Pharmacology Final Study Cards, Part 2

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  1. The client tells the nurse he worries about everything all day, feels confused, restless, and just can’t stop worrying. What is the best response by the nurse?
    "You have generalized anxiety; I will teach you some relaxation techniques.”
  2. The client tells the nurse that she is interested in the human brain, and questions which parts of the brain control anxiety and insomnia. What is the best reply by the nurse?
    “The limbic system and reticular activating system.”
  3. The client tells the nurse “I am really confused after talking to my doctor. He said I would be taking different kinds of medications for my anxiety and insomnia. Will you please explain it?” What is the best response by the nurse? Select all that apply.
    • 1.“You will be taking medications known as sedative-hypnotics.”
    • 2.“You will be taking medications known as benzodiazepines.”
    • 5.“You will be taking medications known as antidepressants.”
  4. A patient taking which of the following medications should avoid foods high in tyramine?
  5. Benzodiazepines are often the drug of choice for managing anxiety and insomnia. Which statement best explains why?
    Benzodiazepines have the lowest risk of dependency and tolerance.
  6. Which drug category can be used for treating anxiety?
    Seizure drugs
  7. An individual who has difficulty sleeping due to two final examinations scheduled for the same day later in the week most likely would be suffering from:
    Situational anxiety.
  8. The client has been receiving escitalopram (Lexapro) for treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder. Unknown to the nurse, the client has also been self-medicating with St. John’s wort. The client comes to the office with symptoms of hyperthermia and diaphoresis. Which statement best describes the result of the nurse’s assessment?
    The client has combined two antidepressant medications and is experiencing serotonin syndrome.
  9. Which of the following common adverse effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) would be stressed by the nurse during patient discharge?
    2. Weight gain and sexual dysfunction
  10. Which explanation best indicates why barbiturates are rarely used to treat anxiety and insomnia?
    They produce many serious adverse effects
  11. A person who stops talking mid-sentence and has a blank stare for 5 seconds would most likely be experiencing:
    2. A petit mal seizure.
  12. The client is receiving phenobarbital (Luminal) for seizure control. The client asks the nurse how this little pill can stop his seizures. What is the best response by the nurse?
    “Phenobarbital (Luminal) stops your seizures by increasing a chemical called GABA that calms down the excitability in your brain.”
  13. The nurse is conducting a group education session for clients who have been diagnosed with depression. The nurse evaluates the education as effective when a client makes which comment(s) about the cause of depression? Select all that apply.
    • 1.“Depression has many causes; they could include environmental as well as brain based disorders.”
    • 2."Depression includes impaired relationships, and is also an inherited illness.”
  14. The client has been depressed and the physician plans to begin treatment with an antidepressant medication. In performing the initial assessment, what is the most important question for the nurse to ask?
    “Have you had any thoughts about killing yourself?”
  15. Which of the following symptoms experienced over 1 month would be most helpful to diagnose bipolar disorder?
    1. Abnormal eating patterns, feelings of despair, flight of ideas
  16. Which of the following drug types used to treat depression works by preventing enzymatic destruction of the neurotransmitter norepinephrine?
    Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
  17. Which of the following drug types are often used as a first-line treatment for depression due to their side effect profile?
    Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
  18. Which of the following food items should the nurse advise a patient taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) to avoid?
    2. Chocolate, wine, and fava beans
  19. The traditionally prescribed drug types used to treat attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) include:
    CNS stimulants.
  20. The eight-year-old client is receiving methylphenidate (Ritalin). The client’s mother tells the nurse that he won’t eat while on his medication. What is the best response by the nurse?
    “Give the medication after meals and encourage him to have supplements between meals.”
  21. The mother of a seven-year-old child says to the nurse “My child is distractible in school, cannot complete assignments on time, and interrupts other children while they are speaking. What do you think?” What is the best response by the nurse?
    “This could be Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD); you might want to have your child tested.”
  22. The client with schizophrenia is sitting quietly in a chair. The client does not respond much to what is happening, and has a lack of interest in the environment. What best describes the result of the nurse’s assessment?
    The client is experiencing negative symptoms.
  23. The client is receiving risperidone (Risperdal). During morning assessment, the nurse notes that the client has a temperature of 102 degrees F. What is the priority nursing intervention?
    Contact the physician, as this could be a symptom of neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
  24. A patient who has been treated with antipsychotic agents for schizophrenia has an elevated blood pressure, dyspnea, and an extremely high temperature. This condition is known as:
    Neurolept malignant syndrome.
  25. TermA patient experiencing an extrapyramidal adverse effect is not able to relax. This is known as:
  26. A patient with a psychiatric history is communicating using made-up words, and indicates he doesn’t care about anything. This patient would most likely be:
    Demonstrating positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
  27. Symptoms of schizophrenia are thought to be associated with which receptor sites?
    Dopamine type 2
  28. The nurse is managing the care of a group of clients with schizophrenia. The clients are receiving conventional antipsychotic medications. When assessing for anticholinergic side effects, which would the nurse immediately report to the physician?
    Urinary retention.
  29. The nurse teaches clients about nonpharmacological techniques for pain management. The nurse determines learning has occurred when the clients make which statement(s)? Select all that apply.
    • 1.“Nonpharmacological techniques may be used in place of drugs.”
    • 2.“Nonpharmacological techniques are a good adjunct to pharmacotherapy.”
  30. The nursing instructor teaches the nursing students about neural mechanisms of pain. What does the nursing instructor teach about substance P?
    Substance P controls which pain signals reach the brain.
  31. The client receives morphine for pain. He asks the nurse how it works to relieve pain. What is the best response by the nurse?
    “It stimulates a receptor in your brain that induces pleasure.”
  32. The client has a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump following surgery. The nurse keeps naloxone (Narcan) in the client’s room as per protocol. What does the nurse recognize as the rationale for this protocol?
    Naloxone (Narcan) will reverse the effects of the narcotic in the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump if an overdose occurs.
  33. The client comes to the emergency department with a head injury, broken ribs, and internal bleeding. Opioid analgesics are contraindicated. What does the nurse recognize as the primary rationale for this?
    Opioids can mask changes in the client’s level of consciousness
  34. The client receives aspirin. The nurse assesses an adverse effect to this drug when the client makes which response?
    “There is a constant ringing in my ears
  35. A dull, aching pain is defined as:
  36. Which patient would be at greatest risk for developing opioid dependence?
    24-year-old with sickle-cell anemia
  37. Which statement is accurate concerning the management of migraine headaches?
    Vasoconstriction of cranial arteries helps reduce acute headache pain.
  38. The nursing instructor teaches the nursing students about the advantages of the newer local anesthetics, such as lidocaine (Xylocaine). What will the best plan of the nursing instructor include? Select all that apply.
    .Amides have fewer side effects than esters.2.Amides tend to last longer than est
  39. Which statement correctly identifies why epinephrine is used with local anesthetic agents?
    Epinephrine use prolongs surgical time.
  40. Which of the following correctly identifies the initial use for an IV in a patient undergoing a lengthy abdominal surgery that requires general anesthesia?
    To administer agents that will produce rapid unconsciousness
  41. Local anesthetics work by:
    Blocking sodium channels
  42. Which of the following local anesthetic agents would be considered first due to its lower rate of adverse effects?
  43. Which of the following correctly identifies a state of general anesthesia desirable for surgery?
    The patient is unconscious with slow eye movements.
  44. Which clinical technique for administering anesthesia is common for pregnant women during labor and delivery?
  45. A patient undergoing surgery is receiving general anesthesia as well as a neuromuscular blocking agent. Which statement best indicates the primary reason for the neuromuscular blocking agent?
    To cause total skeletal muscle relaxation
  46. The client is scheduled for a surgical procedure. The nurse plans to teach the client about anesthesia. Which statement would be included in the best plan of the nurse?
    “An intravenous (IV) agent will be used first to induce sleep; then, an inhaled agent will be used.”
  47. The student nurse does an operating room rotation and notes that many clients receive succinylcholine (Anectine). The student nurse asks the nursing instructor how the drug works. What is the best response by the nursing instructor?
    “The client will need assistance with breathing; it paralyzes respiratory muscles.”
  48. The nurse plans to teach a class about Alzheimer’s disease to a caregiver’s support group. What will the best plan of the nurse include? Select all that apply.
    • 1.Memory difficulties are an early symptom of the disease.
    • 2.Chronic inflammation of the brain may be a cause of the disease.
    • 3.Depression and aggressive behavior are common with the disease
  49. The nurse plans care for a client with Parkinson’s disease. What will the best plan of the nurse include?
    Monitor the client for the ability to chew and swallow.
  50. Muscle stiffness, pill-rolling activity, and bradykinesia are symptoms most likely associated with which disorder?
    Parkinson’s disease
  51. Pharmacotherapy for Parkinson’s disease is intended to:
    4. Increase the amount of dopamine and reduce the amount of acetylcholine.
  52. Which statement is the most accurate regarding acetylcholinesterase inhibitors when used for Alzheimer’s disease?
    They intensify the effect of acetylcholine at the receptor.
  53. The nurse teaches the client with a neuromuscular disorder about nonpharmacological treatment of muscle spasms. What will the best information include? Select all that apply.
    • 1.Application of heat or cold
    • 2.Ultrasound
    • 3.Massage
  54. Which of the following lists of treatment options would be considered optimal for treating a muscle spasm with an unknown cause?
    Analgesics, muscle relaxants, and massage
  55. Which statement about skeletal muscle relaxants is correct?
    2. They inhibit upper motor neuron activity within the central nervous system.
  56. The nurse identifies a patient with a repeating pattern of muscle contraction of the leg for 5 seconds followed by 2 seconds of relaxation as experiencing:
    A clonic spasm.
  57. Which statement describes the primary difference between centrally acting muscle relaxants and direct-acting antispasmodics?
    3. Centrally acting agents inhibit neurons of the central nervous system, while direct-acting agents work at the level of the neuromuscular junction and skeletal muscles.
  58. Spasticity is most commonly caused by damage to what area of the body?
    Cerebral cortex
  59. The client says to the nurse “My doctor says I have heart disease and I need to decrease cholesterol in my diet. How did this happen?” What is the best response by the nurse?
    “The arteries around your heart are narrowed by low density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol build-up in them.”
  60. The client tells the nurse she is confused about what she has been reading about lipids. What is (are) the best response(s) by the nurse? Select all that apply.
    • Triglycerides are the major form of fat in the body.
    • Phospholipids are essential to building plasma membranes
    • .Cholesterol is a building block for estrogen and testosterone.
    • Cholesterol in the diet is unnecessary as the liver synthesizes it.
  61. The client tells the nurse that his doctor wants him to take a medication for his high cholesterol, but he doesn’t know which one would be best. What is (are) the best response(s) by the nurse? Select all that apply.
    • 1.“Fibric acid drugs will decrease triglycerides, but your low density lipoprotein (LDL) will still be high.”
    • 2.“The statin drugs inhibit the making of cholesterol and are considered the best choice.”
    • 3.“The bile resins keep cholesterol from being absorbed, but have some side effects.”
  62. According to the JNC-7, a patient with a blood pressure of 144/82 would be classified as:
    Stage 1 hypertensive.
  63. Which of the following lists include the three factors that make up blood pressure?
    Cardiac output, blood volume, and peripheral vascular resistance
  64. Diuretics are often used to lower blood pressure. Which factor do they affect most?
    Blood volume
  65. The client has a blood pressure reading of 126/84 mm/Hg. She asks the nurse if she has high blood pressure. What is the best response by the nurse?
    “You have prehypertension; let’s discuss your lifestyle.”
  66. Which statement is accurate regarding the use of beta-adrenergic blockers for use in patients with heart failure?
    1. They are generally used in combination with other heart-failure drugs.
  67. ______ have replaced digoxin as the drugs of choice for heart failure.
    ACE inhibitors
  68. What are the two primary actions of the ACE inhibitors?
    • To lower peripheral resistance (decrease blood pressure)
    • Inhibit Aldosterone secretion (redice blood volume)
Card Set
Pharmacology Final Study Cards, Part 2
Chapters 14-22, are in shades of pink/red Chapters 22-24 are in shades of purple
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