Quiz 10 (and Exam 4)

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  1. Anti-fibrolytic agent for treating heavy menstrual bleeding?
  2. Lysteda MOA
    • synthetic lysine AA derivative
    • diminishes the dissolution of fibrin by plasmin
    • occupies lysine receptor binding sites for fibrin
    • preserves and stabilizes fibrin's matrix structure = less bleeding
  3. Clomid MOA
    increases pituitary output of gonatropins
  4. treats ovarian failure and male infertility?
  5. indicated for final follicular maturation and to induce ovulation?
    chorionic gonadotropin alpha (Ovidrel)
  6. natural bio product obtained from cadavers to treat prepubertal cryptorchidism, hypogonadism, stimulates ovulation?
    chorionic gonadotropin (Chorex-5, Profasi, Pregnyl)
  7. Vantus implant indication?
    palliative treatment of advanced prostate cancer by decreasing testosterone levels to castrate concentrations following the first week of use
  8. Supprelin injections indication?
    central precocious puberty
  9. Synarel nasal solution indication?
    • endometriosis
    • central precocious puberty
  10. Lutrepulse injection indication?
    primary hypothalamic amenorrhea
  11. What are Fertinex, Gonal-F, Follistim, Pergonal, Humegon and Repronex and what are they used for?
    • gonadotropins
    • used to induce ovulation, stimulate follicles or spermatogenesis in men
  12. Name the two GnRH antagonists used to treat infertility.
    • Antagon
    • Cetrotide
  13. A recombinant form of human LH to stimulate follicular development in infertile women?
    Luveris (lutropin alfa for injection)
  14. What gonadotropin has to be administered subQ at the same time as Luveris?
  15. How much LH would a women need to be producing to be selected to use Luveris?
    less than 1.2 IU/liter
  16. What is Plenaxis for?
    txt of advanced prostate cancer to achieve chemical castration
  17. What drug is an IM suspension of synthetic decapeptide that is given on days 1, 15, 29 and then every 4 weeks for another 6 months?
  18. Which drug for treating prostate cancer can cause QT elongation (and torsades depointes), hepatic damage, osteoporosis, and/or life-threatening allergic reaction?
  19. This drug reduces the secretion of testosterone from the testes by a direct and competitive blockade of GnRH (and suppresses LH and FSH)?
  20. What is testosterone primarily metabolized to?
    5 alpha dihydrotestosterone
  21. This hormone is responsible for maintaining proper prostate function in men?
    5 alpha DHT
  22. 17 beta hydroxyl of testosterone is ______ to 17-ketone and the 3-ketone group is _________ to 3 alpha and 3 beta hydroxyl groups of 5 alpha DHT?
    • oxidized
    • reduced
  23. What are some adverse effects seen in women who take testosterone?
    • hirsutism
    • deep voice (irreversible)
    • depressed menstruation
    • altered serum lipid levels
  24. What schedule are the androgens and anabolic drugs?
  25. What drug interactions do the anabolic/androgenic steroids cause?
    • increased anticoag (bleeding)
    • interfere w/ lab work
  26. buccal mucoadhesive testosterone (short acting)
  27. SubQ testosterone pellets
  28. transdermal testosterone patch
    Testoderm, Androderm
  29. aqueous testosterone suspension
  30. topical solution for hypogonadism
    Axiron, Fortesta
  31. Long acting testosterone prodrugs for injection?
    • Andro LA
    • Depo-Testosterone
  32. Danazol indication
    • endometriosis
    • fibrocystic breast disease
    • hereditary angioedema
  33. Danazol MOA
    inhibits pituitary gonadotropins
  34. What do they use to test for prostate cancer (antigen)?
    PSA (prostate specific antigen)
  35. Name the 3 steroids for BPH.
    • finasteride (Proscar, Propecia)
    • dutasteride (Avodart)
    • dutasteride + tamsulosin (Jalyn)
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Quiz 10 (and Exam 4)
2012-04-25 00:58:07

steroids and such (slides 42-91)
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