Aero II

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  1. When raising flaps during level flight at max range AOA and velocity, velocity will ______ and max range will _______ due to a ________ in power required.
    increase, increase, decrease
  2. ________ provides pitch by movement of teh entire horizontal stablizer.
  3. The two purposes of trim tabs are ________ & _________.
    trim and artificial feel
  4. What is trim?
    reduces pressure required to hold control surfaces in a position necessary to provide desired flight attitude.
  5. During a max range glide at max range AOA and velocity a decrease in weight will __________ ROD and velocity will __________. Distance over ground will ___________.
    Decrease, Decrase, stay the same (weight does not affect the range, only ROD and velocity)
  6. ____________ disturb airflow over a wing to decrease lift and initiate a rolling moment.
  7. A trim tab overcomes the force on the control surface because compared to the control surface it has a greater _________.
    moment arm
  8. When adjusting aileron trim, trim tabs on the L/R/Both wings are adjusted.
    Only the left wing is adjusted. Right wing aileron trim is preset by maintenance.
  9. An increase in airspeed and power requires trim (down/up) and rudder trim (left/right)
    down, right
  10. An decrease in airspeed and increase in power requires trim (down/up) and rudder trim (left/right)
    up, right
  11. An increase in airspeed and decrease in power requires trim (down/up) and rudder trim (left/right)
  12. The aerodynamic center is balanced around the ____________ of control surfaces
  13. __________ keeps control pressures associated with higher velocities within reasonable limits.
    aerodynamic balance
  14. The T-34C uses _________ on the elevator and rudder and uses __________ on the ailerons for aerodynamic balance.
    shielded horn, overhang
  15. __________ is used to gain a balance between control response and stability by placing weight inside the control surfaces in the area forward of the hingeline.
    mass balancing
  16. The three types of control systems are __________ , __________ and ___________.
    Conventional, Power-Boosted, Full Power (fly-by-wire)
  17. Conventional control uses ________, ___________, ___________ and ___________ to transfer control forces to control surfaces.
    push-pull tubes, pulleys, cables and levers.
  18. A servo trim tab __________.
    provides artificial feel and moves opposite direction of the aileron.
  19. The elevator uses a __________ trim tab.
  20. Rudder trim-tab is a ______________ trim tab.
  21. An anti-servo trim tab will move (with/opposite) the motion of the control surface at (the same, a faster, a slower) rate.
    with / at a faster rate.
  22. The tendency for an object to return to equilibrium is ___________.
  23. If an object is inherently statically unstable, can it be dynamically stable?
    No, but an object that is statically stable can be either dynamically stable or dynamically unstable.
  24. When an object moves toward its equilibrium over time, the oscilation is decribed as ___________.
  25. Directional static stability is stability of the _____________ axis around the __________ axis.
    longitudinal axis around the vertical axis.
  26. Bobweights and Downsprings are used for __________.
    Elevator artificial feel (weight at high g's, spring for slower flight)
  27. _______________ is the ease with which an airplane will move out of its equillibrium position.
  28. _____________ is the difficulty with which an airplane will move out of its equillibrium position.
  29. Two ways manueverability can be improved is by ___________ and/or ___________.
    increasing the size of the control surfaces and/or give it weak stability
  30. Which of the four forces of flight affect longitudinal stability?
    Lift and Weight
  31. Straight wings have _______ forward of _________ which causes longitudinal static ___________.
    AC / CG / Instability
  32. Swept wings have (increased/decrease) longitudinal stability due to the movement of the (CG/AC) closer to the more aft (CG/AC).
    increased, AC, CG
  33. The fuselage is a (- +) contributor to directional stability because __________.
    - , the fuselage experiences an AOA which creates lift and pushes the nose away from equilibrium.
  34. The ___________ is a symmetric airfoil designed to stabilize the airplane around the lateral axis.
    horizontal stabilizor
  35. ___________ has the greatest effect on longitudinal static stability.
    The horizontal stabilizer
  36. The _______ is the location of the CG along the longitudinal axis that would provide neutral longitudinal static stability and can be thought of as the ___________ of the airplance.
    Neutral Point (NP), AC
  37. The NP is __________ while the CG __________ on a conventional airplane.
    fixed, can be moved.
  38. _____________ is the stability of the longitudinal axis around the vertical axis.
    Directional static stability
  39. Sideslip ange is the angle between _______________.
    Relative wind and longitudinal axis.
