The flashcards below were created by user pamlangley02 on FreezingBlue Flashcards.

  1. ac
    before meals
  2. gr
  3. gm
  4. mg
  5. mcg
  6. NPO
    nothing by mouth
  7. pc
    after meals
  8. KCl
    potassium chloride
  9. NaCl
    sodium chloride
  10. NS
    normal saline
  11. Cl
  12. Fe
  13. K
  14. KCl
    Potassium chloride
  15. Na
  16. Vit
  17. Q4h
    every 4 hrs
  18. NG
  19. KVO
    keep vein open
  20. PCA
    patient-controlled analgesia
  21. 25 mg conversion
    0.025 g
  22. 25 mcg conversion
    0.25 mg
  23. 1 1/4 mg conversion
    1.25 mg
  24. 0.06 conversion
    6 percent
  25. 0.75 conversion
  26. 2/5 conversion
    40 percent
  27. 0.6 conversion
    60 percent
  28. 2.25 conversion
  29. its the responsibility of the health care worker to:
    repeat the name of the drug, dosage, frequency & route to the physician
  30. morphine sulfate 2mg IV every 2 hurs PRN pain may be given:
    every 2 hrs as needed for patients complaints of pain
  31. which system of measurement is preferred at the present time:
    metric system
  32. which system is the original system for measuring medications:
    apothecary system
  33. which system of measurement is the least accurate:
    household system
  34. appropriate patient education for a patient learning how to measure liquid meds includes:
    its inappropriate to use tableware to measure meds
  35. all phone orders must be:
    read back for accuracy
  36. which is the correct conversion for 75 kg:
    165 pounds
  37. an order reads Nitrostat 1 tab SL q 5 min x 3 prn chest pain should be interpreted as:
    Nitrostat 1 tablet sublingually every 5 minutes, 3 times as need for chest pain
  38. part of a medication order:
    • med name
    • dose or amount
    • manner of administration
    • time to be administered
    • author of the note
  39. considerations to observed when explaining drug preperation to elderly patients include:
    • hearing difficulties
    • visual impairments
    • inclusion of a family member
    • speak slowly & clearly & offer extra time for comprehension & questions
  40. what is the best method for calculating the correct dosage when necessary:
    check whether all measurements are in the same system, write the equation & check for accuracy
  41. an important consideration to keep in mind when calculating dosages is:
    take extra care with decimals
  42. older adult patients need:
    careful assessment is required on an individual basis including medical conditions & concomitant medications
  43. incorrect format for a medication decimal #:
  44. incorrect format for a medication decimal #:
  45. the preferred way to write the indicated amount:
    2 g
  46. when administering meds to a pediatric patient, it must be kept in mind that:
    children are not miniature adults
  47. auranofin:
  48. codeine:
  49. synthroid:
  50. demerol:
  51. hepatitis B vaccine:
    recombinant DNA
  52. digitalis:
  53. bactrim:
  54. morphine:
  55. human growth hormone:
    recombinant DNA
  56. monoclonal antibody therapies:
    recombinant DNA
  57. the most actively pursued source of new drugs today is:
  58. when medication reaches widespread areas of the body its called:
    systemic effect
  59. when medication effect is limited to the area of the body where its administered, its called:
    local effect
  60. the initial high dose used to quickly elevate the level of the drug in the blood is called:
    loading dose
  61. amount of a drug that will produce harmful side effects or symptoms of poisoning is called:
    toxic dose
  62. distribution of a drug occurs in the :
    circulatory system
  63. metabolism of a drug occurs in the:
  64. a condition that may slow absorption of a drug is:
    full or empty stomach
  65. an affinity or attraction of a drug to a specific organ or cell is called:
    selective distribution
  66. the opposing action of 2 drugs in which 1 decrease or cancels out the effect of the other is called:
  67. an inactive substance that resembles a medication is called:
  68. variables affecting the speed & efficiency of drugs being processed by the body are:
    • age
    • weight
    • sex
    • psychological state
  69. a unique, unusual response to a drug in a given patient is called:
  70. a decrease response to a drug that develops after repeated doses are given is:
  71. an immune response to a drug that may be of varying degree is:
  72. what is an IND:
    investigational new drug
  73. sweetened, flavored, liquid drug form is called:
  74. liquid drug forms with an alcohol base is called:
  75. liquid form of medication that must be shaken well before administration is called:
  76. most common classification of drugs given rectally include:
    • sedatives
    • antiemetics
    • antipyretics
  77. injection directly to a vein is:
  78. injection into a muscle is:
  79. injection into fatty layer of tissue below the skin in known as:
  80. injection delivered just beneath the skin is:
  81. needle & syringe are positioned at a 90 degree angle from the skin for what type of injections:
  82. needle & syringe are positioned at a 45 degree angle from the skin for what type of injections:
  83. needle & syringe are positioned at a 15 degree angle from the skin for what type of injections:
  84. a specified volume of drug injected by syringe into a peripheral lock or port on a intravenous line:
    IV push
  85. a drug diluted in a specified volume of fluid for intermitten infusion at specified intervals is called:
    IV piggyback
  86. contains drug molecules that can be absorbed through the skin:
    dermal patch
  87. a semisolid preparation containing a drug is called a:
    cream or ointment
  88. drugs in sterile liquids to be applied by drops are:
    eye, ear & nose drops
  89. sterile, semisolid preparations for ophthalmic use only are:
    eye ointments
  90. a drug suspended in a substance that melts at body temp is:
  91. solutions used to irrigate the vaginal canals are:
    douche solutions
  92. what is commonly used for dispensing tablets, capsules, & oral liquid meds:
    medicine cups
  93. a small glass container that must be broken at the neck to obtain the solution is called:
  94. a glass container sealed at the top by a rubber stopper is called:
  95. a sterile hypodermic syringe with a capacity of 2-3mL marked with 10 calibrations per mL is called:
  96. a syringe with a capacity of 1 mL or less & marked in units is an:
    TB syringe
  97. the route of administration by which medication may be delivered via humidification directly into the respiratory system is:
  98. an MDI is used to deliver medication by inhalation. What does it stand for:
    Metered dose inhaler
  99. the health care practioner understands that a complete understanding of appropriate___ for each topical medication is vital before administration:
  100. antipruritics are used short term to relieve discomfort from dermatitis related to:
    • allergic reactions
    • poison ivy
    • hives
    • insect bites
  101. patients being treated with antipruritics should be instructed to:
    first clean the area thoroughly & then apply by gentle rubbing until med vanishes
  102. corticosteroids are used _____ to treat___:
    • topically & systemically
    • dermatological disorders associated with allergic reactions
  103. for allergic reactions the antihistamine Benedryl is administered ___ for systemic effects:
  104. one of the side effects of long-term use of corticosteriod ointment or cream is:
    increased fragility of cutaneous blood vessels
  105. topical corticosteriods are also used to treat:
    • psoriasis
    • seborrheic dematitis
  106. use of corticosteriods is contraindicated in patients with:
    • bacterial or fungal skin infections
    • cutaneous or systemic viral infections
  107. when a corticosteriod ointment or cream is used for long term, a possible side effect is:
    epidermal thinning, w/frequent skin tears & increased risk of infection & frequent bruising
  108. used topically to protect or soothe minor dermatological conditions, such as diaper rash, abrasions & minor burns:
    demulcents & protectants
  109. used to control conditions of abnormal scaling of the skin, such as dandruff, seborrhea & psoriasis:
    keratolytic agents
  110. topical enzyme collagenase (Santyl) should only be used on wounds associated with:
    necrotic tissue
  111. 2 major antiseptics in use today are__ & used for:
    • chlorhexidene & povidone-iodine
    • used for surgical scrubs & as bacteriostatic skin cleansers
  112. largest organ of the body:
  113. absorption of topical meds will be more rapid if the skin area is:
  114. a topical antipruritic med:
  115. generic name for Benedryl:
  116. a topical keratolytic med:
    Salicylic acid
  117. side effects of topical corticosteriods include:
    activation of latent infections & slow healing
  118. best description of scabies a health care practioner can give a patient:
    caused by an itch mite that burrows under the skin
  119. in the treatment of pediculosis, which is the safer alternative to lindane:
  120. the best explanation of pediculosis for a patient:
    caused by an infestation of lice on the hairs of the scalp, pubic area or trunk
  121. when treating candidiasis of the oral cavity, how should Mycostatin oral suspension or oral lozenges be administered:
    4 times a day for 14 days
  122. correct statement about topical acyclovir therapy:
    decreases the duration of viral shedding, pain and itching
  123. substances that inhibit the growth of bacteria:
  124. what topical med for burns would be ordered for a patient with an allergy to sulfa:
  125. correctly describes pertinent education for the patient using an acne agent:
    avoid multivitamins or nutritional supplements that contain Vit A & the antacid aluminum hydroxide
  126. treat scabies:
  127. prevent or treat infection of burned tissue:
  128. prevent & treat infection:
    local anti-infectives
  129. soothe irritation:
    emollients & demulcents
  130. control fungal conditions:
  131. relieve itching:
  132. loosen epithelial scales:
    keratolytic agents
  133. treat herpes zoster:
  134. treat lice:
  135. generic name for clearasil:
    salicylic acid
  136. generic name for Mycostatin:
  137. generic name for neutrogena t/gel:
    coal tar
  138. generic name for desitin:
    zinc oxide
  139. generic name for zovirax:
  140. T/F: keratolytic agens are used to promoted peeling of the skin in conditions such as acne, hard corns, calluses & warts:
  141. T/F: emollients are contraindicated in immunosupressed patients & those who are presently receiving chemotherapy:
  142. T/F: with prolonged use of high-potency corticosteriod products, patients may experience side effects such as hyperglycemia & Cushing's syndrome:
  143. T/F: Lindane should be used only in patients who cannot tolerate or have failed first-line treatment w/safer meds for the treatment of lice:
  144. T/F: the oral dosage of Mycostatin for treatment of candidiasis should be used to coat the inside of the mouth & spit out asap:
  145. T/F: an infant, child or adult should be NPO for at least 1 hr after treatment w/oral Mycostatin:
  146. T/F: patients being treated w/the antiviral acyclovir is substanially more effective than systemic therapy:
  147. T/F: theres an extremely high risk that birth defects can occur if pregnancy occurs while, taking Accutane in any amount, even for a short period of time:
  148. T/F: the absorption of topical med is increased if the skin is thick & callused:
  149. T/F: the pharmaceutical manufacturer has the authority to add additional active ingredients to a previously approved pharmaceutical product:
  150. T/F: the prescriber of the medication is the only health care professional who is responsible for being aware of new meds, laws & restrictions:
  151. T/F: a double-lock system is the recommended method for maintaining security of controlled substances:
  152. T/F: controlled substance records are to be kept for 10 yrs:
  153. T/F: the PDR is a complete & comprehensive resource for all meds, both prescription & OTC:
  154. the risk of death from the use of street drugs vs. prescription meds is mostly due to:
    a lack of control over quality, purity & strength makes street drugs dangerous
  155. drug standards regulate drug manufacture so that meds of the same name will be of the same:
    strength, purity & quality
  156. the 1906 Pure Food & Drug Act includes which provision:
    requires labeling to indicate if a med contained a dangerous ingredient
  157. act that requires that drug preparations containing morphine have a label indicating the presence of morphine:
    Pure Food & Drug Act of 1906
  158. a provision of the Federal Food, Drug & Cosmetic Act & it's amendments:
    the FD&C Act established USP
  159. prior to the 1906 establishment of the US Pharmacopeia, drug info was related by:
    passing to the next generation
  160. the Controlled Substances Act may limit:
    the # of refills that can be filled in a a 6-month time frame
  161. professionals needing a DEA # are:
    pharmacists, physicians, veterinarians
  162. a DEA # represents:
    registration with the DEA
  163. prescriptions of the controlled substances listed in what schedules may not be called into the pharmacy:
    Schedules 1, 2, 3
  164. prescriptions of the controlled substances listed in which schedules MAY be called into th pharmacy by health care workers other than the prescriber:
    Schedules 4 & 5 only
  165. prescriptions of the controlled substances listed in what schedules may be refilled up to 5 times in 6 months:
    Schedules 3, 4 &5
  166. which act established the USP & NF:
    1906 Pure Food & Drug Act
  167. an orphan drug is defined as:
    drug used to treat a disease that affects only a small # of people
  168. which legislation provides for financial incentives to be provided to pharmaceutical companies for the development of meds that would otherwise be unprofitable because they are designed to treat diseases that affect only a small # of people:
    1983 Orphan Drug Act
  169. which name is the name by which the pharmaceutical company identifes its product, is copyrighted & used exclusively by that companyt with a capitalized first letter:
    trade name
  170. which name is the exact molecular formula of the drug:
    chemical name
  171. trade name Tylenol 3 indicates:
    300 mg of acetaminophen w/30 mg of codeine
  172. drugs with no purchasing restrictions by the FDA are:
  173. characteristics of a good drug reference for health care provides include:
    • current info, as drug info is constantly changing
    • concise & easily understood info
    • info on safe & common dosing
  174. info be included on a drug card includes:
    • generic name
    • trade name
    • action
    • side effects
    • special instructions for administration
  175. damage to the eighth cranial nerve, resulting in impaired hearing or ringing in the ears is:
  176. damage to the kidneys that results in impaired kidney function, decreased urinary output, & renal failure is described as:
  177. a list of possible unpleasant or dangerous secondary effects, other than the desired effect is:
    adverse reactions and side effects
  178. a broad subcategory of drugs that affects the body in similar ways is called:
  179. conditions for which the drug should not be given are:
  180. medical condition or diseases for which a drug is intended to be used are referred to as:
  181. drugs or that may alter the effect of a drug & aren't to be given during the same course of therapy are:
  182. Vitamin necessary for resistance to infection, proper visual function at night, normal growth & development of bones, healing of wounds
    Vit A
  183. Retinol, Retinal, Beta Carotene
    Vit A
  184. Defiencies of this Vit: malabsorption of fats or diarrhea, obstruction of bile, overcooking of veggies in an open container
  185. characteristics of the PDR:
    • contains comprehensive cross-reference of drugs, including photos
    • includes descriptions of substances
    • geared toward pharmacists & physicians
    • doesn't identify nursing implications
    • may be difficult to interpret
Card Set:
2012-04-30 19:46:31
Pharmacotherapy final

Pharmacotherapy final
Show Answers: