COMP 5

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lazzsant
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153615
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COMP 5
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2012-05-12 22:50:04
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COMP 5
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  1. How would a patient with pyelonephritis present?
    Fevers, chills, flank pain, CVA tenderness, hematuria and WBC casts.
  2. UTI bug that is the 3rd leading cause of UTI -> Large mucoid capsule and viscous colonies.
    Klebsiella pneumoniae
  3. ToRCH infection that causes:
    Patent ductus arteriosus
    cataracts
    deafness
    +/- blueberry muffin rash

    How would the mother present?
    • Rubella
    • Transmitted via respiratory droplets

    Mother: Rash, lymphadenopathy, and arthrtitis
  4. What organism will cause vesicular rash on palms and soles and ulcers in oral mucosa in children?
    Coxsackievirus type A
  5. What organism causes a cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, and blue-white (koplik) spots on buccal mucosa followed by a rash that starts form the head and goes down in children?
    Measles virus (rubeola) a paramyxovirus = Enveloped ss(-)linear virus.
  6. Sexually transmitted disease associated with painful genital ulcer and inguinal adenopathy?
    This is a chancroid caused by Haemophilus ducreyi
  7. What could cause the following findings in a HIV-positive patient: pleuritic pain, hemoptysis, and infiltrates on imaging.
    This is invasive aspergillosis caused by Aspergillus fumigatus
  8. What causes fever with dysphagia, drooling, and difficulty breathing due to edematous "cherry red" epiglottis in an nonimmunizaed child?
    This is epiglottitis caused by H. influenzae type B.
  9. What antibacterial disrupts the bacterial cell membrane? What does it treat? What are its toxicities?
    • Polymyxin
    • Resistant gram-negative infections.

    TOXICITY: neurotoxicity and acute renal tubular necrosis.
  10. What antibiotic blocks mRNA synthesis? What does it treat? What are its toxicities?
    • Rifampin
    • Mycobacterium tuberculosis, leprosy, meningococcal prophylaxis and chemoprophylaxis in contact of children with H. influenzae type B.

    Minor hepatoxicity, increases P450, orange body fluids.
  11. What is the treatment for Hodgkin's Lymphoma and what is the mechanism of action of each?
    Adrianmycin= doxorubucin - stabilizes topoisomerase II complex

    Bleomycin - free radical creation on DNA

    Vinblastine- inhibits microtubule formation

    Dacarbazine- alkylating agent of DNA
  12. What is the mechanism of action of cyclosporine?
    Used in transplant and autoimmune disorders.

    Inhibits production and release of IL-2 -> no induction of cytotoxic T cells
  13. What is imatinibs MOA in chronic myeloid leukemia?
    tyrosine kinase inhibitor of brl-abl -> promotion of apoptosis.
  14. What is the most likely glucose associated disease that presents with severe fasting hypoglycemia, increased glycogen in the liver, hepatomegaly, and increased blood lactate?
    THis is a deficiency in Glucose-6-phosphatase which inhibits G-6-P to glucose. This is VOn Gierke's disease.
  15. What bone disease is most associated with hyperparathyroidism?
    osteitis fibrosa cystica
  16. What are the side effects for the drug that is used to treat an unstable AIDS patient with cryptococcus neoformans pneumonia?
    • Treatment = amphotericin B
    • S/E= fever, chills, hypotension, nephrotoxicity, and arrhythmias(due to prolonged QT intervals)
  17. What drugs produce the following side effect when mixed with alcohol:
    flushing, tachycardia, headaches, and vomiting?
    • This is a disulfiram-like reaction:
    • metronidazole
    • tolbutamide
    • cephalosporins
    • Griseofulvin
  18. How do you diagnose Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?
    With the secretin test. Secretin would inhibit antral gastrin but in ZE it will cause an increase in gastrin.
  19. What tumors are associated with polycythemia?
    • Hepatocellular carcinoma
    • Renal cell carcinoma
    • hemangioblastoma
    • pheochromocytoma
    • Uterine myomata
  20. What is the most common antibiotic to treat traveler's diarrhea in adults?
    Fluoroquinolone
  21. What is the spectrum of Ampicillin and Amoxicillin? What are the side effects?
    • gram positive bacteria and
    • Haemophilus influenzae
    • E. coli
    • Listeria Monocytogenes
    • Proteus mirabilis
    • Salmonella
    • enteroccoci

    S/E: ampicillin rash and pseudomembranous colitis
  22. What are the 2nd generation cephalosporins and what is their bacterial spectrum?
    • Cefoxitin, cefaclor, cefuroxime
    • AGAINST:
    • gram-positive cocci
    • Haemophilus influenza
    • Enterbacter aerogenes
    • Neisseria
    • Proteus mirabilis
    • E. coli
    • Klebsiella pneumoniae

    HEN PEcKS
  23. What is the only bactericidal protein synthesis inhibitor antibiotic? What are they good against and how is resistance built?
    Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin, Neomycin, Amikacin, Tobramycin, Streptomycin)

    USE: Severe gram negative rod infections

    RESISTANCE: transferase enzymes that inactivate the drug by acetylation, phosphorylation, or adenylation.
  24. What is the bacterial spectrum of the tetracyclines?
    • Vibrio cholera
    • Acne (propiobacterium)
    • Chlamydia
    • urealyticum
    • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    • Tularemia
    • H. Pylori
    • Borrelia burgdorferi
    • Rickettsia

    Vacuum th br
  25. Which tetracycline can be used in patients with renal failure?
    Doxycycline
  26. What is the spectrum of the antibiotic that causes grey baby syndrome?
    Chloramphenicol

    • Spectrum = meningitis:
    • H. Influenza
    • N. meningtidis
    • S. pneumoniae
  27. What drug is used to treat atypical pneumonias?
    • Macrolides
    • (mycoplasma, chlamydia, legionella)
  28. What is the bacterial spectrum for the drug that inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase?
    • Sulfonamides
    • Gram (+), gram (-) Nocardia and chlamydia
  29. What is the bacterial spectrum for the antibiotic that forms free radical toxic metabolites in the bacterial cell damaging DNA?
    • metronidazole
    • Giardia
    • Entamoeba
    • Trichomonas
    • Gardnerella vaginalis
    • Anaerobes (bacteroides, cloustridium)
    • H. Pylori

    GET GAP on the Metro
  30. What is the treatment for Mycobacterial tuberculosis?
    Rifampin, Isoniazid(prophylaxis), Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol.
  31. What antibiotic is known for causing tendonitis and tendon rupture?
    Fluoroquinolones
  32. Which brain tumor presents with pseudopalisading tumor cells and microvascular proliferation?
    Glioblastoma multiforme
  33. Which brain tumor ppresents with rod-shaped blepharoblasts?
    ependymomas
  34. What is the disease:
    Asthma, allergic rhinitis, elevated eosinophil counts, mononeuritis multiplex, uveitis, conductive hearing loss, and muscle/joint pain
    Churg Strauss syndrome (ANCA vasculitis)
  35. What drug inhibits DNA polymerase and is ued in the treatment of acute myelogenous leukemia?
    Cytarabine
  36. What is bacitracin sensitive and causes impetigo.
    Strepococcus pyrogenes (A beta-hemolytic group A strep)

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