  40. In a straight wing sideslip the advancing wing experiences ____________ velocity and __________ drag which causes ____________.
    increased, increased parasite, pulls it back to equilibrium position.
  41. In a swept wing sideslip the advancing wing experiences ____________ velocity and ______ ______ _______ drag which causes ____________.
    increased, increased parasite and induced, wing to return to equilibrium position.
  42. The greatest positive contributor to directional static stability is the ____________ , because it ___________.
    Vertical Stabilizer, experiences a increased AOA creating a horizontal lifting force with a greater moment arm pushing it back to equilibrium.
  43. Stability of the lateral axis around the longitudinal axis is ________________.
    Lateral Static Stability
  44. In a lateral sideslip where the down-going wing experiences greater AOA and lift, the airplane is experiencing ___________.
    dihedral effect
  45. _________ are the greatest negative contributors to lateral static stability.
    Anhedral wings
  46. In a lateral sideslip, the vertical stabilizer will ____________.
    experience an AOA the creates lift and a moment that tents to right the airplane.
  47. ________ is a condition of flight in which the reaction to a small initial sideslip results in an increase in sideslip angle.
    Direction Divergence
  48. Spiral divergence is associated with ______ directional and _________ lateral stability.
    strong dir, weak lat
  49. ___________ is the result of strong lateral stability and weak directional stability.
    Dutch roll
  50. _________ are long period oscillations (20-100 seconds) of altitude and airspeed while maintaining a nearly constant angle of attack.
    Phugoid Oscillations
  51. The tendency of an airplane to roll in the same direction as it yawing is _____________.
    proverse roll
  52. _________ is the tendency of an airplane to yaw away from the direction of aileron roll input.
    Adverse yaw
  53. Short period oscillations of pitch attitude and AOA are callled __________.
    Pilot induced oscillations (porpoising)
  54. Full opposite rudder may be required to compensate for the yawing moment while opposite aileron shoud be used to correct the proverse roll of this directional control problem.
    Asymmetric Thrust
  55. ________ describes the propeller imparting a corkscrewing motion the air.
    Slipstream Swirl
  56. ________ is the yawing moment caused by one prop blade creating more thrust than the other.
  57. Torque affects the body of the airplane by ____________
    twisting it the opposite direction of shaft rotation.
  58. When turning to the right, an airplane will tend to nose (left,right, down, up) due gyroscopic precession.
    nose down
  59. When applying backpressure to the stick, an airplane will tend to nose (left,right, down, up) due gyroscopic precession.
  60. When applying forward pressure to the stick, an airplane will tend to nose (left,right, down, up) due gyroscopic precession.
  61. ________ is an aggrivated stall that results in __________.
    Spin, autorotation
  62. Autorotation is _____________.
    a combination of roll and yaw that propagates itself and progressively gets worse due to asymmetrically stalled wings.
  63. In spin, the down-going wing is at a ______ AOA and has a (higher/lower) coef. of lift than the up-going wing.
    higher AOA, lower coef. of lift
  64. In spin, the up-going wing is at a ______ AOA and has a (higher/lower) coef. of drag than the up-going wing.
    lower AOA, lower coef. of drag
  65. In spin, the up-going wing has a _______ AOA, a ______ coef. of lift, and a ________ coef. of drag than the down-going wing.
    lower AOA, higher coef. of lift, lower coef. of drag.
  66. Erect spin instrument indications:
    Turn Needle
    • rapidly decreasing
    • 30 units
    • 80-100 kts
    • pegged in direction of spin
  67. Inverted spin instrument indications:
    Turn Needle
    • rapidly decreasing
    • 2-3 units (once established in the spin)
    • 0 airspeed
    • pegged in direction of spin
  68. T-34C uses a ________, _____ and ______ to decrease the severity of spin characteristics.
    dorsal fin (on top like a shark), strakes (on the side), ventral fins (below)

    located on empenage/aft fuselage
  69. Rotation rate increases as the pitch attitude in a spin ___________.
    becomes steeper
  70. In a spin, drag will be maximized with ________ elevator and minimized with __________ elevator.
    full down , full up
  71. An accelerated spin is ________________.
    Any stick position other than full aft that will result in a steeper pitch attitude and an increase in rotation rate.
