Hardware Support Final

Card Set Information

Author:
jal128
ID:
151410
Filename:
Hardware Support Final
Updated:
2012-05-04 01:43:14
Tags:
hardware
Folders:

Description:
Hardware Support Final
Show Answers:

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview

The flashcards below were created by user jal128 on FreezingBlue Flashcards. What would you like to do?


  1. For Windows XP, use the ______ to see which service packs are installed.

    a) Computer Properties box
    b) Computer manager box
    c) System Properties box
    d)System Manager box
    c) System Properties box
  2. To view and manually install updates, click _____, and then follow the directions on-screen.

    a) Start and Windows Updates
    b) Start, Windows, and Windows Updates
    c) Start, All Programs, Accessories, and Windows Updates
    d) Start, All Programs, and Windows Updates
    d) Start, All Programs, and Windows Updates
  3. To protect a system against malicious attack, you need to verify that _____ software is configured to scan the system regularly and that it is up-to-date.

    a) antispyware
    b) firewall
    c) prevention
    d) antivirus
    d) antivirus
  4. Use the _____ command to defrag the drive from a command prompt window.

    a) Optimize
    b) Analyze
    c) Defrag
    d) Chdsk
    c) Defrag
  5. To make sure the drive is healthy, you need to search for and repair file system errors using the Windows utility

    a) Defrag
    b) Chdsk
    c) Analyze
    d) Optimize
    b) Chdsk
  6. _____ creates restore points at regular intervals and just before you install software or hardware.

    a) System Activation
    b) System Protection
    c) System Restoration
    d) System Prevention
    b) System Protection
  7. The user folder for an account contains a group of subfolders called the user _____.

    a) namespace
    b) directory namespace
    c) profile namespace
    d) controlled namespace
    c) profile namespace
  8. If you enter a command and want to terminate its execution before it is finished, you can press _____ to do so.

    a) Ctrl+Break
    b) Ctrl+V
    c) Ctrl+B
    d) Ctrl+X
    a) Ctrl+Break
  9. Besides backing up user data or system files, you can also back up the entire hard drive using Windows Vista _____.

    a) Automated System Backup
    b) Complete PC recovery
    c) Automated System Rocovery
    d) Complete PC backup
    d) Complete PC backup
  10. The _____ command creates a subdirectory under the directory.

    a) RD
    b) MD
    c) CD
    d) AD
    b) MD
  11. A dynamic disk requires _____ MB of storage for the disk management database.

    a) 1
    b) 2
    c) 3
    d) 4
    a) 1
  12. You can use _____ ro convert two or more basic disks to dynamic disks.

    a) Disk Management
    b) Windows Manager
    c) System Management
    d) Computer Management
    a) Disk Management
  13. When a hard drive is first sensed by Windows, it is assigned the _____ disk status.

    a) Primary
    b) Dynamic
    c) Automatic
    d) Basic
    d) Basic
  14. A disk marked as dynamic can be used with other dynamic disks in a spanned or _____ volume.

    a) blocked
    b) checkered
    c) striped
    d) lined
    c) striped
  15. If you are having problems with a hard drive, volume, or mounted drive, check _____ for events about the drive that might have ben recorded there.

    a) Event Viewer
    b) Windows Event Log
    c) Event Log
    d) Event Log Manager
    • a) Event Viewer
  16. Windows Vista Ultimate offers language packs through _____.

    a) Microsoft Update
    b) Windows Update
    c) Language Update
    d) System Update
    b) Windows Update
  17. The _____ tab of Task Manager lists system services and other processes associated with applications, together with how much CPU time and memory the process uses.

    a) Applications
    b) Services
    c) Processes
    d) Performance
    c) Processes
  18. If your desktop locks up, you can use _____ to refresh it.

    a) Task Manager
    b) Process Manager
    c) Task List Manager
    d) Task and Process Manager
    a) Task Manager
  19. The _____ tab in Task Manager lets you monitor network activity and bandwidth used.

    a) Application
    b) Process
    c) Networking
    d) Services
    c) Networking
  20. The _____ tab in Task Manager shows all users currently logged on the system.

    a) Users
    b) Processes
    c) Networking
    d) Applications
    a) Users
  21. You can use the _____ to find out what processes are launched at startup and to temorarily disable a process from loading.

    a) System Access Utility
    b) System Management Utility
    c) System Stability Utility
    d) System Configuration Utility
    d) System Configuration Utility
  22. _____ is a Windows utility that can be used to build your own customized console windows.

    a) Microsoft Management Console
    b) Microsoft Manager Console
    c) Microsoft Management Components
    d) Microsoft Manager Consoles
    a) Microsoft Management Console
  23. A(n) _____ is a single window that contains one or more administrative tools such as Device Manager or Disk Management.

    a) snap-in
    b) add-in
    c) view
    d)console
    d)console
  24. In a console, the individual tools are called _____.

