Final Exam Review

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Author:
nenyabrooke
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151175
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Final Exam Review
Updated:
2012-05-02 21:37:05
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Patient Care
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A review of Patient Care from 1st year Radiology
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  1. Which of the following blood pressure measurements might indicate shock?

    A. Systolic pressure lower than 60 mmHg
    B. Diastolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg
    C. Diastolic pressure lower than 90 mmHg
    D. Systolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg
    A. Systolic pressure lower than 60 mmHg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. What type of technique is required when contrast agents are administered intrathecally?
    • sterile technique (not required for rectal, oral, or ng tube administration)
    • intrathecal = spinal injection
  3. Name information radiographic images are required to include for medicolegal reasons:
    • pt name and/or identification number
    • right or left marker
    • examination date
    • (NOT required: pt birthdate)
  4. A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals could be found guilty of:
    • invasion of privacy
    • (NOT: slander, libel, defamation)
  5. A diabetic patient who is prepared for a fasting radiographic exam is susceptible to a hypoglycemic (low blood sugar) reaction. This is characterized by:
    • shaking and nervousness
    • cold, clammy skin
    • (NOT: cyanosis)
  6. Name 3 instructions that should be given to the patient following a barium sulfate contrast examination:
    • increase fluid and fiber intake for several days
    • changes in stool color will occur until all barium has been evacuated
    • contact a physician if no bowel movement occurs in 24 hours
  7. Logrolling is a method of moving patients with suspected __________ injury.
    spinal
  8. a patient is usually required to drink a barium sulfate suspension in order to demonstrate what structure?
    • pylorus
    • NOT: sigmoid (retrograde) or ilium (pelvic bone)
  9. the normal average rate of respiration for a healthy adult patient:
    12 - 20 breaths/min
  10. give two examples of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD):
    • bronchitis
    • pulmonary emphysema
    • (NOT: asthma)
  11. How is administration of contrast agents for radiographic purposes usually performed?
    intravenously
  12. If a patient develops hives several minutes after injection of an iodenated contrast agent, what type of drug should be readily available?
    antihistamine (benadryl)
  13. What are two commonly used sites for an intravenous injection?
    • antecubital vein
    • basilic vein (arm)
  14. The mechanical device used to correct an ineffectual cardiac rhythm:
    defibrillator
  15. if you encounter a person who is apparently unconscious, with an open airway, but no rise and fall of the chest, with no breath sounds, what should you do?
    begin mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing, giving two full breaths
  16. the total number of dissolved particles in solution per kilogram of water:
    osmolality (in classifying IV contrast)
  17. Name a specific procedure that requires that the patient be placed in the lithotomy position:
    • hysterosalpingography
    • (NOT: myelography, venography, t-tube cholangiography)
  18. Two names for an infection that has been acquired while in a hospital:
    • nosocomial infection
    • H.A.I.
  19. What is the name of the legal doctrine that means "the thing speaks for itself" and give an example:
    • res ipsa locquitur
    • ex. a hemostat found to be in a patient's abdomen
  20. What is the usual patient preparation for an Upper GI exam?
    NPO 8 hours before the exam
  21. Name two conditions in which there is a lack of normal bone calcification:
    • rickets
    • osteomalacia
    • (NOT: osteoarthritis)
  22. an abnormal accumulation of air in pulmonary tissues, resulting in overdistention of the alveolar spaces:
    emphysema (a form of COPD)
  23. Name a common mild/early, medium, and severe symptom of anaphylactic shock:
    • mild/early: itching of palms and soles
    • medium: dysphasia (difficulty swallowing)
    • severe: constriction of the throat
  24. the term used to describe allergic shock:
    anaphylaxis
  25. What are the 4 stages of infection and which is considered to be the stage in which the infection is most communicable?
    • latent period
    • incubation period
    • DISEASE PHASE (most communicable)
    • convalescent phase
  26. How can the compression rate required for CPR of an infant be compared to that of an adult?
    • it remains the same
    • at least 100 compressions per minute
  27. Name 4 rules of hand washing and skin care:
    • hands washed after each patient examination
    • faucets opened and closed with paper towels
    • hands should be smooth and free from chapping
    • any cracks or abrasions should be bandaged/covered
  28. what level of systolic blood pressure is the patient usually considered to be hypotensive?
    less than 90 mmHg
  29. What should be kept in mind when a patient arrives in the radiology department with a urinary Foley catheter bag?
    place the drainage bag below the level of the bladder
  30. name two instruments required to assess vital signs:
    • thermometer
    • watch with a second hand
    • (NOT: tongue depressor)
  31. lyme disease is caused by bacteria carried by deer ticks. this is an example of transmission of an infection by:
    vector
  32. name three common side effects of an iodinated contrast medium that is administered intravenously:
    • a warm feeling
    • altered taste
    • nausea
    • (NOT: hypotension)
  33. if blood pressure is expressed as 120/95, what does each number represent?