  72. An aggravated spin is ____________ and caused by ___________.
    an extreme case of accelerated spin, caused by pushing the stick forward while maintaining rudder in the direction of the spin.
  73. This spin is cause by opposite rudder with full aft stick and causes the airplane to spin in the opposite direction.
    progressive spin.
  74. T-34C Spin Recovery Procedures
    • Landing gear/flaps up
    • Verify spin indications on instruments (aoa, airspeed, turn-needle)
    • Position stick forward of neutral (ailerons neutral)
    • erect- push force
    • inverted- pull force
    • neutralize controls as spins stops
    • recover from the ensuing unusual attitude.
  75. ____________ is described as changing the direction of the airplanes flight path by reorienting the lift vector in the desired direction.
    Turning flight
  76. Load Factor
    The ratio of total lift to the airplane's weight L/W
  77. Every object at rest in equilibrium is exeperiencing ____ g's.
  78. Accelerated Stall Speed Equation
    • Vso= sqrt(2Wn/pSClmax)
    • IASso=sqrt(2Wn/p_oSClmax)
  79. As load factor approaches ____ G's, the pilot will notice a sensation of blood draining from the head and a tendency for his face to sag
  80. A _____ is a stress-producing force that is imposed upon an airplane or component.
  81. Strength
    a measure of a material's resistance to load.
  82. The two types of strength are ______ and ______ strength.
    static and dynamic
  83. Service Life
    the number of applications of load or force that a component can withstand before it has the probability of failing.
  84. A metal is subected to high stress and temperature may be subjected to ________.
    Creep: plastic deformation; stretching and elongation
  85. Limit Load Factor
    T-34C Limit Load Factors
    • The greatest load facator an airplane can sustain without any risk of permanent deformation.
    • T-34C: +4.5 and -2.3 Gs
  86. Overstress/Over-G
    The condition of possible permanent deformation or damage that results from exceeding the limit load factor.
  87. Elastic Limit
    The maximum load that may be applied to a component without permanent deformation
  88. Ultimate Load Factor
    The maximum load factor that the airplane can withstand without structural failure. There will be some permanent deformation at the ultimate load factor.
  89. The point where the accelerated stall lines and the limit load factor line intersect is the __________.
    manuevering point.
  90. IAS at the manuevering point is known as _________.
    Manuevering speed = Va = cornering velocity
  91. Redline Airspeed is known as ________.
  92. Factors that affect the safe flight envelope are ________, __________, __________, ___________ and _________.
    Gross Weight, Altitude, Configuration, Asummetric loading, and Gust loading
  93. A decrease in weight will cause the accelerated stall lines to sweep to the (left/right) and causes maneuvering speed to _______.
    • left (since a decrease in weight decreases an airplane's stall speed)
    • decrease
  94. How does weight affect red line speed?
    it does not affect red line speed
  95. An altitude increase will cause Vne to __________
  96. Above 20,000 feet, the T-34C's redline speed decreases to ______kts
  97. T-34C's max ROC speed is ______kts and is found to the (left,right )@of L/DMax AOA
    100kts @ AOA
  98. T-34Cs max AOC speed is ____ kts and is to the (left,right,@) of L/Dmax AOA.
    • 75 kts
    • left of AoA (higher AoA)
  99. When high lift devices and the landing gear devices are extended, the airplane's safety envelope will _________
    substantially decrease.
  100. Under assymetric loading, the limit load factor due to pilot induced loads should be reduced to approximately _____ of the _________.
    two-thirds / normal limit load factor
  101. In the T-34c, maximum load factor during asymmetric loading is ________.
    3Gs = (2/3x4.5)
  102. Vne Speeds for T-34c:
    Open Canopy
    Landing Gear Down
    Flaps down
    • 240kias
    • 150kias
    • 120kias
  103. Asymmetric loading may be caused by _____, _______ and ________.
    rolling pullout, hung ordanance, or trapped fuel.
  104. _______ refers to the increase in the G load due to verical wind gusts.
    Gust Loading
  105. When encoutering gust loading while under asymmetric loading, the 2/3 rule is used (once, twice, three times).
  106. Maximum airspeed for the T-34C in moderate turbulence is __________.
  107. Turn performance is measured by ________ and _________.
    Turn rate and Turn radius
  108. Turn Rate
    heading change in degrees per second
  109. Turn Radius
    measure of the raduis of the circle the flight path scribes
  110. Of the three factors that limit turn performance, which ones are found on the Vn diagram?
    Clmax AOA and limit load factor are found on the Vn diagram at the maneuver point.