    a) consoles
    b) add-ins
    c) snap-ins
    d) views
    c) snap-ins
  25. A console is saved in a file with an _____ file extension.

    a) .mscx
    b) .msc
    c) .mmc
    d) .mmcx
    b) .msc
  26. Device Manager reads data from the ______ key to build the information it displays about hardware comfigurations.

    a) HKLM\HARDWARE
    b) HKLM\SYSTEM
    c) HKLM\CONFIG
    d) HKU\HARDWARE
    a) HKLM\HARDWARE
  27. _____, under Windows Vista, is a summary index designed to measure the overall performance of a system.

    a) Windows Rating
    b) Windows Reliability Index
    c) Windows Experience Index
    d) Windows Performance Index
    c) Windows Experience Index
  28. You can use the _____ to find information about the installed processor and its speed, how much RAM is installed, and free space on the hard drive.

    a) System Management Utility
    b) Computer Management Utility
    c) System Configuration Utility
    d) System Information Utility
    d) System Information Utility
  29. The _____ is responsible for maintaining an index of files and folders on a hard drive to speed up Windows searches.

    a) Windows performance monitor
    b) Windows reliability monitor
    c) Windows indexer
    d) Windows database
    c) Windows indexer
  30. The _____ box can protect your system against user making unauthorized changes and against malware installing itself without your knowledge.

    a) UAC
    b) AAC
    c) UAN
    d) UAK
    a) UAC
  31. Most programs written for Windows have a(n) _____ routine which can be accessed from the Vista Programs and Features applet in the Control Panel, the XP Add Remote Programs applet in the Control Panel, or a utility in the All Programs menu.

    a) installer
    b) packing
    c) packaging
    d) uninstall
    d) uninstall
  32. If a system is giving repeated startup errors or you have just removed several programs, you might want to search through _____ for processes left there by uninstall or corrupted software that might be giving startup problems.

    a) registry keys
    b) files
    c) folders
    d) menus
    a) registry keys
  33. Use the Windows Vista _____ tool to deal with an immediate hardware or software problem.

    a) Help and Support
    b) Help and Problems Solutions
    c) Problem Reports and Solutions
    d) Problem Solutions
    c) Problem Reports and Solutions
  34. If a problem happens in the kernel mode of Windows, a _____ or blue screen error occurs.

    a) STOP
    b) HALT
    c) BREAK
    d) FAULT
    a) STOP
  35. You can quiskly identify a problem with memory or eliminate memory as the source of a problem by using the _____ tool.

    a) Windows Memory Diagnostics
    b) Vista System Diagnostics
    c) Windows System Diagnostics
    d) Vista Memory Diagnostics
    d) Vista Memory Diagnostics
  36. For hardware problems, _____ is a Windows Vista/XP/2000 utility that runs in the background to put stress on drivers as they are loaded and running.

    a) File Signature Verification
    b) Driver Verifier
    c) Vista Memory Diagnostics
    d) Problem Reports and Solutions
    b) Driver Verifier
  37. The _____ tool displays information about digitally signed files, including device driver files and application files, and logs information to C:\Windows\Sigverif.txt

    a) Driver Verifier
    b) Vista Memory Diagnostics
    c) File Signature Verification
    d) Problem Reports and Solutions
    c) File Signature Verification
  38. The _____ tool can be used to direct information about drivers to a file, including information about digital signatures.

    a) Driver Query
    b) Driver Verifier
    c) Problem Reports and Solutions
    d) File Signature Verification
    a) Driver Query
  39. Vista configuration data is stored in the Vista _____ file.

    a) Root Configuration File
    b) Boot Initialization File
    c) Root Retention File
    d) Boot Configuration File
    d) Boot Configuration File
  40. The Vista Advanced Boot Options menu appears when a user presses _____ as Vista is loading.

    a) F2
    b) F4
    c) F8
    d) F12
    c) F8
  41. You can use the Windows RE command prompt window to restor registry files using those saved in the _____ folder.

    a) c:\windows\system32\regback
    b) c:\windows\regback
    c) c:\windows\platform\config\regback
    d) c:\windows\system32\config\regback
    d) c:\windows\system32\config\regback
  42. The _____ file is a hidden text file stored in the root directory of the active partition that Ntldr reads to see what operating systems are available and how to set up the boot.

    a) Boot.ini
    b) Boot.ldr
    c) Config.sys
    d) Boot.int
    a) Boot.ini
  43. The _____ is used when Windows 2000/XP does not start properly or hangs during the load.

    a) Safe Mode Console
    b) Restoration Console
    c) Recovery Console
    d) Reversion Console
    c) Recovery Console
  44. In the Recovery Console, the command _____ deletes a directory.

    a) MD
    b) RD
    c) CD
    d) LD
    b) RD
  45. To retrieve the last command entered in the Recovery Console, press _____ at the command prompt.

    a) F1
    b) F2
    c) F3
    d) F4
    c) F3
  46. To retreive the command entered in the Recovery Console one character at a time, press the _____ key.

    a) F1
    b) F2
    c) F3
    d) F4
    a) F1
  47. Enter the command _____ to see a list of all services currently installed, which includes device drivers.

    a) listsvc
    b) svclst
    c) lstsvc
    d)svclist
    a) listsvc
  48. To move to the root directory, use the command _____.

    a) RD \
    b) CD \
    c) MD \
    d) PD \
    b) CD \
  49. A compressed file uses a(n) _____ as the last character in the file extension.

    a) underscore
    b) dollar sign
    c) equals sign
    d) dash
    a) underscore
  50. Use the _____ command to extract .cab files.

    a) Restore
    b) Decompress
    c) Expand
    d) Decode
    c) Expand
  51. In the world of computers, the term _____ refers to the computer's physical components, such as the monitor, keyboard, motherboard, and hard drive.

    a) software
    b) middleware
    c) architecture
    d) hardware
    d) hardware
  52. The term _____ refers to the set of instructions that directs the hardware to accomplish a task.

    a) software
    b) hardware
    c) middleware
    d) stack
    a) software
  53. To perform a computing task, software uses hardware for four basic functions: _____.

    a) input, storage, retrieval, and display
    b) input, processing, storage, and output
    c) input, storage, alteration, and output
    d) output, input, analysis, and viewing
    b) input, processing, storage, and output
  54. Most input/output devices communicate with components inside the computer case through a wireless connection or through cables attached to the case at a connection called a(n) _____.

    a) port
    b) slot
    c) interface
    d) socket
    a) port
  55. The printer produces output on paper, often called _____ copy.

    a) real
    b) soft
    c) hard
    d) virtual
    c) hard
  56. A device that is not installed directly on the motherboard is called a(n) _____ device.

    a) standard
    b) peripheral
    c) extraneous
    d) perimeter
    b) peripheral
  57. The _____ is a group of microchips on the motherboard that control the flow of data and instructions to and from the processor.

    a) chipset
    b) block
    c) bridge
    d) gate
    a) chipset
  58. Primary storage is provided by devices called memory or _____ located on the motherboard and on some adapter cards.

    a) ROM
    b) BIOS
    c) Flash
    d) RAM
    d) RAM
  59. Most _____ drives consist of a sealed case containing platters or disks that rotate at a high speed.

    a) optical
    b) hard
    c) flash
    d) solid state
    b) hard
  60. A(n) _____ drive is considered standard equipment on most computer systems today because most software is distributed on CDs or DVDs.

    a) floppy
    b) flash
    c) optical
    d) hard
    c) optical
  61. USB _____ drives are compact, easy to use, and currently holds up to 64GB of data.

    a) worm
    b) optical
    c) hard
    d) flash
    d) flash
  62. A(n) ______ is a set of rules and standards that any two entities use for communication.

    a) protocol
    b) language
    c) interface
    d) interaction
    a) protocol
  63. Everything in a computer is _____.

    a) decimal
    b) binary
    c) hexadecimal
    d) integer
    b) binary
  64. The _____ card, also called a graphics card, provides one or more ports for a monitor.

    a) video
    b) interface
    c) modem
    d) network
    a) video
  65. The _____ card provides a port for a network cable to connect th PC to a network.

    a) video
    b) interface
    c) modem
    d) network
    d) network
  66. Data and instructions are stored on special ROM (read-only memory) chips on the board and are called the _____.

    a) flash
    b) microcode
    c) BIOS
    d) symbols
    c) BIOS
  67. Motherboard settings are stored in a small amout of RAM locoted on the firmware chip and are called _____.

    a) CMOS ROM
    b) CMOS RAM
    c) DMOS ROM
    d) HMAC RAM
    b) CMOS RAM
  68. A(n) _____ is software that controls a computer.

    a) application
    b) operating system
    c) interface routine
    d) ROM routine
    b) operating system
  69. In 1986, _____ was introduced and quickly became the most popular OS amoung IBM computers and OBM-compatible computers using the Intel 8086 processors.

    a) MS-DOS
    b) Windows
    c) OS/2
    d) CP/M
    a) MS-DOS
  70. A _____ interface is an interface that uses graphics as compared to a command-driven interface.

    a) text
    b) menu-based
    c) common user
    d) graphical user
    d) graphical user
  71. Vista has a new 3D user interface called the _____ user interface.

    a) Glass
    b) Aero
    c) Air
    d) Shield
    b) Aero
  72. A _____ makes it possible to boot a computer inro one of two OSs.

    a) hypervisitor
    b) virtualization layer
    c) dual boot
    d) quick boot
    c) dual boot
  73. A(n) _____ is a portion of an OS that relates to the user and to applications.

    a) hypervisor
    b) interpreter
    c) GUI
    d) shell
    d) shell
  74. The _____ interface between the subsystem in user mode and the HAL.

    a) application
    b) executive services
    c) primitive
    d) non-privileged services
    b) executive services
  75. _____ are small programs stored on the hard drive that tell the computer how to communicate with a specific hardware device such as a printer, network card, or modem.

    a) Abstraction layer
    b) Device drivers
    c) BIOS
    d) Input routines
    b) Device drivers
  76. The _____ is usually on the right side of the task bar and displays open services.

    a) status tray
    b) display area
    c) system tray
    d) indentification area
    c) system tray
  77. A _____ is one or more characters following the last period in a filename, such as .exe, .txt, or .avi.

    a) filename
    b) file extension
    c) file version
    d) file type
    b) file extension
  78. The _____ dialog box in Windows Vista appears each time a user attempt to perform an action that can be done only with administrative privileges.

    a) User Account Confirmation
    b) User Account Control
    c) User Access Control
    d) User Access Confirmation
    b) User Account Control
  79. Windows identifies file types primarily by the _____.

    a) file contents
    b) resource fork
    c) file extension
    d) companion stream
    c) file extension
  80. Windows offers two ways to sync files: _____.

    a) Briefcase and Offline Files
    b) Network Neighborhood and Offline Files
    c) Synchronization Tasks and Online Files
    d) Briefcase and Synchronization layer
    b) Network Neighborhood and Offline Files
  81. For the _____ window,you can change the read-only, hidden, archive, and indexing attributes of the file.

    a) Open
    b) Attributes
    c) Status
    d) Properties
    d) Properties
  82. A(n) _____ is a list of items that is used to speed up a search.

    a) database
    b) index
    c) shortcut
    d) block
    b) index
  83. An applet has a _____ file extension.

    a) .ctl
    b) .crl
    c) .cpl
    d) .app
    c) .cpl
  84. A _____ is responsible for the PC before trouble occurs.

    a) PC hardware technician
    b) PC software technician
    c) PC support technician
    d) technical support technician
    c) PC support technician
  85. The most significant certifying organization for PC technicians is the _____.

    a) Security+
    b) Computing Technology Industry Association
    c) Internet Engineering Task Force
    d) Computer Technology Information Association
    d) Computer Technology Information Association
  86. _____ has industry reconition, so it should be your first choice for certification as a PC technician.

    a) Security+ Certification
    b) Network+ Certification
    c) Hardware+ Certification
    d) A+ Certification
    d) A+ Certification
  87. When someone initiates a call for help, the technician starts the process by creating a(n) _____.

    a) ticket
    b) request
    c) rule
    d) order
    a) ticket
  88. One of the most important ways to acheive customer satisfaction is to do you best by being _____.

    a) genial
    b) on time
    c) prepared
    d) courteous
    c) prepared
  89. _____ customers are your customers who come to you and your compnay for service.

    a) Internal
    b) External
    c) Partner
    d) Related
    b) External
  90. To improve your attitude, you must do it from your _____.

    a) heart
    b) head
    c) intellect
    d) language
    a) heart
  91. _____ differences happen because we are from different countries and societies or because of physical hadicaps.

    a) Regional
    b) Social
    c) Cultural
    d) Language
    c) Cultural
  92. _____ a problem increases your claue in the eyes of your coworkers and boss.

    a) Taking ownership of
    b) Ceding responsibility for
    c) Relinquishing control of
    d) passing on
    a) Taking ownership of
  93. To provide good service, you need to have a good _____ when servicing customers on the phone or online, on site, or in a shop.

    a) instincts
    b) plan
    c) script
    d) phone voice
    b) plan
  94. When you arrive at the customer's site, greet them with a _____.

    a) positive attitude
    b) clean uniform
    c) wmile
    d) handshake
    d) handshake
  95. Troubleshooting begins by _____.

    a) Assessing the computer
    b) interviewing the user
    c) reading the work order
    d) understanding the procedure
    b) interviewing the user
  96. Part of setting _____ is to establish a timeline with your customer for the completion of a project.

    a) expectations
    b) goals
    c) requirements
    d) objectives
    a) expectations
  97. _____ support requires more interaction with customers than any other type of PC support.

    a) Web
    b) Phone
    c) Face-to-face
    d) Remote
    b) Phone
  98. _____ is required if the customer must be told each key to press or command button to click.

    a) Attitude
    b) Arrogance
    c) Patience
    d) Objectivity
    c) Patience
  99. Knowing how to _____ a problem to those higher in the support chain is one of the first things you should learn on a new job.

    a) delegate
    b) recommend
    c) downgrade
    d) escalate
    d) escalate
  100. Organize you time by making _____ and sticking with them as best you can.

    a) to-do list
    b) plans
    c) ticket lists
    d) task lists
    a) to-do list
  101. _____ memory temporarily holds data and instructions as the CPU processes them.