    • 120: systole - the phase of contraction of the cardiac muscle tissue
    • 95: diastole - the phase of relaxation of the cardiac muscle tissue
  34. name three things that all drug packages must provide as required by the U.S. Food and Drug Administraion:
    • generic name
    • contraindications
    • the usual dose
  35. name two forms of intentional misconduct and one form of unintentional misconduct:
    • intentional: slander and invasion of privacy
    • unintentional: negligence
  36. when a patient with an arm injury needs help undressing, how should the radiographer go about helping?
    remove clothing from the uninjured arm first
  37. a condition in which the patient is unable to breathe easily while in the recumbent position:
    orthopnea
  38. When performing an examination on an unconscious patient, what is it important to do?
    • refer to the patient by name
    • make only statements you would make if the pt was conscious
    • reassure the pt about what you are doing
  39. what is used to promote elimination of urine?
    a diuretic
  40. name two things that are helpful to do when radiographing the elderly:
    • address them by their full/proper name
    • give straighforward instructions
    • (NOT: move quickly)
  41. two terms for complete killing of all microorganisms:
    • surgical asepsis
    • sterilization
  42. name 3 causes of involuntary patient motion:
    • posttraumatic shock
    • medication
    • low room temperature
  43. where should the radiographer keep the medication when caring for a patient with an IV?
    18-20 inches above the level of the vein
  44. what can be done to effectively reduce the viscosity of contrast media?
    warm it
  45. the type of shock associated with pooling of blood in the peripheral vessels:
    neurogenic shock
  46. name 3 things that must be included in the patient's medical record or chart:
    • diagnostic and threapeutic orders
    • medical history
    • informed consent
  47. what type of precautions prevents the spread of infectious agents in aerosol form?
    airborne precautions
  48. name three conditions that must be met for patient consent to be valid:
    • the pt must sign the consent form before receiving sedation
    • the physician named on the consent form must perform the procedure
    • all the blanks on the consent form must be filled in before the pt signs the form
  49. what is done if the pt is choking?
    the Heimlich maneuver
  50. name 4 rules of maintaining a sterile technique:
    • gowns are considered sterile in the front down to the waist, including arms
    • sterile gloves must be kept above waist level
    • persons in sterile dress should pass each other back to back
    • a sterile field should not be left unattended
  51. a circumstance in which both the health-care provider's and the patient's actions contributed to an injurious outcome:
    contributory negligence
  52. what treatment should be applied if extravasation occurs during an IV injection of contrast media?
    • apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops
    • apply warm, moist heat ("old school" answer. now we use icepacks)
  53. What level of diastolic pressure might indicate hypertension?
    • over 90 mmHg
    • (ex. 100 mmHg)
  54. to reduce the back strain associated with transferring patients from stretcher to x-ray table, the radiographer should:
    pull the patient, not push
  55. a small bottle containing a single dose of medication:
    an ampule
  56. if an emergency trauma patient experiences hemmorrhaging from a leg injury, the radiographer should:
    apply pressure to the bleeding site and call the emergency department for assisstance
  57. ingestion of a gas-producing powder or crystals is usually preliminary to what examination?
    • double-contrast GI
    • NOT: Oral cholecystogram (telepaque) or IV urogram
  58. ethical principle related to the theory that patients have the right to decide what will or will not be done to them:
    autonomy
  59. when disposing of contaminated needles, they are placed in a special container using what procedure?
    do not recap the needle and dispose of the entire syringe
  60. if you receive a patient who is complaining of pain in the area of the left 4th and 5th metatarsals though the requisition asks for a left ankle exam, what should you do?
    check with the referring physician
  61. if you receive an ambulatory patient for an exam, but when he sits on the x-ray table, he feels faint, what should you do?
    lay the pt down on the x-ray table and elevate the pt's legs or place the table slightly Trendelenburg.
  62. out of a GI series, an abdominal study, and a pyelogram, which studies require restriction of the patient's diet?
    • GI series
    • Pyelogram (for nausea)
  63. what must the radiographer do prior to entering a contact isolation room with a mobile x-ray unit?
    put on gown and gloves only
  64. give two examples of a nasogastric (NG) tube:
    • Salem-sump
    • Levin
    • NOT: Swan-Ganz (a vascular catheter)
  65. the rapid onset of severe respiratory or cardiovascular symptoms after ingestion or injection of a drug, vaccine, contrast agent, or food, or after an insect bite:
    anaphylaxis
  66. The most effective method of sterilization:
    • moist heat (auto-claving: steam under pressure)
    • NOT: dry heat, pasteurization or freezing
  67. a condition in which pulmonary alveoli lose their elasticity and become permanently inflated, causing the patient to consciously exhale:
    emphysema (a form of COPD)
  68. Chest drainage systems should always be kept:
    below the level of the patient's chest
  69. what patient right is violated by discussing privileged patient information with an individual who is not involved with the patient's care?
    • the right to privacy
    • (NOT: the right to considerate and respectful care or the right to continuity of care - according to the book)
  70. What is used to relieve pain from angina pectoris?
    sublingual nitroglycerin
  71. name two situations where a radiographer should wear protective eye gear/goggles:
    • when assisting the radiologist during an angiogram
    • when assisting the radiologist in a biopsy/aspiration procedure
  72. What is the normal range for blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels?
    8 to 25 mg/100mL
  73. a quantity of medication introduced intravenously over a period of time:
    • an infusion
    • NOT: a bolus (a push of contrast all at one time)
  74. a patient with pale, cool, clammy skin is:
    diaphoretic
  75. in what order should an upper GI, an IV urogram, and a barium enema be performed?
    • IV urogram
    • barium enema
    • upper GI
  76. for a patient with aneurysm clips, what procedure is contraindicated?
    an MRI
  77. an inanimate object that has been in contact with an infectious microorganism:
    fomite
  78. give two advantages of using nonionic, water-soluble contrast media and one disadvantage:
    • advantages: low toxicity; fewer adverse reactions
    • disadvantage: more expensive
  79. what category of medication would most likely be used for angina pectoris?
    vasodialator
  80. name 4 guidelines to remember when performing a two-member team portable exam on a pt with MRSA (staph infection) precautions:
    • one tech remains "clean" (no physical contact w/ pt)
    • the tech who positions the mobile unit makes the exposure
    • the tech who positions the cassette retrieves the cassette
    • the "clean" tech removes the cassette from its protective cover
  81. name three symptoms associated with a respiratory reaction to contrast media:
    • sneezing
    • dyspnea
    • asthma attack
  82. what is the proper response when a patient asks to see his chart while in your care?
    inform the patient that he has the right to see his chart, but that he should request to view it with his physician, so that it is properly interpreted.
  83. Where might skin discoloration due to cyanosis be observed?
    • gums
    • nailbeds
  84. Name three things that can be done to help a patient suffering from abdominal pain:
    • elevate the head
    • perform exam in fowlers position
    • place a support under the knees
  85. What is a Swan-Ganz catheter?
    an IV catheter (vascular)
  86. What is the medical term for nosebleed?
    epitaxis
  87. what unit is blood pressure measured in?
    mmHG
  88. name a procedure that requires an intrathecal (spinal) injection?
    • myelogram
    • (NOT: IV pyelogram, lymphangiogram, CT)
  89. list 4 precaution guidelines given by the CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention):
    • airborne precautions require pt to wear a mask
    • masks are indicated when caring for patients on MRSA precautions
    • patients under MRSA precautions require a POSITIVE-pressure room (in which room pulls in hall air)
    • gloves are indicated when caring for a pt on droplet precautions
  90. what is the medical term for congenital clubfoot?
    • talipes (deformed talus)
    • NOT: coxa plana (ascemic necrosis in pelvis), osteochondritis (Osgood-Slatter disease where tibial tuberosity pulls away), or muscular dystrophy (degenerative muscle disease)
  91. the pain experienced by a pt whose coronary arteries are not conveying sufficient blood to the heart:
    angina pectoris
  92. hypochlorite bleach (clorox) and lysol are:
    • disinfectants
    • NOT: antiseptics (used on skin)
  93. condition that allows blood to shunt between the right and left ventricles:
    • ventricular septal defect
    • NOT: patent ductus arteriosus (hole that doesn't resolve itself), coarction of the aorta (stenosis of aorta), or atrial septal defect
  94. name two helpful practices to follow when radiographing young children, and one thing to not do:
    • good: let them bring a toy; be cheerful and unhurried
    • bad: tell them it will not hurt
  95. a drug's chemical name is its:
    • generic name
    • NOT: trade name/brand name/proprietary name
  96. the act of inspiration will cause elevation of the _________ and __________, but not the ______________.
    • sternum
    • ribs
    • diaphragm
  97. name three specific situations in which a tech can be found guilty of a tort:
    • failure to shield a pt of childbearing age from unnecessary radiation
    • performing an exam on a pt who has refused the exam
    • discussing a pt's condition with a third party
  98. name two guidelines for cleaning contaminated objects or surfaces:
    • clean from the least contaminated to the most contaminated area
    • clean from the top down
  99. what charge may be brought against a tech who performs a lumbar spine on a pt when an elbow was ordered?
    battery
  100. name a physical change that is characteristic of gerontologic patients:
    • loss of bone calcium
    • NOT: loss of hearing or loss of mental alertness
  101. Name three guidelines to remember regarding tracheostomy patients:
    • tracheostomy patients have difficulty speaking
    • do NOT rotate the tracheostomy tube out of view for an x-ray
    • audible rattling sounds indicate a need for suction
  102. name 2 disorders for which an esophagram might be requested:
    • esophageal varices (vericose veins in esophagus)
    • dysphasia (difficulty swallowing)
    • NOT: achalasia (a condition of the intestine)
  103. name three routes by which medication can be administered:
    • orally
    • intravenously
    • intramuscularly
  104. name two conditions for which protective or "reverse" isolation is required:
    • burns
    • leukemia
    • NOT: Tuberculosis
  105. what type of contrast medium should be used when a GI series has been requested on a patient with a suspected perforated ulcer?
    water-soluble iodinated media
  106. name three (more) guidelines when caring for a pt with a tracheostomy:
    • employ sterile technique if you must touch a tracheostomy for any reason
    • before you suction a tracheostomy, the pt should be well aerated
    • never suction for longer than 15 seconds, permitting pt to rest in between
  107. a pt who is experiencing an episode of syncope should be placed in what position?
    dorsal recumbent with feet elevated
  108. the diameter of the needle is the:
    • gauge
    • NOT: bevel (hole), hub (where it connects to syringe)
  109. a recumbent position where the head is lower than the feet:
    Trendelenburg
  110. Name a drug that is considered to be a bronchodilator:
    • epinephrine
    • (NOT: lidocaine, nitroglycerin, verapamil)
  111. name a drug that is a vasopressor and may be used for an anaphylactic reaction or cardiac arrest:
    • epinephrine
    • (NOT: nitroglycerin, hydrocortisone, digitoxin)
  112. give 2 terms for chemical substances that are used to kill pathogenic bacteria:
    • germicides
    • disinfectants
    • NOT: antiseptics (don't kill, just remove)
  113. **list 4 rules regarding proper handwashing technique:
    • keep hands and forearms lower than elbows
    • use paper towels to turn water OFF
    • use hand lotions whenever possible
    • carefully wash all surfaces and between fingers
  114. where is the "sterile corridor" located?
    between the draped patient and the instrument table
  115. what is the medical abbreviation for "three times a day"?
    tid
  116. during a grand mal seizure, the pt should be:
    protected from injury but not overly restrained
  117. for a pt suffering from orthopnea, list 4 positions in order from least discomfort to most discomfort:
    • erect (most comfortable)
    • fowler's
    • recumbent
    • trendelenburg (least comfortable)
  118. name two conditions for which a double-contrast BE is essential to demonstrate:
    • polyps
    • colitis
    • NOT: Diverticulitis (single-contrast is better)
  119. define subjective data and give an example:
    • a symptom that cannot be observed directly, only described by the pt
    • the pt states that he experiences extreme pain in the upright position
  120. list 3 symptoms of impending diabetic coma:
    • increased urination
    • sweet-smelling breath
    • extreme thirst
  121. the term for a condition of slow heart rate:
    • bradycardia
    • 60 beats/minute
  122. list some symptoms of shock:
    • pallor and weakness
    • increased pulse rate
    • drop in blood pressure
    • NOT: fever
  123. name 3 important considerations to consider when working with geriatric patients:
    • increased pain threshold
    • breakdown of skin
    • atrophy of fat pads and sweat glands
  124. the medical abbreviation for "every hour":
    qh
  125. radiographs are the property of:
    the health-care institution
  126. what is the normal creatnine range in pt blood chemistry levels?
    .6 to 1.5 mg/100mL
  127. name two pieces of medical equipment used to determine blood pressure:
    • stethoscope
    • sphygmomanometer
  128. name three diseases whose mode of transmission is through the air:
    • tuberculosis
    • mumps
    • rubella
  129. give 3 guidelines regarding oxygen delivery:
    • oxygen is classified as a drug and must be prescribed by a physician
    • rate of delivery and mode of delivery must be part of a physician order for oxygen
    • oxygen may be ordered continuously or as needed by the patient
  130. name two imaging procedures that do not require the use of ionizing radiation to produce an image:
    • ultrasound
    • MRI

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