Hardware Support Final Review .txt

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jal128
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Hardware Support Final Review .txt
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2012-05-04 01:46:43
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Hardware Support Final Review
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  1. For Windows XP, use the ______ to see which service packs are installed.

    a) Computer Properties box
    b) Computer manager box
    c) System Properties box
    d)System Manager box
    c) System Properties box
  2. To view and manually install updates, click _____, and then follow the directions on-screen.

    a) Start and Windows Updates
    b) Start, Windows, and Windows Updates
    c) Start, All Programs, Accessories, and Windows Updates
    d) Start, All Programs, and Windows Updates
    d) Start, All Programs, and Windows Updates
  3. To protect a system against malicious attack, you need to verify that _____ software is configured to scan the system regularly and that it is up-to-date.

    a) antispyware
    b) firewall
    c) prevention
    d) antivirus
    d) antivirus
  4. Use the _____ command to defrag the drive from a command prompt window.

    a) Optimize
    b) Analyze
    c) Defrag
    d) Chdsk
    c) Defrag
  5. To make sure the drive is healthy, you need to search for and repair file system errors using the Windows utility

    a) Defrag
    b) Chdsk
    c) Analyze
    d) Optimize
    b) Chdsk
  6. _____ creates restore points at regular intervals and just before you install software or hardware.

    a) System Activation
    b) System Protection
    c) System Restoration
    d) System Prevention
    b) System Protection
  7. The user folder for an account contains a group of subfolders called the user _____.

    a) namespace
    b) directory namespace
    c) profile namespace
    d) controlled namespace
    c) profile namespace
  8. If you enter a command and want to terminate its execution before it is finished, you can press _____ to do so.

    a) Ctrl+Break
    b) Ctrl+V
    c) Ctrl+B
    d) Ctrl+X
    a) Ctrl+Break
  9. Besides backing up user data or system files, you can also back up the entire hard drive using Windows Vista _____.

    a) Automated System Backup
    b) Complete PC recovery
    c) Automated System Rocovery
    d) Complete PC backup
    d) Complete PC backup
  10. The _____ command creates a subdirectory under the directory.

    a) RD
    b) MD
    c) CD
    d) AD
    b) MD
  11. A dynamic disk requires _____ MB of storage for the disk management database.

    a) 1
    b) 2
    c) 3
    d) 4
    a) 1
  12. You can use _____ ro convert two or more basic disks to dynamic disks.

    a) Disk Management
    b) Windows Manager
    c) System Management
    d) Computer Management
    a) Disk Management
  13. When a hard drive is first sensed by Windows, it is assigned the _____ disk status.

    a) Primary
    b) Dynamic
    c) Automatic
    d) Basic
    d) Basic
  14. A disk marked as dynamic can be used with other dynamic disks in a spanned or _____ volume.

    a) blocked
    b) checkered
    c) striped
    d) lined
    c) striped
  15. If you are having problems with a hard drive, volume, or mounted drive, check _____ for events about the drive that might have ben recorded there.

    a) Event Viewer
    b) Windows Event Log
    c) Event Log
    d) Event Log Manager
    • a) Event Viewer
  16. Windows Vista Ultimate offers language packs through _____.

    a) Microsoft Update
    b) Windows Update
    c) Language Update
    d) System Update
    b) Windows Update
  17. The _____ tab of Task Manager lists system services and other processes associated with applications, together with how much CPU time and memory the process uses.

    a) Applications
    b) Services
    c) Processes
    d) Performance
    c) Processes
  18. If your desktop locks up, you can use _____ to refresh it.

    a) Task Manager
    b) Process Manager
    c) Task List Manager
    d) Task and Process Manager
    a) Task Manager
  19. The _____ tab in Task Manager lets you monitor network activity and bandwidth used.

    a) Application
    b) Process
    c) Networking
    d) Services
    c) Networking
  20. The _____ tab in Task Manager shows all users currently logged on the system.

    a) Users
    b) Processes
    c) Networking
    d) Applications
    a) Users
  21. You can use the _____ to find out what processes are launched at startup and to temorarily disable a process from loading.

    a) System Access Utility
    b) System Management Utility
    c) System Stability Utility
    d) System Configuration Utility
    d) System Configuration Utility
  22. _____ is a Windows utility that can be used to build your own customized console windows.

    a) Microsoft Management Console
    b) Microsoft Manager Console
    c) Microsoft Management Components
    d) Microsoft Manager Consoles
    a) Microsoft Management Console
  23. A(n) _____ is a single window that contains one or more administrative tools such as Device Manager or Disk Management.

    a) snap-in
    b) add-in
    c) view
    d)console
    d)console
  24. In a console, the individual tools are called _____.

    a) consoles
    b) add-ins
    c) snap-ins
    d) views
    c) snap-ins
  25. A console is saved in a file with an _____ file extension.

    a) .mscx
    b) .msc
    c) .mmc
    d) .mmcx
    b) .msc
  26. Device Manager reads data from the ______ key to build the information it displays about hardware comfigurations.

    a) HKLM\HARDWARE
    b) HKLM\SYSTEM
    c) HKLM\CONFIG
    d) HKU\HARDWARE
    a) HKLM\HARDWARE
  27. _____, under Windows Vista, is a summary index designed to measure the overall performance of a system.

    a) Windows Rating
    b) Windows Reliability Index
    c) Windows Experience Index
    d) Windows Performance Index
    c) Windows Experience Index
  28. You can use the _____ to find information about the installed processor and its speed, how much RAM is installed, and free space on the hard drive.

    a) System Management Utility
    b) Computer Management Utility
    c) System Configuration Utility
    d) System Information Utility
    d) System Information Utility
  29. The _____ is responsible for maintaining an index of files and folders on a hard drive to speed up Windows searches.

    a) Windows performance monitor
    b) Windows reliability monitor
    c) Windows indexer
    d) Windows database
    c) Windows indexer
  30. The _____ box can protect your system against user making unauthorized changes and against malware installing itself without your knowledge.

    a) UAC
    b) AAC
    c) UAN
    d) UAK
    a) UAC
  31. Most programs written for Windows have a(n) _____ routine which can be accessed from the Vista Programs and Features applet in the Control Panel, the XP Add Remote Programs applet in the Control Panel, or a utility in the All Programs menu.

    a) installer
    b) packing
    c) packaging
    d) uninstall
    d) uninstall
  32. If a system is giving repeated startup errors or you have just removed several programs, you might want to search through _____ for processes left there by uninstall or corrupted software that might be giving startup problems.

    a) registry keys
    b) files
    c) folders
    d) menus
    a) registry keys
  33. Use the Windows Vista _____ tool to deal with an immediate hardware or software problem.

    a) Help and Support
    b) Help and Problems Solutions
    c) Problem Reports and Solutions
    d) Problem Solutions
    c) Problem Reports and Solutions
  34. If a problem happens in the kernel mode of Windows, a _____ or blue screen error occurs.

    a) STOP
    b) HALT
    c) BREAK
    d) FAULT
    a) STOP
  35. You can quiskly identify a problem with memory or eliminate memory as the source of a problem by using the _____ tool.

    a) Windows Memory Diagnostics
    b) Vista System Diagnostics
    c) Windows System Diagnostics
    d) Vista Memory Diagnostics
    d) Vista Memory Diagnostics
  36. For hardware problems, _____ is a Windows Vista/XP/2000 utility that runs in the background to put stress on drivers as they are loaded and running.

    a) File Signature Verification
    b) Driver Verifier
    c) Vista Memory Diagnostics
    d) Problem Reports and Solutions
    b) Driver Verifier
  37. The _____ tool displays information about digitally signed files, including device driver files and application files, and logs information to C:\Windows\Sigverif.txt

    a) Driver Verifier
    b) Vista Memory Diagnostics
    c) File Signature Verification
    d) Problem Reports and Solutions
    c) File Signature Verification
  38. The _____ tool can be used to direct information about drivers to a file, including information about digital signatures.

    a) Driver Query
    b) Driver Verifier
    c) Problem Reports and Solutions
    d) File Signature Verification
    a) Driver Query
  39. Vista configuration data is stored in the Vista _____ file.

    a) Root Configuration File
    b) Boot Initialization File
    c) Root Retention File
    d) Boot Configuration File
    d) Boot Configuration File
  40. The Vista Advanced Boot Options menu appears when a user presses _____ as Vista is loading.

    a) F2
    b) F4
    c) F8
    d) F12
    c) F8
  41. You can use the Windows RE command prompt window to restor registry files using those saved in the _____ folder.

    a) c:\windows\system32\regback
    b) c:\windows\regback
    c) c:\windows\platform\config\regback
    d) c:\windows\system32\config\regback
    d) c:\windows\system32\config\regback
  42. The _____ file is a hidden text file stored in the root directory of the active partition that Ntldr reads to see what operating systems are available and how to set up the boot.

    a) Boot.ini
    b) Boot.ldr
    c) Config.sys
    d) Boot.int
    a) Boot.ini
  43. The _____ is used when Windows 2000/XP does not start properly or hangs during the load.

    a) Safe Mode Console
    b) Restoration Console
    c) Recovery Console
    d) Reversion Console
    c) Recovery Console
  44. In the Recovery Console, the command _____ deletes a directory.

    a) MD
    b) RD
    c) CD
    d) LD
    b) RD
  45. To retrieve the last command entered in the Recovery Console, press _____ at the command prompt.

    a) F1
    b) F2
    c) F3
    d) F4
    c) F3
  46. To retreive the command entered in the Recovery Console one character at a time, press the _____ key.

    a) F1
    b) F2
    c) F3
    d) F4
    a) F1
  47. Enter the command _____ to see a list of all services currently installed, which includes device drivers.

    a) listsvc
    b) svclst
    c) lstsvc
    d)svclist
    a) listsvc
  48. To move to the root directory, use the command _____.

    a) RD \
    b) CD \
    c) MD \
    d) PD \
    b) CD \
  49. A compressed file uses a(n) _____ as the last character in the file extension.

    a) underscore
    b) dollar sign
    c) equals sign
    d) dash
    a) underscore
  50. Use the _____ command to extract .cab files.

    a) Restore
    b) Decompress
    c) Expand
    d) Decode
    c) Expand
  51. In the world of computers, the term _____ refers to the computer's physical components, such as the monitor, keyboard, motherboard, and hard drive.

    a) software
    b) middleware
    c) architecture
    d) hardware
    d) hardware
  52. The term _____ refers to the set of instructions that directs the hardware to accomplish a task.

    a) software
    b) hardware
    c) middleware
    d) stack
    a) software
  53. To perform a computing task, software uses hardware for four basic functions: _____.

    a) input, storage, retrieval, and display
    b) input, processing, storage, and output
    c) input, storage, alteration, and output
    d) output, input, analysis, and viewing
    b) input, processing, storage, and output
  54. Most input/output devices communicate with components inside the computer case through a wireless connection or through cables attached to the case at a connection called a(n) _____.

    a) port
    b) slot
    c) interface
    d) socket
    a) port
  55. The printer produces output on paper, often called _____ copy.

    a) real
    b) soft
    c) hard
    d) virtual
    c) hard
  56. A device that is not installed directly on the motherboard is called a(n) _____ device.

    a) standard
    b) peripheral
    c) extraneous
    d) perimeter
    b) peripheral
  57. The _____ is a group of microchips on the motherboard that control the flow of data and instructions to and from the processor.

    a) chipset
    b) block
    c) bridge
    d) gate
    a) chipset
  58. Primary storage is provided by devices called memory or _____ located on the motherboard and on some adapter cards.

    a) ROM
    b) BIOS
    c) Flash
    d) RAM
    d) RAM
  59. Most _____ drives consist of a sealed case containing platters or disks that rotate at a high speed.

    a) optical
    b) hard
    c) flash
    d) solid state
    b) hard
  60. A(n) _____ drive is considered standard equipment on most computer systems today because most software is distributed on CDs or DVDs.

    a) floppy
    b) flash
    c) optical
    d) hard
    c) optical
  61. USB _____ drives are compact, easy to use, and currently holds up to 64GB of data.

    a) worm
    b) optical
    c) hard
    d) flash
    d) flash
  62. A(n) ______ is a set of rules and standards that any two entities use for communication.

    a) protocol
    b) language
    c) interface
    d) interaction
    a) protocol
  63. Everything in a computer is _____.

    a) decimal
    b) binary
    c) hexadecimal
    d) integer
    b) binary
  64. The _____ card, also called a graphics card, provides one or more ports for a monitor.

    a) video
    b) interface
    c) modem
    d) network
    a) video
  65. The _____ card provides a port for a network cable to connect th PC to a network.

    a) video
    b) interface
    c) modem
    d) network
    d) network
  66. Data and instructions are stored on special ROM (read-only memory) chips on the board and are called the _____.

    a) flash
    b) microcode
    c) BIOS
    d) symbols
    c) BIOS
  67. Motherboard settings are stored in a small amout of RAM locoted on the firmware chip and are called _____.

    a) CMOS ROM
    b) CMOS RAM
    c) DMOS ROM
    d) HMAC RAM
    b) CMOS RAM
  68. A(n) _____ is software that controls a computer.

    a) application
    b) operating system
    c) interface routine
    d) ROM routine
    b) operating system
  69. In 1986, _____ was introduced and quickly became the most popular OS amoung IBM computers and OBM-compatible computers using the Intel 8086 processors.

    a) MS-DOS
    b) Windows
    c) OS/2
    d) CP/M
    a) MS-DOS
  70. A _____ interface is an interface that uses graphics as compared to a command-driven interface.

    a) text
    b) menu-based
    c) common user
    d) graphical user
    d) graphical user
  71. Vista has a new 3D user interface called the _____ user interface.

    a) Glass
    b) Aero
    c) Air
    d) Shield
    b) Aero
  72. A _____ makes it possible to boot a computer inro one of two OSs.

    a) hypervisitor
    b) virtualization layer
    c) dual boot
    d) quick boot
    c) dual boot
  73. A(n) _____ is a portion of an OS that relates to the user and to applications.

    a) hypervisor
    b) interpreter
    c) GUI
    d) shell
    d) shell
  74. The _____ interface between the subsystem in user mode and the HAL.

    a) application
    b) executive services
    c) primitive
    d) non-privileged services
    b) executive services
  75. _____ are small programs stored on the hard drive that tell the computer how to communicate with a specific hardware device such as a printer, network card, or modem.

    a) Abstraction layer
    b) Device drivers
    c) BIOS
    d) Input routines
    b) Device drivers
  76. The _____ is usually on the right side of the task bar and displays open services.

    a) status tray
    b) display area
    c) system tray
    d) indentification area
    c) system tray
  77. A _____ is one or more characters following the last period in a filename, such as .exe, .txt, or .avi.

    a) filename
    b) file extension
    c) file version
    d) file type
    b) file extension
  78. The _____ dialog box in Windows Vista appears each time a user attempt to perform an action that can be done only with administrative privileges.

    a) User Account Confirmation
    b) User Account Control
    c) User Access Control
    d) User Access Confirmation
    b) User Account Control
  79. Windows identifies file types primarily by the _____.

    a) file contents
    b) resource fork
    c) file extension
    d) companion stream
    c) file extension
  80. Windows offers two ways to sync files: _____.

    a) Briefcase and Offline Files
    b) Network Neighborhood and Offline Files
    c) Synchronization Tasks and Online Files
    d) Briefcase and Synchronization layer
    b) Network Neighborhood and Offline Files
  81. For the _____ window,you can change the read-only, hidden, archive, and indexing attributes of the file.

    a) Open
    b) Attributes
    c) Status
    d) Properties
    d) Properties
  82. A(n) _____ is a list of items that is used to speed up a search.

    a) database
    b) index
    c) shortcut
    d) block
    b) index
  83. An applet has a _____ file extension.

    a) .ctl
    b) .crl
    c) .cpl
    d) .app
    c) .cpl
  84. A _____ is responsible for the PC before trouble occurs.

    a) PC hardware technician
    b) PC software technician
    c) PC support technician
    d) technical support technician
    c) PC support technician
  85. The most significant certifying organization for PC technicians is the _____.

    a) Security+
    b) Computing Technology Industry Association
    c) Internet Engineering Task Force
    d) Computer Technology Information Association
    d) Computer Technology Information Association
  86. _____ has industry reconition, so it should be your first choice for certification as a PC technician.

    a) Security+ Certification
    b) Network+ Certification
    c) Hardware+ Certification
    d) A+ Certification
    d) A+ Certification
  87. When someone initiates a call for help, the technician starts the process by creating a(n) _____.

    a) ticket
    b) request
    c) rule
    d) order
    a) ticket
  88. One of the most important ways to acheive customer satisfaction is to do you best by being _____.

    a) genial
    b) on time
    c) prepared
    d) courteous
    c) prepared
  89. _____ customers are your customers who come to you and your compnay for service.

    a) Internal
    b) External
    c) Partner
    d) Related
    b) External
  90. To improve your attitude, you must do it from your _____.

    a) heart
    b) head
    c) intellect
    d) language
    a) heart
  91. _____ differences happen because we are from different countries and societies or because of physical hadicaps.

    a) Regional
    b) Social
    c) Cultural
    d) Language
    c) Cultural
  92. _____ a problem increases your claue in the eyes of your coworkers and boss.

    a) Taking ownership of
    b) Ceding responsibility for
    c) Relinquishing control of
    d) passing on
    a) Taking ownership of
  93. To provide good service, you need to have a good _____ when servicing customers on the phone or online, on site, or in a shop.

    a) instincts
    b) plan
    c) script
    d) phone voice
    b) plan
  94. When you arrive at the customer's site, greet them with a _____.

    a) positive attitude
    b) clean uniform
    c) wmile
    d) handshake
    d) handshake
  95. Troubleshooting begins by _____.

    a) Assessing the computer
    b) interviewing the user
    c) reading the work order
    d) understanding the procedure
    b) interviewing the user
  96. Part of setting _____ is to establish a timeline with your customer for the completion of a project.

    a) expectations
    b) goals
    c) requirements
    d) objectives
    a) expectations
  97. _____ support requires more interaction with customers than any other type of PC support.

    a) Web
    b) Phone
    c) Face-to-face
    d) Remote
    b) Phone
  98. _____ is required if the customer must be told each key to press or command button to click.

    a) Attitude
    b) Arrogance
    c) Patience
    d) Objectivity
    c) Patience
  99. Knowing how to _____ a problem to those higher in the support chain is one of the first things you should learn on a new job.

    a) delegate
    b) recommend
    c) downgrade
    d) escalate
    d) escalate
  100. Organize you time by making _____ and sticking with them as best you can.

    a) to-do list
    b) plans
    c) ticket lists
    d) task lists
    a) to-do list
  101. _____ memory temporarily holds data and instructions as the CPU processes them.

    a) Random array
    b) Read-only
    c) Repeatable access
    d) Random access
    d) Random access
  102. _____ is used for a memory cache and is contained within the processor housing.

    a) SRAM
    b) DRAM
    c) ROM
    d) cSRAM
    a) SRAM
  103. _____ loses its data rapidly, and the memory controller must refresh it several thousand times a second.

    a) Static RAM
    b) Read-only memory
    c) Dynamic RAM
    d) Flash RAM
    c) Dynamic RAM
  104. Laptops use a smaller version of a DIMM called a(n) _____.

    a) mDIMM
    b) SO-DIMM
    c) dDIMM
    d) l-DIMM
    b) SO-DIMM
  105. A(n) _____ gets its name because it has independent pins on opposite side of the module.

    a) DIMM
    b) RIMM
    c) SIMM
    d) TRIMM
    a) DIMM
  106. If the number of bits is not an odd number for odd parity or an even number for even parity, a _____ error occurs.

    a) checksum
    b) flip
    c) word
    d) parity
    d) parity
  107. A Rambus memory module is called a(n) _____.

    a) RIMM
    b) DIMM
    c) SIMM
    d) RDIMM
    a) RIMM
  108. SIMMs are rated by speed, measured in _____.

    a) microseconds
    b) milliseconds
    c) picoseconds
    d) nanoseconds
    d) nanoseconds
  109. To use System Information, in the Vista Start Search box or the Windows XP Run box, type _____ and press Enter.

    a) msinfo32
    b) msconfig
    c) wininfo
    d) msinfo
    a) msinfo32
  110. In the table found in the motherboard manual, a chip on a RIMM module is called a _____.

    a) tool
    b) gadget
    c) widget
    d) component
    d) component
  111. Higher-quality memory modules have _____ installed to reduce heat and help the module last longer.

    a) fans
    b) heat rails
    c) epoxy
    d) heat sinks
    d) heat sinks
  112. If the chip's surface is dull or matted, or you can scratch off the markings with a fingernail or knife, suspect that the chip has been _____.

    a) re-burned
    b) re-marked
    c) defaced
    d) installed new
    b) re-marked
  113. For _____ modules, small clips latch into place on each side of the slot to hold the module in the slot.

    a) DRAM
    b) RIMM
    c) DIMM
    d) SIMM
    c) DIMM
  114. When installing the RIMM, _____ on the edges of the RIMM module will help you to orient it correctly in the socket.

    a) vents
    b) colors
    c) notches
    d) symbols
    c) notches
  115. In Windows, memory errors can cause frequent _____ errors.

    a) General Fault
    b) General Protection Fault
    c) Stack Overflow
    d) Heap Overflow
    b) General Protection Fault
  116. A _____ drive has one, two, or more platters, or disks, that stack together and spin in unison inside a sealed metal housing that contains firmware to control reading and writing data to the drive and to communicate with the motherboard.

    a) magnetic optical
    b) floppy
    c) magnetic hard
    d) magnetic image
    c) magnetic hard
  117. The top and bottom of each disk of magnetic hard drive have a(n) _____ that moves across the disk surface as all the disks rotate on a spindle.

    a) read head
    b) read/write head
    c) access head
    d) platter device
    b) read/write head
  118. Each side, or surface, of one hard drive platter is called a _____.

    a) bubble
    b) wing
    c) tail
    d) head
    d) head
  119. Windows Vista technology that supports a hybrid drive is called _____.

    a) ReadyRAM
    b) ReadySpin
    c) ReadyDrive
    d) ReadyDisk
    c) ReadyDrive
  120. The total number of _____ on the drive determines the drive capacity.

    a) sectors
    b) wedges
    c) platters
    d) controllers
    a) sectors
  121. _____ on a circuit board inside the drive housing is responsible for writing and reading data to these tracks and sectors and for keeping track of where everything is stored on the drive.

    a) Wetware
    b) ROM
    c) Firmware
    d) Software
    c) Firmware
  122. During the _____ formatting process, you specify the size of the partition and what file system it will use.

    a) low-level
    b) high-level
    c) medium-level
    d) physical
    b) high-level
  123. The ATA interface standards are developed by Technical Committee T13 and published by _____.

    a) ISO
    b) IEEE
    c) IETF
    d) ANSI
    d) ANSI
  124. _____ is a system BIOS feature that monitors hard drive performance, disk performance, disk spin up time, temperature, distance between the head and the disk, and other machanical activities of the drive in order to predict when the drive is likely to fail.

    a) S.M.A.R.T.
    b) D.A.R.T.
    c) S.T.A.R.T.
    d) S.P.I.N.
    a) S.M.A.R.T.
  125. _____ transfers data directly from the drive to memory without involving the CPU.

    a) RMA
    b) DAM
    c) SMA
    d) DMA
    d) DMA
  126. _____ mode involves the CPU and is slower than DMA mode.

    a) DMZ
    b) PIO
    c) RMA
    d) PIN
    b) PIO
  127. With _____, you can connect and disconnect a drive while the system is running.

    a) wet-swapping
    b) cold-swapping
    c) hot-swapping
    d) block-swapping
    c) hot-swapping
  128. External _____ is up to six times faster than USB or FireWire.

    a) SATA
    b) SCSI
    c) IDE
    d) DMA
    a) SATA
  129. _____ is a standard for communication between a subsystem of peripheral devices and the system bus.

    a) SAS
    b) SATA
    c) SCSD
    d) SCSI
    d) SCSI
  130. A technology that configures two or more hard drives to work together as an array of drives is called _____.

    a) FLAG
    b) RAID
    c) RAIN
    d) RAISE
    b) RAID
  131. A drive _____ is a duplication of everything written to a hard drive.

    a) network
    b) array
    c) handle
    d) image
    d) image
  132. With _____, two hard drives are configured as a single volume.

    a) binding
    b) bonding
    c) spanning
    d) wrapping
    c) spanning
  133. When using an 80-conductor cable-select cable, the drive nearest the motherboard is the _____.

    a) master
    b) slave
    c) subordinate
    d) major
    a) master
  134. If you are mounting a hard drive into a bay that is too large, a _____ kit can help you securely fit the drive into the bay.

    a) reversal bay
    b) drive connecting
    c) universal bay
    d) bay adapter
    c) universal bay
  135. Problems with a device can sometimes be solved by updating the _____ or firmware.

    a) device patches
    b) device drivers
    c) device scanners
    d) device containers
    b) device drivers
  136. Devices and their device drivers are managed using _____.

    a) System Manager
    b) Computer Manager
    c) Device Manager
    d) Control Panel
    c) Device Manager
  137. _____ systems and peripherals have the U.S. Green Star, indicating that they satisfy certain energy-conserving standards of the U.S. Environment Protection Agency (EPA).

    a) Energy Star
    b) Energy Saving
    c) Energy Wise
    d) Green Energy
    a) Energy Star
  138. To protect the data on a USB storage device while removing it, double-click the _____ icon in the notification area before removing the device.

    a) Format
    b) Safely Eject Hazard
    c) Eject
    d) Safely Remove Hardware
    d) Safely Remove Hardware
  139. FireWire and i.Link are common names for another peripheral bus officially named _____.

    a) IEEE 1394
    b) IEEE 802.1x
    c) IEEE 1399
    d) IEEE 1934
    a) IEEE 1394
  140. _____ supports speed up to 400 Mbps and is sometimes called FireWire 400.

    a) IEEE 1394
    b) IEEE 802.9
    c) IEEE 1394a
    d) IEEE 1394.2
    c) IEEE 1394a
  141. _____ can use cables up to 100 meters (328 feet), and uses a 9-pin rectangular connector.

    a) 1394a
    b) 1394b
    c) 1394
    d) 1394c
    b) 1394b
  142. IEEE 1394 uses _____ data transfer, meaning that data is transfered continuously without breaks.

    a) asynchronous
    b) isolated
    c) symmetric
    d) isochronous
    d) isochronous
  143. A serial port is provided by the motherboard or might be provided by an adopter card called a(n) _____ card.

    a) interrupt
    b) storage
    c) I/O controller
    d) Southbridge
    c) I/O controller
  144. _____ CRT monitors draw a screen by making two passes.

    a) Multipass
    b) Multipath
    c) Noninterlaced
    d) Interlaced
    d) Interlaced
  145. A _____ deivce is an input device that biological data about a person, which can be input data to identify a person's fingerprints, handprints, face, voice, eye, and handwritten signature.

    a) biometric
    b) biomechanical
    c) simulated biology
    d) biostatic
    a) biometric
  146. Ports on the motherboard can be disabled or enabled in _____ setup.

    a) RAM
    b) firmware
    c) Northbridge
    d) BIOS
    d) BIOS
  147. The _____ assignment refer to the system resources a parallel port will use to manage a print job.

    a) COM
    b) LPT
    c) SRL
    d) PRL
    b) LPT
  148. A _____ plug is a tool used to test a serial, parallel, USB, network, or other port.

    a) loop-back
    b) return
    c) wrap
    d) lock out
    a) loop-back
  149. Chips sometimes loosen because of temperature changes; this condition is called _____.

    a) chip slip
    b) block creep
    c) chip creep
    d) solder error
    c) chip creep
  150. For laptops, you can adjust the brightness of the display using _____ keys.

    a) secondary
    b) function
    c) control
    d) interface
    b) function
  151. The goal of _____ technology is to use sights, sounds, and animation to make computer output look as much like real life as possible.

    a) realistic
    b) transition
    c) multimedia
    d) reality
    c) multimedia
  152. Computers store data digitally and ultimately as a stream of only two numbers: _____.

    a) 1 and 2
    b) 0 and 1
    c) 0 and 9
    d) 8 and 1
    b) 0 and 1
  153. After the sound is recorded and sigitalized, many sound cards convert and ompress the digitilized sound to _____ format.

    a) MP3
    b) AU
    c) WAV
    d) AIF
    a) MP3
  154. MP3 sound files have a(n) _____ file extension.

    a) .wav
    b) .avi
    c) .aif
    d) .mp3
    d) .mp3
  155. A video _____ card lets you capture this video input and save it to a file on your hard drive.

    a) capture
    b) retouch
    c) interface
    d) rendering
    a) capture
  156. _____ are smooth and level areas on an optical disc.

    a) Pits
    b) Runs
    c) Valleys
    d) Lands
    d) Lands
  157. _____ are recessed areas on the surface of an optical disc.

    a) Land
    b) Grooves
    c) Pits
    d) Valleys
    c) Pits
  158. In order to read each sector on the spiral of a CD at a constant _____, the disc spins faster when the read-write head is near the center of the disc.

    a) rotational velocity
    b) linear velocity
    c) linear torque
    d) rotational momentum
    b) linear velocity
  159. A double-sided, dual-layer DVD can hold _____ GB.

    a) 4.7
    b) 8.5
    c) 9.4
    d) 17
    d) 17
  160. _____ drives are a great method of keeping backups of data stored on your hard drive.

    a) External hard
    b) External optical
    c) Internal optical
    d) External floppy
    a) External hard
  161. _____ is a common compression standard for storing photos.

    a) GIF
    b) AIF
    c) WAV
    d) JPEG
    d) JPEG
  162. A _____ provides slots for memory cards and can be an internal or external device.

    a) card slot
    b) media processor
    c) media reader
    d) media storage device
    c) media reader
  163. For EIDE, there are four choices for drive installations: _____.

    a) primary slave, primary major, primary secondary, secondary primary
    b) primary master, primary slave, secondary master, and secondary slave
    c) primary master, primary secondary, secondary master, and secondary secondary
    d) primary minor, primary major, secondary major, and secondary minor.
    b) primary master, primary slave, secondary master, and secondary slave
  164. A CD can hold about _____ of data.

    a) 600 MB
    b) 700 MB
    c) 1 GB
    d) 1.5 GB
    b) 700 MB
  165. If a disc gets stuck in the drive, use the _____ to remove it.

    a) emergency screw hole
    b) paper clip hole
    c) emergency eject hole
    d) screwdriver slot
    c) emergency eject hole
  166. To find out what to do if you are accidentally exposed to a dangerous solution, look on the instructions printed on the can or check out the material _____ sheet.

    a) hazards
    b) safety discovery
    c) security data
    d) safety data
    d) safety data
  167. _____, caused by lifting heavy objects, is one of the most common injuries that happen at work.

    a) Neck injury
    b) Arm injury
    c) Hand injury
    d) Back injury
    d) Back injury
  168. _____ from cigarettes can accumulate on fans, causing them to jam, which in turn will cause the system to overheat.

    a) Nicotine
    b) Carbon dioxide
    c) Tar
    d) Carbon monoxide
    c) Tar
  169. Proper _____ is essential to keeping a system cool.

    a) liquid circulation
    b) air circulation
    c) heat circulation
    d) heat containment
    b) air circulation
  170. To keep boot sector viruses at bay, in _____ you can disable the ability to write to the boot sector of the hard drive.

    a) Firmware
    b) Drive firmware
    c) BIOS setup
    d) OS setup
    c) BIOS setup
  171. Dispose of _____ in the regular trash.

    a) Alkaline batteries
    b) Button batteries used in digital cameras
    c) Laser printer toner cartridges
    d) Ink-jet printer cartridges
    a) Alkaline batteries
  172. Dispose of _____ by returning them to the original dealer or by taking them to a recycling center.

    a) Alkaline batteries
    b) Button batteries
    c) Linser printer toner cartridges
    d) Computer cases and power supplies
    b) Button batteries
  173. Return _____ to the manufacturer or dealer to be recycled

    a) Laser printer toner cartridges
    b) Storage media
    c) computer cases
    d) Alkaline batteries
    a) Laser printer toner cartridges
  174. Most CRT monitors today are desiged to discharge after sitting unplugged for _____ minutes.

    a) 15
    b) 30
    c) 45
    d) 60
    d) 60
  175. When someone purchases software from a software vendor, that person has only purchased a _____ for the software, which is the right to use it.

    a) license
    b) manual
    c) copy
    d) subscription
    a) license
  176. The right to copy the work, called a _____, belongs to the creator of the work or others to whom the creator transfers this right.

    a) standards mark
    b) reference mark
    c) copy standard
    d) copyright
    d) copyright
  177. _____ are intended to legally protect the intellectual property right of organizations or individuals to creative works, which include books, images, and software.

    a) Trademarks
    b) Copyrights
    c) Service marks
    d) Copymarks
    b) Copyrights
  178. The _____ was designed in part to protect software copyrights by requiring that only lehally obtained copies of software be used.

    a) International Copyright Act of 1999
    b) Digital Mellennium Compyright Act
    c) Federal Copyright Act of 1976
    d) Federal Copyright Act of 1965
    c) Federal Copyright Act of 1976
  179. The rule _____ is the most powerful.

    a) dissect the problem
    b) observe the problem
    c) keep good notes
    d) divide and conquer
    d) divide and conquer
  180. If you want to recover lost data on a hard drive, don't _____ the drive.

    a) write anything to
    b) read anything from
    c) write anything to the boot sector
    d) write anything to the allocation tables
    a) write anything to
  181. As you solve computer problems, always keep in mind that you don't want to make things worse, so you should use the _____ invasive solution.

    a) maximum
    b) directly
    c) most
    d) least
    d) least
  182. Good _____ helps you take what you learned into the next troubleshooting situation, train others, develop effective preventive maintenance plans, and satisfy any audits or customer or employer queries about your work.

    a) procedures
    b) documentation
    c) memory
    d) communication skills
    b) documentation
  183. Upgrading to a better edition of Vista can easily be accomplished by using the _____ feature.

    a) Windows Anywhere Upgrade
    b) Windows Anytime Upgrade
    c) Windows Anyplace Upgrade
    d) Window Automatic Upgrade
    b) Windows Anytime Upgrade
  184. Use a _____-bit OS if you need increased performance and your system has enough resources to support it.

    a) 8
    b) 16
    c) 32
    d) 64
    d) 64
  185. Use _____ to find out which devices are installed in you XP system.

    a) Computer Manager
    c) User Manager
    c) Device Manager
    d) System Manager
    c) Device Manager
  186. A(n) _____ server is used to hold the setup files on a Windows CD or DVD on the network and then at each PC, you can execute the Setup program on the server.

    a) distribution
    b) image
    c) software
    d) file
    a) distribution
  187. A(n) _____ installation is performed by storing the answers to installationquestions in a text file or script that Windows calls an answer file.

    a) scripted
    b) attended
    c) unattended
    d) replacement
    c) unattended
  188. The Windows utility _____ is used to remove configuration settings, such as the computer name that uniquely identifies the PC.

    a) msconfig.exe
    b) msprep.exe
    c) w32prep.exe
    d) sysprep.exe
    d) sysprep.exe
  189. For some bard-name computers, the hard drive contains a _____ partition that can be used to reinstall Windows.

    a) hidden resolution
    b) hidden recovery
    c) visible recovery
    d) visible rebuild
    b) hidden recovery
  190. A _____ computer is software that simulates the hardware of a physical computer.

    a) real
    b) logical
    c) virtual
    d) functional
    c) virtual
  191. The _____ partition is the active partiion of the hard drive.

    a) system
    b) data
    c) recovery
    d) logical
    a) system
  192. A Windows _____ is a logical group of computers and users that share resources, where administration, resources, and security on a workstation are controlled by that workstation.

    a) domain
    b) workgroup
    c) task group
    d) work unit
    b) workgroup
  193. A Windows domain is a type of _____ network, which is a network where resources are managed by a centralized computer.

    a) time-sharing
    b) virtual
    c) server/server
    d) server/client
    d) server/client
  194. An example of a network operating system in Windows Server 2008, which controls a network using the directory database called _____.

    a) Net Directory
    b) Win Directory
    c) Active Directory
    d) Open Directory
    c) Active Directory
  195. The _____ command is used to copy the information from the old computer to a server or removable media.

    a) getstate
    b) loadstate
    c) setstate
    d) scanstate
    d) scanstate
  196. The _____ command is used to copy the information to a new computer.

    a) getstate
    b) loadstate
    c) setstate
    d) scanstate
    b) loadstate
  197. During the normal Windows XP installation, setup causes the system to reboot _____ times.

    a) one
    b) two
    c) three
    d) four
    c) three
  198. To convert a FAT32 volume to an NTFS voume, first back up all important data on the drive and then use this command prompt: _____, where D: is the drive to be converted.

    a) convntfs D:
    b) convert D: /FS:NTFS /OFS:FAT
    c) convfs D: /FS:NTSF
    d) convert D: /FS:NTSF
    d) convert D: /FS:NTSF
  199. For an always-up broadband connection (such as a cable modem or DSL), select _____ when you configure updates.

    a) Never
    b) Notify me but don't automatically download or install them
    c) Automatic
    d) Autimatically download but do not install them
    c) Automatic
  200. When you configure updates, if the PC doesn't have an always-up Internet connection (such as dial-up), you might want to select _____.

    a) Never
    b) Notify me but don't automatically download or install them
    c) Automatic
    d) Autimatically download but do not install them
    d) Autimatically download but do not install them
  201. Current that cycles backand forth rather than traveling in only one direction. In the United States, the AC voltagefrom a standard wall outlet is normally between110 and 115V. In Europe, the standard AC voltagefrom a wall outlet is 220V.
    alternating current (AC)
  202. A unit of measurement forelectrical current.
    ampere or amp (A)
  203. The most common form factor for PC systemspresently in use, originally introduced by Intel in1995.
    ATX
  204. A power supply that providesa 12V power cord with a 4-pin connector to beused by the auxiliary 4-pin power connector onmotherboards used to provide extra power forprocessors.
    ATX12V power supply
  205. Temporary reductions in voltage, whichcan sometimes cause data loss. Also called sags.
    brownouts
  206. A form factorused by motherboards and computer cases that was expected to replace ATX. It has higher qualityfans, is designed for better air flow, and has improved structural support for the motherboard.
    BTX (Balanced Technology Extended)
  207. An electronic device that can maintain anelectrical charge for a period of time and is used tosmooth out the flow of electrical current.
    capacitor
  208. The maximum voltage allowedthrough a surge suppressor, such as 175 or330 volts.
    clamping voltage
  209. A type of case used in low-end desktopsystems. Compact cases, Also called low-profile orslimline cases, follow either the NLX, LPX, orMini LPX form factor. They are likely to havefewer drive bays, but they generally still providefor some expansion.
    compact case
  210. A surge protector designed towork with the telephone line to a modem.
    data line protector
  211. A computer case that sits flat on adesktop doing double duty as a monitor stand.
    desktop case
  212. Adapter cards designed to discoverand report computer errors and conflicts at POSTtime (before the computer boots up), often bydisplaying a number on the card.
    diagnostic card
  213. An electronic device that allows electricity toflow in only one direction. Used in a rectifier circuit.
    diode
  214. A switch on acircuit board or other device that can be set to onor off to hold configuration or setup information.
    DIP (dual inline package) switch
  215. Current that travels in only onedirection (the type of electricity provided bybatteries).
    direct current (DC)
  216. A magnetic fieldproduced as a side effect from the flow ofelectricity. can cause corrupted data in datalines that are not properly shielded.
    electromagnetic interference (EMI)
  217. Another name forstatic electricity, which can damage chips anddestroy motherboards, even though it might not befelt or seen with the naked eye.
    electrostatic discharge (ESD)
  218. A component in acomputer or device that can be replaced with anew component without sending the computer ordevice back to the manufacturer. Examples: powersupply, DIMM, motherboard, floppy disk drive.
    field replaceable unit (FRU)
  219. A version of the ATX form factor thatallows for maximum flexibility in the size andshape of cases and motherboards. idealfor small, custom systems.
    FlexATX
  220. A set of specifications on the size, shape,and configuration of a computer hardwarecomponent such as a case, power supply, ormotherboard.
    form factor
  221. A strap you wear around your wristthat is attached to the computer case, ground mat,or another ground so that ESD is discharged fromyour body before you touch sensitive componentsinside a computer. Also called static strap, groundstrap, ESD bracelet.
    ground bracelet
  222. A UPS connected to a computer byway of a USB or serial cable so that software onthe computer can monitor and control the UPS.
    intelligent or smart UPS
  223. A device that converts DC to AC.
    inverter
  224. A measure of work or energy. One joule ofenergy produces one watt of power for onesecond.
    joule
  225. A device that regulates, orconditions power, providing continuous voltageduring brownouts and spikes.
    line conditioners
  226. A version of the ATX form factor. addresses some new technologies thatwere developed after the original introductionof ATX.
    MicroATX
  227. The most versatile and popular computercase, which is midrange in size and generally hasaround six expansion slots and four drive bays;provides moderate potential for expansion.
    mid-tower
  228. A device used to measure the variouscomponents of an electrical circuit. The mostcommon measurements are voltage, current, andresistance.
    multimeter
  229. A low-end form factor that is similar to LPX butprovides greater support for current and emergingprocessor technologies. was designed for flexibility and efficiency of space.
    NLX
  230. Cases used for notebook computers,which are proprietary in design, leave almost noroom for expansion, and include a thermometerthat controls the case fan.
    notebook cases
  231. Running a processor at a higherfrequency than is recommended by themanufacturer, which can result in an unstablesystem, but is a popular thing to do when acomputer is used for gaming.
    overclocking
  232. Power connection on an ATX or BTXmotherboard, which can have 20 or 24 pins.
    P1 connector
  233. A self-diagnostic programused to perform a simple test of the CPU, RAM,and various I/O devices. is performedby startup BIOS when the computer is first turnedon, and is stored in ROM-BIOS.
    POST (power-on self test)
  234. A line conditioner that regulates,or conditions, power, providing continuous voltageduring brownouts.
    power conditioner
  235. A box inside the computer case thatsupplies power to the motherboard and otherinstalled devices. provide 3.3, 5, and12 volts DC.
    power supply
  236. A device that can test theoutput of each power cord coming from a powersupply.power supply
    power supply tester
  237. Interferenceproduced by a magnetic field that is a side effect ofelectricity and is in the radio frequency range.
    radio frequency interference (RFI)
  238. An electrical device that converts AC to DC.A PC power supply contains a rectifier.
    rectifier
  239. An electronic device that resists or opposesthe flow of electricity. can be used toreduce the amount of electricity being supplied toan electronic component.
    resistor
  240. A card that plugs into a motherboard andallows for expansion cards to be mounted parallelto the motherboard. Expansion cards are pluggedinto slots
    riser card
  241. A button or switch on an ATX or BTXsystem that allows an OS to power down thesystem and a feature that allows for activity suchas a keystroke or network activity to power up thesystem. Also called soft power.
    soft switch
  242. Temporary surges in voltage, which candamage electrical components. Also called swells.
    spikes
  243. A device or power strip designed toprotect electronic equipment from power surgesand spikes.
    surge suppressor
  244. The largest type of personal computercase. Tower cases stand vertically and can be as high as two feet tall. They have more drive baysand are a good choice for computer users whoanticipate making significant upgrades.
    tower case
  245. A device that changes the ratio ofcurrent to voltage.
    transformer
  246. A devicedesigned to provide a backup power supply duringa power failure. Basically, a batterybackup system with an ultrafast sensing device.
    UPS (uninterruptible power supply)
  247. A measure of potential difference in anelectrical circuit.
    volt (V)
  248. A switch on a computer powersupply used to set voltage to 115 V or 230 V.
    voltage selector switch
  249. The unit used to measure power.
    watt (W)
  250. A 32-bit wide busstandard developed specifically for video cards
    Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP)
  251. The primary partition on the harddrive that boots the OS.
    active partition
  252. A specification for asmall slot on a motherboard to accommodate anaudio or modem riser card. A controller on the motherboard contains some of the logic for theaudio or modem functionality.
    audio/modem riser (AMR)
  253. An operating system programresponsible for managing the process of loadingthe OS during the boot.
    boot loader
  254. The first sector of a floppy disk or harddrive volume; it contains information about thedisk or volume. Also called boot sector.
    boot record
  255. The process of starting up a computer andloading an operating system.
    booting
  256. The Vista program file responsible forbeginning the process of loading and startingVista. The program file has no file extension and isstored in the root directory of the system partition(which, most likely, is drive C:).
    BootMgr
  257. The battery on the motherboard usedto power the CMOS chip when the computer isunplugged.
    CMOS battery
  258. A specification for a small expansion slot on amotherboard that accommodates a small audio,modem, or network riser card.
    communication and networking riser (CNR)
  259. A technology by ATI Technologies thatallows for multiple video cards to be installed inthe same system. Compare to SLI (Scalable LinkInterface).
    CrossFire
  260. switch on acircuit board or other device that can be set to onor off to hold configuration or setup information.
    DIP (dual inline package) switch
  261. A group of pins on amotherboard that connect to wires that areconnected to the front panel of the computer case.
    front panel header
  262. Restart the computer by turning off thepower or by pressing the Reset button.
    hard or cold boot
  263. A plate installed on the rear of a computercase that provides holes for I/O ports coming offthe motherboard.
    I/O shield
  264. Two wires that stick up side by side on themotherboard or other device and are used to holdconfiguration information. is considered closed if a cover is over the wires, andopen if the cover is missing.
    jumper
  265. A feature of a CPU socketwhereby pads, called lands, are used to makecontact in uniform rows over the socket.
    land grid array (LGA)
  266. The first sector on a harddrive, which contains the partition table and aprogram the BIOS uses to boot an OS from thedrive.
    Master Boot Record (MBR)
  267. That portion of the chipset hub thatconnects faster I/O buses (for example, AGP buses)to the system bus.
    North Bridge
  268. In Windows 2000/XP, the OSloader used on Intel systems.
    Ntldr (NT Loader)
  269. Ports that are directly on themotherboard, such as a built-in keyboard port oron-board network port.
    on-board ports
  270. A table at the beginning of the harddrive that contains information about eachpartition on the drive. is contained in the Master Boot Record.
    partition table
  271. On a disk surface one segment of a track,which almost always contains 512 bytes of data.
    sector
  272. A technology byNVIDIA that allows for multiple video cards to beinstalled in the same system.
    SLI (Scalable Link Interface)
  273. To restart a PC without turning off thepower, for example, in Windows XP, by clickingStart, Turn Off Computer, and Restart.
    soft or warm boot
  274. That portion of the chipset hub thatconnects slower I/O buses (for example, a PCI bus)to the system bus.
    South Bridge
  275. A feature of a CPUsocket whereby the pins are staggered over the socket in order to squeeze more pins into a small space.
    staggered pin grid array (SPGA)
  276. Round plastic or metal pegs that separatethe motherboard from the case, so thatcomponents on the back of the motherboard donot touch the case.
    standoffs
  277. One of many concentric circles on the surfaceof a hard drive or floppy disk.
    track
  278. A power-on password required toview or edit BIOS setup or use the computer. Thepassword is set on a BIOS setup screen.
    user password
  279. A clock tick in which nothing happens,used to ensure that the microprocessor isn’t gettingahead of slower components. Too many can slow down a system.
    wait state
  280. A socket that usesa small lever to apply even force when you installthe microchip into the socket.
    zero insertion force (ZIF) socket
  281. A processor instruction set by AMDdesigned to improve performance with 3Dgraphics and other multimedia data.
    3DNow!
  282. Specification developed by Intel, Compaq,Phoenix, Microsoft, and Toshiba to controlpower on computers and other devices.
    ACPI (Advanced Configuration and Power Interface)
  283. The portion of a processor’sinternal bus that connects the processor to theinternal memory cache. operates at amuch higher frequency than the front side bus.
    back-side bus (BSB)
  284. A Windows error that displaysagainst a blue screen and causes the system to halt.Also called a stop error.
    blue screen errors
  285. Defined by ACPI and used by a processor to stop its internal operations to conserve power.Using C0 though C6 states, the processor shuts down various internal components (for example,the core clock, buffers, cache, and core voltage).
    C states
  286. A fan inside a computer case used to drawair out of or into the case.
    case fan
  287. A technology used by Intel whereby theprocessor, chipset, and wireless network adapterare all interconnected as a unit which improveslaptop performance.
    Centrino
  288. A round air duct that helpsto pull and direct fresh air from outside acomputer case to the cooler and processor.
    chassis air guide (CAG)
  289. A feature of AMD processors thatlowers power requirements and helps keep asystem quiet.
    Cool’n’Quiet
  290. A combination cooling fan and heat sinkmounted on the top or side of a processor to keepit cool.
    cooler
  291. The most common type ofsystem memory, it requires refreshing every fewmilliseconds.
    dynamic RAM (DRAM)
  292. A processor package that contains two coreprocessors, thus supporting four instructions at once.
    dual core
  293. Aprocessor feature used by Intel that steps downprocessor frequency when the processor is idle toconserve power and lower heat.
    Enhanced Intel SpeedStep Technology (EIST)
  294. A processor security feature byIntel that prevents software from executing orreproducing itself if it appears to be malicious.
    Execute Disable Bit
  295. The bus between the CPU and memoryon the motherboard. The bus frequency indocumentation is called the system speed, such as400 MHz. Also called the memory bus, front-sidebus, local bus, or host bus.
    system bus
  296. A piece of metal, with cooling fins, thatcan be attached to or mounted on an integratedchip (such as the CPU) to dissipate heat.
    heat sink
  297. The Intel technology that allows each logical processor within the processor package to handle an individual thread in parallel with other threads being handled by other processors within the package.
    Hyper-Threading
  298. The bus inside the CPU that is used for communication between the CPU’s internal components.
    internal bus
  299. Memory on the processor die used as a cache to improve processor performance.
    Level 1 (L1) cache
  300. Memory in the processor package,but not on the processor die. The memory is used as a cache or buffer to improve processor performance.
    Level 2 (L2) cache
  301. Cache memory further from the processor core than Level 2 cache, but still in the processor package.
    Level 3 (L3) cache
  302. A method to cool overclocked processors that uses a small pump inside the computer case and tubes that move water or other liquid around components and then away from them to a place where fans can cool the liquid.
    liquid cooling system
  303. A small amount of faster RAM that stores recently retrieved data, in anticipation of what the CPU will request next, thus speeding up access.
    memory cache
  304. A programming instruction that can be executed by a CPU without breaking the instruction down into simpler instructions.
    microcode
  305. Multimedia instructions built into Intel processors to add functionality such as better processing of multimedia, SIMD support, and increased cache.
    MMX (Multimedia Extensions)
  306. A processor technology where by the processor housing contains two or more processor cores that operate at the same frequency, but independently of each other.
    multi-core processing
  307. The factor by which the bus speed or frequency is multiplied to get the CPU clock speed.
    multiplier
  308. A system that containsmore than one processor.
    multiprocessor platform
  309. A processor package that contains eight cores and supports 16 instructions at once.
    octo core
  310. Standards for processors established byACPI that define how processor frequency and voltage can be lowered to conserve power when the processor is not in use.
    P states
  311. An AMD technology that increases performance and lowers power requirements for processors.
    PowerNow!
  312. The frequency at which the CPU operates. Usually expressed in GHz.
    processor frequency
  313. A processor package that contains fourcores and supports eight instructions at once.
    quad core
  314. The ACPI power saving mode where the hard drive and monitor are turned off and everything else runs normally.
    S1 state
  315. The ACPI power saving mode where the hard drive, monitor, and processor are turned off.
    S2 state
  316. The ACPI power saving mode where everything is shut down except RAM and enough of the system to respond to a wake-up call such aspressing the keyboard. Also called sleep mode orstandby mode.
    S3 state
  317. The ACPI power saving mode where everything in RAM is copied to a file on the hard drive and the system is shut down. When the system is turned on, the file is used to restore the system to its state before shut down. Also called hibernation.
    S4 state
  318. A CPU technology that allows the CPU to receive a single instruction and then execute it on multiple pieces of data. also improves on 3D graphics
    SSE (Streaming SIMD Extension)
  319. An improved version of SSE that has a larger instruction set.
    SSE2
  320. A CPU instruction set that improved on the earlier SSE2 instruction set.
    SSE3
  321. A CPU instruction set that improved 3D imaging for gaming and improved performancewith data mining applications over the earlier SSE3 instruction set.
    SSE4
  322. RAM chips that retain information without the need for refreshing, as long as the computer’s power is on. They are more expensive than traditional DRAM.
    static RAM (SRAM)
  323. A cream like substance that is placed between the bottom of the cooler hea tsink and the top of the processor to eliminate airpockets and to help to draw heat off the processor.
    thermal compound
  324. A processor package that contains three core processors, thus supporting six instructions at once.
    triple core

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