pharm. tech. final.

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  1. al
  2. ca
  3. cl
  4. fe
  5. mg
  6. nacl
    sodium chloride
  7. na
  8. mgSO4
    magnesium sulfate
  9. p
  10. A
  11. ac
    before meals
  12. ad
    right ear
  13. am
  14. as
    left ear
  15. au
    both ears
  16. bid
    twice a day
  17. cc
    cubic centimeters
  18. dc
  19. disp
  20. gtts
  21. hs
  22. IV
  23. mg
  24. ml
  25. NPO
    nothing by mouth
  26. od
    right eye
  27. os
    left eye
  28. po
    by mouth
  29. prn
    as needed
  30. qd
  31. qid
    four times a day
  32. Rx
  33. sig
  34. stat
    less than 15 mins
  35. MI
    myocardial infraction
  36. Tbsp
  37. tid
    three times a day
  38. ud
    as directed
  39. w/
  40. ICU
    intensive care unit
  41. tsp
  42. zyrtec, claritin, allegra are all what?
  43. xanax is for what?
  44. naprosyn is for what?
    anti- inflammatory
  45. pdr stands for what?
    physicians' desk reference
  46. 1951 durham humphrey amendment was made for what?
    caution: federal law prohibits w/out Rx
  47. FDA
    (food and drug administration) protects the public
  48. DEA
    (drug enforcement administration) controlles the distribution of controlled substances
  49. what does the letter "C" identify in a pharmacy?
  50. what did the poison prevention act of 1970 address in pharmacy?
    child safe caps
  51. what is a monograph?
    package insert
  52. what cant a pharm. tech. do?
    cannot councel patients/ take Rx over the phone
  53. what does expiration date represent?
    shelf life
  54. the 3 major categories of dosage forms are what?
    solids, semi-solids, liquids
  55. which drugs are schedule IV drugs?
    benzodiazepines (example: valium)
  56. CII represents the _______ abuse potential in regards to _________.
    highest, narcotics (5 refills/6 months. which ever comes first)
  57. levels are counted and logged each time a _______________ is _______ from or _____ back to the pharmacy stock.
    controlled substance, removed, added
  58. hwo many person check system when dealing with narcotics?
    2 person check
  59. define extended release.
    a drug to be distributed over a set time
  60. can extended release meds be crushed?
  61. what is a spansule?
    a capsule that can be pulled apart & put in another. time release.
  62. syrups are _____ base, whereas elixirs have an _______ or _______ and _____ base.
    sugar, alcohol, alcohol, water.
  63. name 10 routes of administration:
    • eyes
    • ears
    • nose
    • oral
    • buccal
    • inhalent (lungs)
    • topical (skin)
    • parenteral (IV, IM, SQ)
    • supository (anally)
    • vaginally
  64. analgesic is a what?
    pain killer
  65. antipyretic is a what?
  66. sudafed is a _________ and how much can a customer buy in a 30 day period?
    decongestant, 9 grams
  67. aseptic means?
  68. vertical flow hood blow from where to where?
    top to bottom
  69. horizontal flow hood blow from where to where?
    back to front
  70. _____ _____ in a hospital setting contain life saving drugs.
    crash carts
  71. what is a formulary?
    list of drugs that the insurance/hospital will cover
  72. faxed scheduled __ medications must be followed by a written hard copy triplicate (DEA form ___) within _ days for the amount dispensed.
    II, 224, 7
  73. where does nosocomial infections originate?
    hospitals (from extended stays)
  74. which law mandates pharmacist to counsel new Rx?
  75. all drugs in a _____ ____ should be for rapid administration and are __.
    crash cart, IV
  76. what is nitroglycerin for?
    angina (chest pain). too late if patient is having a heart attack.
  77. what is an auxiliary label?
    warning/ instruction labels
  78. name 6 rights of the patient.
    meds, dose, time, price, dosage from, patient
  79. a very dangerous drug to drug interaction is _______ and _______.
    coumadin, aspirin
  80. what auxiliary labels should be placed on a suspension?
    exp. date, shake well, refridgerate
  81. a glass compounding slab is used for what?
    mixing ointments and creams
  82. what are the parts of a needle?
    • hub
    • shaft
    • bevel
    • point
    • lumen
  83. always use ____ ____ syringes and needles in an __ __________ pharmacy.
    luer lock, IV compounding
  84. the smallest filter is _____ filter in a pharmacy.
    0.22 microns
  85. new __________ ____ must be placed on any drug that must be ________ before administration.
    expiration dates, defrosted
  86. the ____ filter filters ____% to ____% of all particles and bacteria greater than or equal to ____ ______ in diameter.
    heap, 99.97% to 99.99%, 0.2 microns.
  87. a ______ needle must be used when withdrawing a solution from an ampule.
  88. tpn stands for?
    total parenteral nutrition
  89. what are the 2 main ingredients to a tpn?
    dextrose and amino acids
  90. what other drugs besides electrolytes and base solutions can be added to a tpn?
    insilin, heprin, h2 blockers ranitidine
  91. to clean an IV hood you must clean the hood starting from the back side, ___ to ______. then from the left or right corner of the work surface towards you from ____ to _____.
    top, bottom, back, front
  92. 2 CII barbiturates are.
    seconal and nembutal
  93. the top 4 SSRIs:
    • celexa
    • prozac
    • zoloft
    • paxil
  94. otc stands for what?
    over the counter
  95. who assigns the "brand names"?
  96. who assigns the "generic names"
  97. not all generic drugs are _____________ to brand name drugs.
  98. how to calculate DEA#.
    • DEA# - AJ1234892
    • first letter can be either A, B, F, or M
    • second letter is the 1st letter of the prescriber's last name
    • add the first, third, and fifth numbers.
    • add the second, forth, and sixth numbers then multiply by 2
    • add the 2 sums together
    • the last digit from your total will be the last digit in your DEA#
  99. components of the NDC#.
    • 1st set of #: manufacturer (assigned by FDA)
    • 2nd set of #: product code
    • 3rd set of #: package code (package size and type)
  100. (B) fungizone
    (G) amphotericin
  101. (B) lotrimin
    (G) clotrimazole
  102. (B) diflucan
    (G) fluconazole
  103. (B) celexa
    (G) citalopram
  104. (B) dimetapp
    (G) brompheniramine & phenylpropanolamine
  105. (B) ambien
    (G) zolpidem
  106. (B) ativan
    (G) lorazapam
  107. (B) dalmane
    (G) flurazepam
  108. (B) buspar
    (G) buspirone
  109. (B) restoril
    (G) temazapam
  110. (B) cymbalta
    (G) duloxetine
  111. (B) phenergan
    (G) promethazine
  112. (B) prolixin
    (G) fluphenazine hydrochloride
  113. (B) haldol
    (G) haldoperidol
  114. (B) zoloft
    (G) sertraline
  115. (B) neo-synephrin
    (G) phenylephrine
  116. (B) robitussin
    (G) guaifenesin syrup / codeine
  117. (B) risperdal
    (G) risperidone
  118. (B) chlor-trimeton
    (G) clorpheniramine
  119. (B) navane
    (G) thiothixene
  120. (B) depakene
    (G) valproic acid
  121. (B) librium
    (G) chlordiazepoxide
  122. (B) eskalith
    (G) lithium
  123. (B) claritin
    (G) loratidine
  124. (B) norpramin
    (G) desipramine
  125. (B) valium
    (G) diazepam
  126. (B) vivactil
    (G) protriptyline hydrochloride
  127. (B) allegra
    (G) fexofenadine hydrochloride
  128. (B) elavil
    (G) amitriptyline
  129. (B) anafranil
    (G) clomipramine
  130. (B) zyrtec
    (G) cetirizine
  131. (B) tofranil
    (G) imipramine
  132. (B) prozac
    (G) fluoxetine
  133. (B) benadryl
    (G) diphenhydramine
  134. (B) sinequan
    (G) doxepin
  135. (B) sudafed
    (G) pseudoephedrine
  136. (B) delsym
    (G) dextromethorphan syrup
  137. (B) aventyl
    (G) nortriptyline
Card Set
pharm. tech. final.
theory/brands & generics final
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