  111. Three factors affecting turn performance
    Thrust, Clmax AOA, and limit load factor
  112. T/F : Weight has an affect on turn rate and radius performance.
  113. Skid and Slip
    Skid into a turn, Slip out of a turn
  114. Skid
    too much rudder in a turn
  115. Slip
    not enough rudder in the direction of turn
  116. Definition: Takeoffs and Landings
    Transitional maneuvers during which the weight of the airplane is shifted between the landing gear and the wings.
  117. Takeoff and Landing Speed Equations
    • Vto=1.2*sqrt(2W/pSClmax)
    • Vldg= 1.3*sqrt(2W/pSClmax)

    IAS uses standard day sea-level density
  118. _________ accounts for the effects of friction between the landing gear and the runway.
    Rolling Friction Force (Fr)
  119. Fr equation
    • Fr=u(W-L)
    • u=coefficient of friction
  120. Net Accelerating Force
    Net Decelerating Force
    • T-D-Fr
    • D+Fr-T
  121. ____________ is the greatest factor in determining takeoff distance.
  122. Minimum takeoff distance equation
    Minimum landing distance equation
    Sto=W^2 / (gpSClmax(T-D-Fr))

    Sldg= W^2 / (gpSClmax(D+Fr-T))
  123. Three major factors that decrease density are _________, _________ and __________.

    (4-H Club)
    increasing airfield elevation, increasing air temperature, increasing humidity.

    (High, Hot, Heavy, Humid)
  124. High lift devices such as flaps or BLC will _________ takeoff distance.
  125. Three ways to increase the net decelerating force are __________, ________ and __________.
    Aerodynamic Braking, Mechanical Braking, Beta Thrust

    • AeroBraking: increasing Dp by holding constant pitch at ldg
    • Mechanical: brake pads. only effective after weight transfer
    • Beta: reverse pitch propellers
  126. Hydroplaning Equation
    Vhydro=9*sqrt(tire pressure)
  127. __________ are spiraling masses of air that are formed at the wigntip when an airplane produces lift.
    Wingtip Vortices
  128. The most significant factor affecting your ability to counteract the roll induced by wingtip vortices is ______________ between the two airplanes
    relative wingspan
  129. Vortices cover an area of __________________ and sink at a rate of __________.
    • two wingspans in width and one in height.
    • 400-500 ft/min
  130. Exercise caution when using runways that are less than ________ apart.
    2500 ft
  131. Strength of wingtip vortices depend on what three factors?
    Weight, Airplane Speed, Wing Shape
  132. The greatest vortex strength occurs at what configuration?
    Slow Clean and Heavy
  133. Visual clues of wind shear include ______, ________, ____________, ____________.
    virga, localized blowing dust, rain shafts with rain diverging away from the core of the cell, indication of lighting or tornado-like activity
  134. state the motion that each control surface creates
    Ailerons and spoilers are used for roll control. the rudder is used to yaw. the elveators are used for pitch control only.
  135. what control deflection is required to induce a nose up pitching moment?
    a nose-up pitch is created by moving the stick aft to move the elevator upward.
  136. What control deflection is required to induce a rolling moment to the right?
    a right roll is created by moving the stick right to move the left aileron down and the right aileron up.
  137. What are the functions of the trim tabs? What elevator trim tab deflection is required to maintain equilibrium for a nose-up pitch attitude?
    trimming reduces the force required to hold control surfaces in a position necessary to maintain a desired flight attitude. The elevatortrim tab must be moved down to hold the elevator up, causing a nose-up pitch attitude.
  138. What provides aerodynamic balance for the rudder and elevator of the T-34C
    Shielded horn
  139. What is used for aerodynamic balancing of the T-34C?
  140. What is responsible for mass balancing on the elevator of the T-34C?
    lead weight in the shielded horn
  141. What type of controls does the T-34C use? How do cockpit control inputs move the control surfaces?
    conventional controls: push-pull tubes, pulleys, cables, and levers.
  142. What type of trim tabs are used on the T-34C aileron, elevator and rudder? What types assist the pilot?
    • aileron: servo
    • elevator: neutral
    • rudder: anti-servo
  143. What is installed in the elevator system of the T-34C and is responsible for increasing the amount of force required to move the stick aft?
    combination of bobweights and a downspring to provide the pilot with some artificial.
  144. define static and dynamic stability
    Static stability is the initial tendency of an object to move toward or away from its original equilibrium position. Dynamic stability is the tendency of an object to return toward or move away from equilibrium with respect to time.
  145. What is the characterisitc stability of divergent oscillation
    Divergent oscillation is associated with positive static and negative dynamic stability.
  146. What is the relationship between stability and maneuverability?
    manueverability and stability are inversely related.
  147. What motion does longitudinal stability concern?
    longitudinal stability concerns the stability of the longitudinal axis around the lateral axis. this is the motion of pitch.
  148. HOw do the fuselage, horizontal stabilizer, wing, wing sweep and location of the CH affect the longitudinal stability of an airplane?
    • horizontal stabilizer ++
    • fuselage -
    • straight wings -
    • wing sweep +
    • if CG fwd of NP then overall positive stability
  149. What effect does increasing wing sweep angle have on the location of the wing's aerodynamic center?
    Sweeping the wing aft moves the AC aft
  150. What factors determine the magnitude of the contribuition of the horizontal stabilizer to longitudinal stability?
    Surface area and distance from the CG
  151. Define sideslip angle
    angle between long axis and the rel wind
  152. What motion does directional stability concern?
    directional stability concerns the stability of the longitudinal axis around the verical axis. this motion is yaw.
  153. How do the fuselage, straight wing, swept wing, and vertical stabilizer affect directional stability of an airplane?
    The fuselage is a negative contribuotr to directional static stability. the vertical stabilizer is the greatest positive contributor to directional stability. Straight and swept wings are positive contributors to directional static stability.
  154. What motion does lateral stability concern?
    Lateral stability concerns the stability of the lateral axis around the longitudinal axis. this motion is roll.
  155. 12
    Wing diheral is the greatest positive contributor to lateral static stability. A low mounted wing is laterally destabilizing and a high mounted wing will be laterally stabilizing. Swept wings, dihedral, and the vertical stabilizer are laterally stabilizing. Anhedral is laterally destabilizing.
  156. 13
    directional divergence is a result of negative directional static stability. spiral divergence results from strong directional and weak lateral static stability. dutch roll is the result of strong lateral and weak directional stability.
  157. What is the tendency of an airplane to yaw away from the direction of roll? What causes it?
    Adverse yaw. The additional drag on the up-going wing due to increased camber.
  158. 15
    What is the tendency of an airplane to roll into the direction of yaw? What causes it?
    Proverse roll. increased velocity on the on the outer wing creates more lift.
  159. 16
    What must be done to achieve zero sideslip in case of an asymmetric thrust condition?
    opposite rudder must be used
  160. 17
    If the relative wind is below the thrust line, which blade will produce more thrust, the down-going or up-going blade? Why? Which way will the nose of the airplane yaw?
    if the relative wind is below the thrust line, the down-going blade will create more thrust and will yaw the nose to the left.
  161. 18
    If the PCL is suddenly pushed forward, the T-34C will tend to roll ______ due to an increase in ________. If the nose of the airplane is suddenly pushed down, gyroscopic precession will tend to yaw the T-34c to the ________.
    left, torque, left.
  162. Define Spin. What are the two requirements for entering a spin?
    A spin is an aggravated stall that results in autorotation. Stall and Yaw.
  163. Compare the up-going and down-going wings in a spin with respect to AOA, Cl and Cd.
    The up-going wing has a lower AOA, more lift and less drag than the down-going wing, which has a higher AOA and therfore more drag and less lift.
  164. What instruments should a pilot observe to determine whether he or she is in a spin?
    AOA, airspeed and turn needle (the altimeter is monitored to ensure compliance with bailout/ejection criteria).
  165. How do high gross weights affect the rate of spin entry?
    A heavier aircraft will have a slower spin entry due to a greater inertial moment.
  166. How do high pitch attitudes affect the rate of spin entry?
    The lower stall speed will result in a slower spin entry.
  167. What are the basic spin recovery procedures from an erect spin?
    Break the stall and stop rotation
  168. What would be the result if the rudder were maintained in the direction of spin during a spin recovery?
    An aggraved spin.
  169. What is the cause of an erect spin?
    Positive-g stall entry with yaw.
