
  33. SSKI should never be given to
    those with hyperthyroidism (idione)
  34. which of these is not an antitussive: vicodin, tessalon, dextromethorphan HBR or ammonium chloride
    ammonium chloride
  35. how is aminophylline admin IV
    rate should not exceed 100mg/min
  36. singulair is classified as a
    leukotriene receptor agonist
  37. when working in an environment where pts have respiratory disorders the nurse should
    avoid wearing perfumes
  38. overuse of bronchodilators may cause
    bronchoconstriction; encourage fluids if not contraindicated
  39. goal for dx of gas exchange impaired r/t disease process would be
    O2 stat equal to or above 90
  40. _________would be most appropriate to administer as a bronchodilator in pt with angina pectoris
    brethine
  41. inderal should not be given to pts with
    COPD
  42. theophylline acts by
    increasing concentration of intercellular cyclic AMP
  43. what is propranolol
    beta blocker; causes bronchoconstriction
  44. stimulation of beta2 receptors results in
    bronchodilation and smooth muscle dilation
  45. normal serum theophylline level is
    10-20 mcg/mL
  46. cromolyn sodium (intal)
    inhibits release of histamine from mast cells
  47. nursing interventions for pts using bronchodilators include
    avoid respiratory infection, control breathing, and conserve energy
  48. milk should be avoided by persons with
    COPD
  49. how does aminophylline relieve dyspnea
    relaxes smooth muscles of bronchioles--bronchodilators
  50. to prevent development of pneumonia in pts with COPD use
    broad spectrum antibiotics
  51. what is mucomyst
    mucolytic agent
  52. beta adrenergic blocking agens should not be used in pts with
    COPD
  53. theophylline is a ______________ bronchodilator
    xanthine
  54. when pt is prescribed 2 inhalant meds, one a bronchodilator and the other a corticosteroid, how should they be admin
    1st take bronchodilator then the corticosteroid
  55. beractant is
    a lung surfactant used in tx of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome
  56. sternal retractions indicate
    respiratory difficulty in newborns
  57. what are extender devices and who benefits from them
    those lacking coordination b/t hand and inhaler
  58. a drug used to treat respiratory illness that has a corrosive effect on rubber and metal
    mucomyst
  59. home education in O2 therapy is
    do not increase O2 flow as needed
  60. pts with COPD are advised to consume ___________ml of fluids daily
    3000-4000
  61. URINARY DISORDERS

    always change the needle after reconstitution of antibiotic prior to admin
    penicillin
  62. after admin antibiotic pt has thickening in throat, local inflammation at site and skin rash.....these are sx of an
    allergic reaction
  63. give oral PCN _____hrs before meals or _________hrs after meal
    1-2; 2-3
  64. change needle prior to admin what med
    penicillin
  65. cephalasporins should be given with extreme caution with pts that have allergic reactions to what
    PCN
  66. ______is increased with people taking cephalasporin and loop diuretics
    nephrotoxicity
  67. absorption of oral tetracyclines (esp in lg IV dose) can be adversely affected by what
    iron, calcium and dairy products
  68. do not give tetracycline to children under what age
    8
  69. which cranial nerve must be tested before and during tx while taking aminoglycocides and why
    eighth (pts balance and hearing); ototoxicity may occur
  70. clients taking nephrotoxic drugs, diuretics, and those dehydrated are at risk for developing nephrotoxicity while taking aminoglycosides....observe these pts for what
    nature and qty of urine output; avoid vit C; avoid cranberry, plum, and prune juices
  71. genitourinary infections are treated with fluorquiolones which is a
    broad spectrum antibiotic
  72. carbapenems are contraindicated in pts with a hx of ___________with cephalosporins
    anaphylaxis
  73. most people being treated for _____ are noninfectious after a few weeks of therapy
    TB chemotherapy
  74. people tend to develop bacterial resistance to TB when ____ medicine is used
    only one
  75. if taking INH, take pyridoxine (Vit B6) to prevent __________
    peripheral neuropathy (esp in malnourished pts)
  76. slow acetylators (slow metabolism of drugs) are more likely to experience ________ _______
    drug toxicity
  77. stop _______ and see dr asap is you have sore throat, fever, and jaundice
    sulfonamide---UTI med (can cause dyscrosias)
  78. while taking pyridium for UTI the urine may turn what color
    orange/red
  79. while taking sulfonamides pts should
    have 3000-4000 mL of fluid, take meds til all gone, and avoid direct sunlight
  80. in order for mandelamine to be most effective the urine should be
    acidified
  81. persons receiving IV infusions of amphotericin B may develop
    hypokalemia
  82. the proper solution for admin of amphotericin B is
    slow IV at 0.25-1 mg/kg/day
  83. pentamidine powder is reconstituted with
    sterile diluent
  84. a bronchodilator may be used before the admin of nebupent aerosol for persons with
    PCP; HIV infected
  85. retrovir