    a) Random array
    b) Read-only
    c) Repeatable access
    d) Random access
    d) Random access
  102. _____ is used for a memory cache and is contained within the processor housing.

    a) SRAM
    b) DRAM
    c) ROM
    d) cSRAM
    a) SRAM
  103. _____ loses its data rapidly, and the memory controller must refresh it several thousand times a second.

    a) Static RAM
    b) Read-only memory
    c) Dynamic RAM
    d) Flash RAM
    c) Dynamic RAM
  104. Laptops use a smaller version of a DIMM called a(n) _____.

    a) mDIMM
    b) SO-DIMM
    c) dDIMM
    d) l-DIMM
    b) SO-DIMM
  105. A(n) _____ gets its name because it has independent pins on opposite side of the module.

    a) DIMM
    b) RIMM
    c) SIMM
    d) TRIMM
    a) DIMM
  106. If the number of bits is not an odd number for odd parity or an even number for even parity, a _____ error occurs.

    a) checksum
    b) flip
    c) word
    d) parity
    d) parity
  107. A Rambus memory module is called a(n) _____.

    a) RIMM
    b) DIMM
    c) SIMM
    d) RDIMM
    a) RIMM
  108. SIMMs are rated by speed, measured in _____.

    a) microseconds
    b) milliseconds
    c) picoseconds
    d) nanoseconds
    d) nanoseconds
  109. To use System Information, in the Vista Start Search box or the Windows XP Run box, type _____ and press Enter.

    a) msinfo32
    b) msconfig
    c) wininfo
    d) msinfo
    a) msinfo32
  110. In the table found in the motherboard manual, a chip on a RIMM module is called a _____.

    a) tool
    b) gadget
    c) widget
    d) component
    d) component
  111. Higher-quality memory modules have _____ installed to reduce heat and help the module last longer.

    a) fans
    b) heat rails
    c) epoxy
    d) heat sinks
    d) heat sinks
  112. If the chip's surface is dull or matted, or you can scratch off the markings with a fingernail or knife, suspect that the chip has been _____.

    a) re-burned
    b) re-marked
    c) defaced
    d) installed new
    b) re-marked
  113. For _____ modules, small clips latch into place on each side of the slot to hold the module in the slot.

    a) DRAM
    b) RIMM
    c) DIMM
    d) SIMM
    c) DIMM
  114. When installing the RIMM, _____ on the edges of the RIMM module will help you to orient it correctly in the socket.

    a) vents
    b) colors
    c) notches
    d) symbols
    c) notches
  115. In Windows, memory errors can cause frequent _____ errors.

    a) General Fault
    b) General Protection Fault
    c) Stack Overflow
    d) Heap Overflow
    b) General Protection Fault
  116. A _____ drive has one, two, or more platters, or disks, that stack together and spin in unison inside a sealed metal housing that contains firmware to control reading and writing data to the drive and to communicate with the motherboard.

    a) magnetic optical
    b) floppy
    c) magnetic hard
    d) magnetic image
    c) magnetic hard
  117. The top and bottom of each disk of magnetic hard drive have a(n) _____ that moves across the disk surface as all the disks rotate on a spindle.

    a) read head
    b) read/write head
    c) access head
    d) platter device
    b) read/write head
  118. Each side, or surface, of one hard drive platter is called a _____.

    a) bubble
    b) wing
    c) tail
    d) head
    d) head
  119. Windows Vista technology that supports a hybrid drive is called _____.

    a) ReadyRAM
    b) ReadySpin
    c) ReadyDrive
    d) ReadyDisk
    c) ReadyDrive
  120. The total number of _____ on the drive determines the drive capacity.

    a) sectors
    b) wedges
    c) platters
    d) controllers
    a) sectors
  121. _____ on a circuit board inside the drive housing is responsible for writing and reading data to these tracks and sectors and for keeping track of where everything is stored on the drive.

    a) Wetware
    b) ROM
    c) Firmware
    d) Software
    c) Firmware
  122. During the _____ formatting process, you specify the size of the partition and what file system it will use.

    a) low-level
    b) high-level
    c) medium-level
    d) physical
    b) high-level
  123. The ATA interface standards are developed by Technical Committee T13 and published by _____.

    a) ISO
    b) IEEE
    c) IETF
    d) ANSI
    d) ANSI
  124. _____ is a system BIOS feature that monitors hard drive performance, disk performance, disk spin up time, temperature, distance between the head and the disk, and other machanical activities of the drive in order to predict when the drive is likely to fail.

    a) S.M.A.R.T.
    b) D.A.R.T.
    c) S.T.A.R.T.
    d) S.P.I.N.
    a) S.M.A.R.T.
  125. _____ transfers data directly from the drive to memory without involving the CPU.

    a) RMA
    b) DAM
    c) SMA
    d) DMA
    d) DMA
  126. _____ mode involves the CPU and is slower than DMA mode.