  170. In which direction are spin entries more oscillatory and take longer to stabilize in the T-34C?
  171. During a recovery from an inverted spin, what action should be taken when the rotation stops?
    recover from unusual attitude
  172. What must be done to the total lift vector in order to make a constant altitude turn?
    The total lift vector must increase in magnitude.
  173. In a constant altitude turn, what are the two components of total lift? What part does each play in turning the airplane?
    The vertical component of lift must equal airplane weight. The horizontal component turns the airplane.
  174. What is the ration of total lift to airplane weight called?
    Load factor or Gs
  175. What determines the load factor on an aircraft in a level turn?
    Angle of Bank
  176. How many Gs willl an F/A-18 produce in a 70 degree AOB level turn?
  177. What effect does an increase in angle of bank have on the load factor in order to maintain altitude in a 90 degree angle of bank turn? How can an airplane maintain its altitude in a 90 degree angle of bank turn?
    As the AOB approaches 90 degrees, the load factor apporaches infinity. An airplane can maintain 90 dg AOB only by creating lift on a source other than the wings, such as the fuselage, vertical stabilizer, etc.
  178. Describe the effects of turning/manuevering flight on stall speed.
    Stall speed increase during turning or manuevering flight because of the increase in the load factor.
  179. Define static strength and fatigue strength.
    Static strength is a resistance to a single application of force. Fatigue strength is a resistance to a cyclic application of force.
  180. State and define the two types of metal failure.
    Static failure is the breaking of a material due to a single application of a steadily increasing load or force. Fatigue failure is the breaking of a material due to a cyclic application of load or force.
  181. Define limit load factor. What will occur when the limit load factor is exceeded?
    Limit load factor is the greates load facotr an airplane can sustain without any risk of permanent deformation. Exceeding the limit load factor will cause overstress.
  182. What are the positive and negative limit load factors of the T-34C?
    +4.5 and -2.3 Gs
  183. The _____________ is the maximum load that may be applied to a component without permanent deformation. When a component is stressed beyond the ___________, it will experience some permanent deformation.
    elastic limit, elastic limit.
  184. 1-11-13
    Define ultimate load factor. What will happen if the ultimate load factor is exceeded? What is the ultimate load factor if the limit load factor is 6.0 Gs?
    The maximum load factor that the airplane can withstand without structural failure. If the ultimate load factor is exceeded, structural failure is imminent. 9.0 Gs (150%).
  185. What is the vertical axis on the V-n diagram? Why is the horizontal axis of the V-n diagram labeled IAS?
    Load factor. IAS is what the pilot sees in the cockpit.
  186. What are the accelerated stall lines?
    Accelerated stall lines represent the maximum load factor that an airplane can produce based on airspeed. They are also called the lines of maximum lift (Clmax AOA)
  187. Define maneuvering speed. What is the maneuvering speed of the T-34C?
    Maneuvering speed is the lowest airspeed that the airplane can produce its limit load factor. T-34C Va=135 KIAS (at max gross weight)
  188. Define redline airspeed. List the phenomena that determine redline airspeed.
    Maximum allowable speed. Redline airspeed is dependent upon Mcrit, airframe temperature, structural loads, and controllability.
  189. How does an increase in weight affect the limit load factor and ultimate load factor? Redline airspeed? Accelerated stall lines?
    An increase in weight decreases the limit load factor and ultimate load factor, has no effect on the redline airspeed, and sweeps the accelerated stall lines to the right.
  190. How does an increase in altitude affect the limit load factor and ultimate load factor? Redline airspeed? Accelerated stall lines?
    decrease redline airspeed, but have no effect on limit load factor, ultimate load factor or accelerated stall lines.
  191. How will changing the configuration affect the size and shape of the safe flight envelope?
    Configuration can greatly alter every component of the safe flight envelope.
  192. When encoutering asymmetric loading, what must the pilot do to prevent overstress? Give several examples of asymmetric loading.
    pilot must adhere to the asymmetric limit load factor which is approximately two thirds of the limit load factor. Asymmetric loading will occur as a result of a rolling pullout, trapped fuel, or hung ordnance.
  193. 1-11-22
    Identify the stress condition placed on an airplane by turbulence. What must the pilot do to prevent damage to the airplane when encoutering turbulence?
    Gust loading. In moderate turbulence, pilot induced loading should be reduced to tow thirds of the normal limit load factor, and any airspeed limitations must be strictly adhered to,
  194. What is the maximum turbulent air penetration airspeed for the T-34C? If the T-34C were to accidentally fly into severe or extreme turbulence, at what airspeed should you fly?