    antiviral agent that inhibits the replication of some retroviruses; appears to be useful in mgmt of adult pts with AIDS
  86. antimicrobial agents that inhibit growth of bacteria, allow the host immunological defenses to complete the job of destroying the organism
    bacteriostatic
  87. antibiotic resistant strains of bacteria occur....what teaching should you include to pts
    complete entire prescription and inform dr if sx do not improve
  88. disadvantage of using broad spectrum antibiotics to treat infections
    affects their ability to destroy the body's normal microbial population and may cause diarrhea and superinfection
  89. why should you not use bactericidal and bacteriostatic agents together at the same time
    may diminish effectiveness
  90. zinacef
    (cephalasporin) oral or parenteral; with food may increase absorption; broad spectrum antibiotic; tx for STD and bacterial infections
  91. malaria caused by
    parasitic protozoal organisms; of the genus plasmodium
  92. what does malaria do
    1st 1-2 wks asymptomatic; then chills, fever, and prostration-as it enters and destroys RBCs anemia develops and impaired O2 delivery to major organs
  93. adverse effects of quinine
    tinnitus, dizziness, HA, GI distress, visual disturbances; also hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and agranulocytosis
  94. aralen is given for what
    anti-malaria--more effective in controlling clinical sx
  95. primaquine may cause what kind of reaction
    hemolytic reactions in dark-skinned persons and others likely to be deficient in enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
  96. primaquine is used primarily for
    primarily in comb with chlorquine for prevention of malarial attacks and prevents relapses
  97. amebiasis most commonly caused by
    ingesting contaminated food or drinking water; it is the african sleeping sickness
  98. trichomoniasis is
    disease of vagina caused by trichomonas vaginalis (Hallie)
  99. avoid what while taking flagyl
    alcohol
  100. enterobiasis is
    pinworms
  101. scabies is an example of a condition caused by
    sarcoptes scabiei---parasitic disorder
  102. common name for pediculosis corposis
    body lice
  103. another name for kwell is
    lindane--tx of choice for scabie
  104. greatest concern in use of kwell
    systemic effects; eye irritation
  105. a nit describes what
    lice egg
  106. human lice
    require human blood to survive and cannot exist away from their host for more than 12-24 hrs
  107. prevention of reinfestation of parasites...instruction to clients
    sterilize and wash everything with hot water
  108. how do you get rid of head lice
    machine wash in hot all clothes or dry clean; soak combs in hot water; vacuum; examine family members
  109. how do you get rid of scabies
    kwell; single app; may be repeated after 24 hrs; may be reapplied after 7 days
  110. tx after initial tx of scabies can be done when if reinfestation occurs
    7 days
  111. safe use of flagyl for tx of trichomonal infections....pt instructions
    everyone in contact needs tx
  112. lice is transmitted how
    by direct contact with an infested individual or an infested article of clothing or bed linens
  113. pHisoHex, resorcinol, and lysol all have what agent
    phenol (carbolic acid)
  114. dakin's solution
    used in wound care; effective against bacteria, spores, amebas, fungi, protozoa, and viruses; has been shown to delay clotting process; may delay healing and can injure healthy tissue
  115. zephiran is
    germicide; surface-active agent; rapidly inactivated by soaps and body fluids such as saliva and pus; does not kill sores; only moderately effective
  116. optimal strength of ethanol for instrument disinfection and storage is
    50% concentration
  117. using formaldehyde, objects must be exposed how long
    10 minutes
  118. storage of antiseptics and disinfectants should be
    stored safely and according to manufacturers directions; properly label
  119. prior to disinfecting instruments, first
    wash in soapy water using friction
  120. factor in decreasing microorganisms in handwashing
    antimicrobial soaps
  121. factor nurse should consider in selecting an antiseptic or disinfectant for use
    frequency, duration, technique
  122. hydrogen peroxide
    often used for its antiseptic and effervescent actions; must stored in a dark, tightly capped container in cool environment; deteriorates on exposure to air so open right before use
  123. iodine
    potent germicide; low level of toxicity; rapidly destroys bacteria; gram (+) and spores; can stain and cause hypersensitivity
  124. to de-color iodine, use what substance
    alcohol
  125. an agent that produces bleeding at injection site
    isopropanol (isopropyl alcohol) because it can cause local vasodilation
  126. tx for burns
    silver compounds (silver nitrate)--antiseptic effect
  127. agent that may delay clotting process
    dakin's solution
  128. hibiclens
    chlorhexidine gluconate--skin scrub and wound cleanser (surgery)
  129. for handwashing to be effective, the agent must
    be in contact for 10 seconds; use correct amount, duration, and technique

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