    a) DMZ
    b) PIO
    c) RMA
    d) PIN
    b) PIO
  127. With _____, you can connect and disconnect a drive while the system is running.

    a) wet-swapping
    b) cold-swapping
    c) hot-swapping
    d) block-swapping
    c) hot-swapping
  128. External _____ is up to six times faster than USB or FireWire.

    a) SATA
    b) SCSI
    c) IDE
    d) DMA
    a) SATA
  129. _____ is a standard for communication between a subsystem of peripheral devices and the system bus.

    a) SAS
    b) SATA
    c) SCSD
    d) SCSI
    d) SCSI
  130. A technology that configures two or more hard drives to work together as an array of drives is called _____.

    a) FLAG
    b) RAID
    c) RAIN
    d) RAISE
    b) RAID
  131. A drive _____ is a duplication of everything written to a hard drive.

    a) network
    b) array
    c) handle
    d) image
    d) image
  132. With _____, two hard drives are configured as a single volume.

    a) binding
    b) bonding
    c) spanning
    d) wrapping
    c) spanning
  133. When using an 80-conductor cable-select cable, the drive nearest the motherboard is the _____.

    a) master
    b) slave
    c) subordinate
    d) major
    a) master
  134. If you are mounting a hard drive into a bay that is too large, a _____ kit can help you securely fit the drive into the bay.

    a) reversal bay
    b) drive connecting
    c) universal bay
    d) bay adapter
    c) universal bay
  135. Problems with a device can sometimes be solved by updating the _____ or firmware.

    a) device patches
    b) device drivers
    c) device scanners
    d) device containers
    b) device drivers
  136. Devices and their device drivers are managed using _____.

    a) System Manager
    b) Computer Manager
    c) Device Manager
    d) Control Panel
    c) Device Manager
  137. _____ systems and peripherals have the U.S. Green Star, indicating that they satisfy certain energy-conserving standards of the U.S. Environment Protection Agency (EPA).

    a) Energy Star
    b) Energy Saving
    c) Energy Wise
    d) Green Energy
    a) Energy Star
  138. To protect the data on a USB storage device while removing it, double-click the _____ icon in the notification area before removing the device.

    a) Format
    b) Safely Eject Hazard
    c) Eject
    d) Safely Remove Hardware
    d) Safely Remove Hardware
  139. FireWire and i.Link are common names for another peripheral bus officially named _____.

    a) IEEE 1394
    b) IEEE 802.1x
    c) IEEE 1399
    d) IEEE 1934
    a) IEEE 1394
  140. _____ supports speed up to 400 Mbps and is sometimes called FireWire 400.

    a) IEEE 1394
    b) IEEE 802.9
    c) IEEE 1394a
    d) IEEE 1394.2
    c) IEEE 1394a
  141. _____ can use cables up to 100 meters (328 feet), and uses a 9-pin rectangular connector.

    a) 1394a
    b) 1394b
    c) 1394
    d) 1394c
    b) 1394b
  142. IEEE 1394 uses _____ data transfer, meaning that data is transfered continuously without breaks.

    a) asynchronous
    b) isolated
    c) symmetric
    d) isochronous
    d) isochronous
  143. A serial port is provided by the motherboard or might be provided by an adopter card called a(n) _____ card.

    a) interrupt
    b) storage
    c) I/O controller
    d) Southbridge
    c) I/O controller
  144. _____ CRT monitors draw a screen by making two passes.

    a) Multipass
    b) Multipath
    c) Noninterlaced
    d) Interlaced
    d) Interlaced
  145. A _____ deivce is an input device that biological data about a person, which can be input data to identify a person's fingerprints, handprints, face, voice, eye, and handwritten signature.

    a) biometric
    b) biomechanical
    c) simulated biology
    d) biostatic
    a) biometric
  146. Ports on the motherboard can be disabled or enabled in _____ setup.

    a) RAM
    b) firmware
    c) Northbridge
    d) BIOS
    d) BIOS
  147. The _____ assignment refer to the system resources a parallel port will use to manage a print job.

    a) COM
    b) LPT
    c) SRL
    d) PRL
    b) LPT
  148. A _____ plug is a tool used to test a serial, parallel, USB, network, or other port.

    a) loop-back
    b) return
    c) wrap
    d) lock out
    a) loop-back
  149. Chips sometimes loosen because of temperature changes; this condition is called _____.

    a) chip slip
    b) block creep
    c) chip creep
    d) solder error
    c) chip creep
  150. For laptops, you can adjust the brightness of the display using _____ keys.

    a) secondary
    b) function
    c) control
    d) interface
    b) function
  151. The goal of _____ technology is to use sights, sounds, and animation to make computer output look as much like real life as possible.

    a) realistic
    b) transition
    c) multimedia
    d) reality
    c) multimedia
  152. Computers store data digitally and ultimately as a stream of only two numbers: _____.