    195 KIAS; 135 KIAS (manuevering speed)
  195. When airspeed is increased in a level utrn, a constant rate turn may be maintained by _________ the angle of bank. This will _________ the load factor.
    Increasing, increase
  196. As velocity decreases at a constant angle of bank, turn rate will _______. With an increase in angle of bank at a constant airspeed, turn radius will _________.
    increase, decrease
  197. What controls must the pilot adjust in order to perform a coordinated 30 degree AOB level turn to the left?
    move control stick to left to begin rolling, add left rudder to overcome adverse yaw, pull aft stick to increase total lift, increase throttle to overcome induced drag. laterally neutralize stick approaching 30 degrees AOB.
  198. How many seconds will it take to complete a standard rate turn for 210 degrees of heading change?
    70 seconds (standard turn: 3 degrees per second)
  199. In a slip, the yawing movement is toward the (inside/outside) of the turn, turn radius will (increase/decrease) and turn rate will (increase/decrease).
    outside, increase, decrease
  200. 1-11-29
    An uncoordinated turn in which the airplane is yawing toward the inside is called a ________. Turn radius will ______, turn rate will ________, and the turn needle and ball will be on (opposite sides/the same side).
    skid, decrease, increase, opposite sides
  201. 1-12-1
    Indicate the effect of each of the following factors on takeoff and landing true and indicated airspeeds:
    Weight increase
    Altitude increase
    High Lift Devices
    • Vto Vldg IASto IASldg
    • weight up up up up
    • altitude up up n/e n/e
    • hdwd n/e n/e n/e n/e
    • HLD dwn dwn dwn dwn
  202. State the forces acting on an airplane during takeoff roll. Which one is most unbalanced?
    thrust, drag, lift, weight, and rolling friction. thrust is most unbalanced.
  203. What is rolling friction? What variables determine rolling friction and the coefficient of friction? When is rolling friction greatest?
    Rolling friction is produced by the effectos fo friction between the tire and the runway during takeoff or landing. it is determined by multipling the coefficient of friction by weight on wheels. It is greatest at teh beginning of the takeoff roll, or the end of the landing rollout.
  204. What are the factors that affect takeoff and landing?
    Weight, density, wing area, Clmax, thrust, drag and rolling friction.
  205. What variable has the single greates effect on the minimum distance required to takeoff or land?
  206. What is the effect of an increase in altitude on take off distance? Temperature?
    takeoff distance increases
  207. What will an increase in humididty do to landing distance?
    humidity increases landing distance.
  208. If an airplane takes off with a tailwind, takeoff distance would ________, TAS would _______ and ground speed would ________.
    increase, remain the same, increase
  209. What are the worst conditions for takeoff?
    4-h club: high hot humid heavy
  210. Using a drag chute to increase drag is an example of ________ braking.
    aerodynamic braking
  211. Given the following runway winds, check the types of landings that are allowed in the T-34C

    HdWnd Crosswind Full Flap No Flap
    25.............. 0
    21.5 ..........12.5
    12.5 ..........21.5
    0 ................25
    • HdWnd Crosswind Full Flap No Flap
    • 25............... 0................ x............ x
    • 21.5 .............12.5......... x............. x
    • 12.5 x
  212. What is the effect of ground effect on total lift, effective lift, induced drag, total drag, and thrust required?
    ground effect does not affect total lift. ground effect increases effective lift, reduces induced drag, total drag, and thrust required.
  213. With ______ inches of standing water on the runway, a pilot should utilize Beta or aerodynamic braking to slow the airplane prior to wheel braking. Thi procedure will greatly reduce the risk of ________.
    more that 0.1 hydroplaning
  214. What hazard to flight is the result of the increase in downwash caused by spanwise flow around the wingtip on a finite wing?
    wingtip vortices
  215. Wingtip vortices will cover an area approximately _________ wide and _________ high. They will be strongest when the generating aircraft is _______, _________, and ________.
    2 wingspans, 1 wingspan, heavy, slow, clean
  216. When taking off behind a heavy aircraft in a T-34C, the pilot should allow for a minimum spacing of __________ minute(s).
  217. What should a pilot dow to avoid a larger airplane's wake turnbulence during landing?
    when landing behind a large airplane, stay at or above the other airplane;s flight path and land byeond its nosewheel touchdown point. when landing behind a departing large airplane, land well prior to its rotation point.
  218. What should a pilot do to avoid a hovering helicopter's wake turbulence during ground taxi operation?
    small airplanes should avoid operating within three rotor diameters of any hovering helicopter.
  219. What are telltale signs of microburst activity in the vicinity of thunderstorms?
    roll clouds, gusty conditions and blowing dust
  220. Tower informs a pilot waiting number one for takeoff that a landing aircraft just reported a 20 knot decrease in airspeed due to wind shear at apprioximately 100 ft AGL. What should the pilot do?
    delay takeoff until sheer condition no longer exists.
  221. How can a pilot determine whether a wind shear condition exists?
    low level wind shear alert system (LLWAS), NEXRAD doppler radar system. PIREPS, departure or arrival weather reports.
  222. What curves determine fuel flow for a turboprop and a turbo jet?
    • Power-turboprop
    • Thrust-jet
  223. Define maximum endurance and maximum range
    • Max endurance :max time airborne for given amount of fuel
    • Max range: max distance over ground for a given amount of fuel
  224. What performance profiles occur at L/D max?
    Prop max range, jet max endurance
  225. What is the effect of weight on maximum endurance and maximum range? What happens to maximum endrance and maximum range airspeed when weight is increased?
    Max endurance and max range performance will decrease. both airspeeds will increase.
  226. What is the effecto fo altitude on max endurance and max range? what ahppens to max endurance and max range airspeed when altitude is increased?
    The higher TAS along with better fuel efficiency will yield an increase in range and endurance.
  227. What effect does a tailwind have on max range and max endurance? their airspeeds?
    A tailwind will increase max range but will not affect endurance. max range airspeed will decrease, max endurance airspeed will not be affected.
  228. What effect does lowering the landing gear have on fuel flow at max endurance airspeed?
    fuel flow is greatly increased
  229. Define max AOC
    the angle that achieves the greatest altitude for the minimum distance covered over the ground.
  230. How do jets and props achieve max AOC?
    Full throttle, jets at l/dmax, props slower than l/d max.
  231. Which statement is true concerning jet and prop climb performance?
    A) jets will always climb fast that props
    B) max ROC AOA is smaller than max AOC
    C) Max AOC airspeed is faster than max ROC
    D) Jets and props climb at the same AOA, but different airspeeds
    B. Max rate of climb AOA is smaler than max AOC
  232. What profile should a pilot fly to clear a tall obstacle on takeoff? What airspeed is this in the T-34C?
    Max AOC, 75KIAS
  233. How do altitude and weight changes affect max ROC and Max AOC?
    increase in altitude or weight will decrease the excess thrust and power resulting in a decrease in maximum rate of climb and maximum angle of climb.
  234. What is the name for the altitude at which max power excess equals zero?
    Absolute ceiling
  235. At what AOA and velocity would you achieve max glide endurance?
    At an AOA greater tha L/Dmax and a velocity less than L/D max
  236. At what AOA and velocity would an airplane achieve max glide range?
    at L/D max AOA and Velocity
  237. How do altitude, weight and headwinds affect glide performance?
    increase in altitude will increase both glide range and glide endurance. An increase in weight decreases glide endurance but does not affect glide range. A headwind will decrease glide range and have no effect on glide endurance.
  238. From 10,000ft AGL, approximately how far could a T-34C glide with no winds?
    20-22 nm
  239. What item of configuration will cause the greates increase in sink rate?
    Windmilling propeller
  240. What are the throttle requirements in relation to airspeed in the region of reverse command?
    Decrease in airspeed requires an increase in throttle
  241. In the region of reverse command, what is the effect of an increase in AOA with no change in throttle?
    If an airplane increases AOA without increasing the throttle, it will develop a deficit which causes either a deceleration or a descent.
  242. Lifting the nosewheel below the minimum nosewheel liftoff/touchdown speed may cause what?
    the airplane to weathercock or wethervane into the wind and possibly run off the runway.
  243. You are hydroplaning on the runway. Should you use frictional braking?
    No-avoid frictional braking when hydroplaning.
  244. Max Crosswind components for the T-34C are______ for full flaps and ______ for no flaps.
    • 15kts full
    • 22kts none
Card Set
Aero II
API - Aero II Chapter 7-12
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