    a) 1 and 2
    b) 0 and 1
    c) 0 and 9
    d) 8 and 1
    b) 0 and 1
  153. After the sound is recorded and sigitalized, many sound cards convert and ompress the digitilized sound to _____ format.

    a) MP3
    b) AU
    c) WAV
    d) AIF
    a) MP3
  154. MP3 sound files have a(n) _____ file extension.

    a) .wav
    b) .avi
    c) .aif
    d) .mp3
    d) .mp3
  155. A video _____ card lets you capture this video input and save it to a file on your hard drive.

    a) capture
    b) retouch
    c) interface
    d) rendering
    a) capture
  156. _____ are smooth and level areas on an optical disc.

    a) Pits
    b) Runs
    c) Valleys
    d) Lands
    d) Lands
  157. _____ are recessed areas on the surface of an optical disc.

    a) Land
    b) Grooves
    c) Pits
    d) Valleys
    c) Pits
  158. In order to read each sector on the spiral of a CD at a constant _____, the disc spins faster when the read-write head is near the center of the disc.

    a) rotational velocity
    b) linear velocity
    c) linear torque
    d) rotational momentum
    b) linear velocity
  159. A double-sided, dual-layer DVD can hold _____ GB.

    a) 4.7
    b) 8.5
    c) 9.4
    d) 17
    d) 17
  160. _____ drives are a great method of keeping backups of data stored on your hard drive.

    a) External hard
    b) External optical
    c) Internal optical
    d) External floppy
    a) External hard
  161. _____ is a common compression standard for storing photos.

    a) GIF
    b) AIF
    c) WAV
    d) JPEG
    d) JPEG
  162. A _____ provides slots for memory cards and can be an internal or external device.

    a) card slot
    b) media processor
    c) media reader
    d) media storage device
    c) media reader
  163. For EIDE, there are four choices for drive installations: _____.

    a) primary slave, primary major, primary secondary, secondary primary
    b) primary master, primary slave, secondary master, and secondary slave
    c) primary master, primary secondary, secondary master, and secondary secondary
    d) primary minor, primary major, secondary major, and secondary minor.
    b) primary master, primary slave, secondary master, and secondary slave
  164. A CD can hold about _____ of data.

    a) 600 MB
    b) 700 MB
    c) 1 GB
    d) 1.5 GB
    b) 700 MB
  165. If a disc gets stuck in the drive, use the _____ to remove it.

    a) emergency screw hole
    b) paper clip hole
    c) emergency eject hole
    d) screwdriver slot
    c) emergency eject hole
  166. To find out what to do if you are accidentally exposed to a dangerous solution, look on the instructions printed on the can or check out the material _____ sheet.

    a) hazards
    b) safety discovery
    c) security data
    d) safety data
    d) safety data
  167. _____, caused by lifting heavy objects, is one of the most common injuries that happen at work.

    a) Neck injury
    b) Arm injury
    c) Hand injury
    d) Back injury
    d) Back injury
  168. _____ from cigarettes can accumulate on fans, causing them to jam, which in turn will cause the system to overheat.

    a) Nicotine
    b) Carbon dioxide
    c) Tar
    d) Carbon monoxide
    c) Tar
  169. Proper _____ is essential to keeping a system cool.

    a) liquid circulation
    b) air circulation
    c) heat circulation
    d) heat containment
    b) air circulation
  170. To keep boot sector viruses at bay, in _____ you can disable the ability to write to the boot sector of the hard drive.

    a) Firmware
    b) Drive firmware
    c) BIOS setup
    d) OS setup
    c) BIOS setup
  171. Dispose of _____ in the regular trash.

    a) Alkaline batteries
    b) Button batteries used in digital cameras
    c) Laser printer toner cartridges
    d) Ink-jet printer cartridges
    a) Alkaline batteries
  172. Dispose of _____ by returning them to the original dealer or by taking them to a recycling center.

    a) Alkaline batteries
    b) Button batteries
    c) Linser printer toner cartridges
    d) Computer cases and power supplies
    b) Button batteries
  173. Return _____ to the manufacturer or dealer to be recycled

    a) Laser printer toner cartridges
    b) Storage media
    c) computer cases
    d) Alkaline batteries
    a) Laser printer toner cartridges
  174. Most CRT monitors today are desiged to discharge after sitting unplugged for _____ minutes.

    a) 15
    b) 30
    c) 45
    d) 60
    d) 60
  175. When someone purchases software from a software vendor, that person has only purchased a _____ for the software, which is the right to use it.

    a) license
    b) manual
    c) copy
    d) subscription
    a) license
  176. The right to copy the work, called a _____, belongs to the creator of the work or others to whom the creator transfers this right.

    a) standards mark
    b) reference mark
    c) copy standard
    d) copyright
    d) copyright
  177. _____ are intended to legally protect the intellectual property right of organizations or individuals to creative works, which include books, images, and software.

    a) Trademarks
    b) Copyrights
    c) Service marks
    d) Copymarks
    b) Copyrights
  178. The _____ was designed in part to protect software copyrights by requiring that only lehally obtained copies of software be used.

    a) International Copyright Act of 1999
    b) Digital Mellennium Compyright Act
    c) Federal Copyright Act of 1976
    d) Federal Copyright Act of 1965
    c) Federal Copyright Act of 1976
  179. The rule _____ is the most powerful.

    a) dissect the problem
    b) observe the problem
    c) keep good notes
    d) divide and conquer
    d) divide and conquer
  180. If you want to recover lost data on a hard drive, don't _____ the drive.

    a) write anything to
    b) read anything from
    c) write anything to the boot sector
    d) write anything to the allocation tables
    a) write anything to
  181. As you solve computer problems, always keep in mind that you don't want to make things worse, so you should use the _____ invasive solution.

    a) maximum
    b) directly
    c) most
    d) least
    d) least
  182. Good _____ helps you take what you learned into the next troubleshooting situation, train others, develop effective preventive maintenance plans, and satisfy any audits or customer or employer queries about your work.

    a) procedures
    b) documentation
    c) memory
    d) communication skills
    b) documentation
  183. Upgrading to a better edition of Vista can easily be accomplished by using the _____ feature.

    a) Windows Anywhere Upgrade
    b) Windows Anytime Upgrade
    c) Windows Anyplace Upgrade
    d) Window Automatic Upgrade
    b) Windows Anytime Upgrade
  184. Use a _____-bit OS if you need increased performance and your system has enough resources to support it.

    a) 8
    b) 16
    c) 32
    d) 64
    d) 64
  185. Use _____ to find out which devices are installed in you XP system.

    a) Computer Manager
    c) User Manager
    c) Device Manager
    d) System Manager
    c) Device Manager
  186. A(n) _____ server is used to hold the setup files on a Windows CD or DVD on the network and then at each PC, you can execute the Setup program on the server.

    a) distribution
    b) image
    c) software
    d) file
    a) distribution
  187. A(n) _____ installation is performed by storing the answers to installationquestions in a text file or script that Windows calls an answer file.

    a) scripted
    b) attended
    c) unattended
    d) replacement
    c) unattended
  188. The Windows utility _____ is used to remove configuration settings, such as the computer name that uniquely identifies the PC.

    a) msconfig.exe
    b) msprep.exe
    c) w32prep.exe
    d) sysprep.exe
    d) sysprep.exe
  189. For some bard-name computers, the hard drive contains a _____ partition that can be used to reinstall Windows.

    a) hidden resolution
    b) hidden recovery
    c) visible recovery
    d) visible rebuild
    b) hidden recovery
  190. A _____ computer is software that simulates the hardware of a physical computer.

    a) real
    b) logical
    c) virtual
    d) functional
    c) virtual
  191. The _____ partition is the active partiion of the hard drive.

    a) system
    b) data
    c) recovery
    d) logical
    a) system
  192. A Windows _____ is a logical group of computers and users that share resources, where administration, resources, and security on a workstation are controlled by that workstation.

    a) domain
    b) workgroup
    c) task group
    d) work unit
    b) workgroup
  193. A Windows domain is a type of _____ network, which is a network where resources are managed by a centralized computer.

    a) time-sharing
    b) virtual
    c) server/server
    d) server/client
    d) server/client
  194. An example of a network operating system in Windows Server 2008, which controls a network using the directory database called _____.

    a) Net Directory
    b) Win Directory
    c) Active Directory
    d) Open Directory
    c) Active Directory
  195. The _____ command is used to copy the information from the old computer to a server or removable media.

    a) getstate
    b) loadstate
    c) setstate
    d) scanstate
    d) scanstate
  196. The _____ command is used to copy the information to a new computer.

    a) getstate
    b) loadstate
    c) setstate
    d) scanstate
    b) loadstate
  197. During the normal Windows XP installation, setup causes the system to reboot _____ times.

    a) one
    b) two
    c) three
    d) four
    c) three
  198. To convert a FAT32 volume to an NTFS voume, first back up all important data on the drive and then use this command prompt: _____, where D: is the drive to be converted.

    a) convntfs D:
    b) convert D: /FS:NTFS /OFS:FAT
    c) convfs D: /FS:NTSF
    d) convert D: /FS:NTSF
    d) convert D: /FS:NTSF
  199. For an always-up broadband connection (such as a cable modem or DSL), select _____ when you configure updates.

    a) Never
    b) Notify me but don't automatically download or install them
    c) Automatic
    d) Autimatically download but do not install them
    c) Automatic
  200. When you configure updates, if the PC doesn't have an always-up Internet connection (such as dial-up), you might want to select _____.

    a) Never
    b) Notify me but don't automatically download or install them
    c) Automatic
    d) Autimatically download but do not install them
    d) Autimatically download but do not install them

What would you like to do?

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview