C-17 62_446 OG Local Pilot MQF.txt

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C-17 62_446 OG Local Pilot MQF.txt
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2012-05-24 20:07:29
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C17 62 OG 446 Local Pilot MQF Livie
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1 Jan 2012 McChord Pilot Local MQF
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  1. 1. Uniforms are required for testing and publications checks in the 62 OG testing center.

    A. True
    B. False
    A
  2. 2. Checkride pre-requisite tests will be completed _______________.

    A. 1 month prior to the checkride
    B. before the Form 8 is written
    C. before evaluations are administered
    D. after the evaluation
    C
  3. 3. Pilots who fail the Instrument Exam (i.e. CBT at L3) ___________________.

    A. should study more
    B. will self-report the failure to his/her squadron leadership before the next flying activity
    C. do not need to report it because TMS will automatically inform leadership
    D. should re-take the test right away.
    B
  4. 4. Aircraft commanders will verify tanker status prior to departure on local training missions.

    A. True
    B. False
    A
  5. 5. When will at least one crewmember monitor Command Post frequency?

    A. At all times.
    B. When on the ground at McChord and when within range of McChord.
    C. McChord crews are not required to monitor Command Post.
    D. During an exercise.
    B
  6. 6. It is acceptable to block in or out at McChord Field without a marshaller if there are no obstacles within 25 feet.

    A. True
    B. False
    B
  7. 7. According to AFI 11-2C-17v3_62_AW_SUP_1, what restrictions are in place when the AHAS bird condition is severe for a low-level?

    A. None, the aircrew can fly up to 350KCAS/0.82M
    B. Crews will fly no faster than 250 knots on affected route segments.
    C. ACs will obtain a one-time approval from OSK (Wg tactics) provided a thorough route study has been accomplished and appropriate BASH mitigation techniques have been applied.
    D. ACs will obtain OG/CC or equivalent approval prior to flying on any affected segment, and fly no faster than 250 knots and no lower than 1,000 feet AGL during the day or no lower than 3,000 feet AGL at night.
    D
  8. 8. If a birdstrike is found crews must accomplish:

    A. properly collect remains or ensure they are collected by qualified maintenance personnel
    B. complete an AF Form 853 and AMC Form 97 (for all damaging bird strikes)
    C. fax copies of Form 853, Form 97 (if applicable), and crew orders to respective Wing Flight Safety Office
    D. all of the above
    D
  9. 9. How should liquids be given to anyone in the pilot or co-pilot seat?

    A. Carefully to prevent spills
    B. All liquids will be passed around their outside shoulder and not over the center console
    C. Only in sealed containers
    D. This is not allowed.
    B
  10. 10. When must aircraft commanders review the OPORD?

    A. In its entirety prior to leaving home station
    B. Once each quarter
    C. Once each year
    D. Initially when inprocessing McChord
    A
  11. 11. When a scheduled takeoff time (on planning day) will change by ____ minutes or more to meet a planned TOT or RZCT, the aircraft commander will notify _____________________________.

    A. 30; the Sq/DO
    B. 1; the tanker unit
    C. 10; the Local Training Barrel NLT 1200L the day prior to coordinate a new takeoff time
    D. 14; command post
    C
  12. 12. Aircrew requests for MTRs, drop zones, NVG ops, and the assault landing zones will be made to the Local Barrel through the AMT database prior to when?

    A. Prior to mission execution.
    B. 1100 L on the mission planning day
    C. Before initial takeoff of the day
    D. Prior to engine shutdown
    B
  13. 13. Who is the approval authority for cancelling a local training flight?

    A. Squadron DO
    B. Squadron Commander
    C. Operations Group Commander
    D. Wing Commander
    C
  14. 14. If a hung flare is discovered during the ground inspection, what should you do?

    A. Jettison all flares to alleviate the problem
    B. Call EOD and let them deal with it
    C. Declare an emergency, shutdown and evacuate to a central location at least 200 feet from the aircraft
    D. Declare an emergency, shutdown and evacuate to a central location at least 600 feet from the aircraft
    D
  15. 15. Combat offloads on training missions will only be accomplished at McChord Field unless otherwise approved by the 62 or 446 OG/CC.

    A. True
    B. False
    A
  16. 16. Why must the crew talk to ground control prior to commencing and after completing combat offloads at McChord field?

    A. C-17s need approval for operations because of weight bearing restrictions
    B. Operations on runway 16/34 are restricted to low approaches while combat offloads are in progress
    C. The aircraft will block the main ramp
    D. Crash, fire, and rescue assets need to be alerted
    B
  17. 17. Training is authorized at which of the following fields on a local training mission?

    A. All P-coded fields, military bases, or civil airfields that have an LOA with AMC
    B. McChord Field, Grant County International, Travis AFB, Seattle-Tacoma International
    C. Only fields approved in paragraph 9.14 of AFI 11-2C-17v3_62_446_Supp1
    D. Fields that are conducive to the training objectives
    C
  18. 18. Unless otherwise directed by ATC, what is the VFR pattern altitude at McChord Field?

    A. 1600' MSL
    B. 1800' MSL
    C. 1700' MSL
    D. 1500' MSL
    B
  19. 19. Crews accepting a "remain east of runway 32R/14L" clearance at KMWH will ___________________.

    A. turn quickly in event of a go-around
    B. execute a missed approach no lower than 300 feet AGL
    C. will damage the aircraft
    D. not attempt an approach
    B
  20. 20. What are the normal hours of training for transition work at McChord Field without an OG/CC waiver?

    A. 0001-2359L
    B. 0900-2200L
    C. 0500-2300L
    D. 1000L-2000L
    C
  21. 21. Choose the most correct statement with regard to circling at McChord Field.

    A. Circling to runway 16 from 34 is authorized
    B. If the active runway is 34 and a circle is required for training, an approach may be made to 34 with a right 360 degree circling maneuver to land on runway 34
    C. Do not exceed the aircraft category C restrictions
    D. When circling to runway 34 from runway 16, keep the aircraft ground track east of I-5 and do not initiate circle until south of Highway 512
    D
  22. 22. During day VFR conditions at KTCM do not exceed ___________ feet MSL on missed approach until ____________.

    A. 1000; past Spanaway Lake
    B. 1800; departure end of runway
    C. 2300; departure end of runway
    D. 400; past PLU
    B
  23. 23. (At KTCM) Do not turn crosswind/closed until reaching _________ feet AGL. Additionally, when departing RWY 16, do not turn crosswind until ______________. Do not turn base for RWY 34 until ________________.

    A. 1800; departure end of runway; departure end of runway
    B. 400; past Ranier DZ; west of PLU
    C. 1000; past Pacific Avenue; past Pacific Avenue
    D. 1000; south of Spanaway Lake; south of Spanaway Lake
    D
  24. 24. What is the maximum speed at KTCM in the VFR pattern (i.e. below class B airspace) without any specific ATC coordination?

    A. 250 KCAS
    B. 200 KCAS
    C. 350 KCAS
    D. 230 KCAS
    B
  25. 25. The maximum descent rate at KMWH for non-precision approaches to runway 32R is _____ FPM, until ______________.

    A. 500; past built up areas
    B. 1000; past Pelly
    C. 1500; past built up areas
    D. 1500; past Pelly
    A
  26. 26. The VFR traffic pattern altitude at KMWH for runways 14L/32R and 04/22 is _______ feet MSL. The VFR pattern for runway 09/27 is _______ feet MSL.

    A. 3000; 3000
    B. 3000; 3500
    C. 3500; 3000
    D. 3500; 3500
    B
  27. 27. Touch-and-go landings may be performed on runway 04/22 at KMWH.

    A. True
    B. False
    B

  28. 28. What is the minimum weather required for extended operations at KMWH (ETA plus one hour after departure)?

    A. 3000 and 4 SM
    B. 3000 and 5 SM
    C. 4000 and 3 SM
    D. 1500 and 3 SM
    C
  29. 29. Aircraft entering the pattern for Coulee LZ, runway 27 or 9, will normally enter via the VFR entry point _________, defined as MWH ______________.

    A. ROCCI; 088/08
    B. MOOSE; 020/010
    C. MOOSE; 088/08
    D. ROCCI; 020/010
    A
  30. 30. The _____ foot overrun at the departure end of KMWH runway ___ may be added to TOLD runway available for operations.

    A. 500; 09
    B. 320; 27
    C. 500; 27
    D. 320; 09
    B
  31. 31. Crews can perform GOAT or full-stop assault training while another C-17, including formation aircraft, is on any portion of Taxiway F at KMWH.

    A. True
    B. False
    B
  32. 32. Coordinate with _________ prior to planning a random low-level route...All planned low-level routes, local and off-station, not published in FLIP AP/1B, will be drawn on a sectional aeronautical chart (PFPS product suffices as long as all Airspace, SUAS, and MTRs are depicted) and approved by _________ personnel NLT two duty days prior to mission departure.

    A. 62 OG/OGV; 62 OG/OGV
    B. 62 OSS/OST; 62 OSS/OST
    C. 62 OSS/OSK; 62 OSS/OSK
    D. 62 OSS/ADO; 62 OSS/ADO
    C
  33. 33. According to the letter of agreement with Seattle ARTCC, which of the following is true with regard to IR and VR low-levels scheduled by 62 AW?

    A. Aircraft will enter IR or VR routes w/in + or - 5 minutes of the assigned entry time. This applies to alternate entry points as well.
    B. The clearance limit of IR routes is the exit fix. Clearance beyond that point will be obtained from ATC prior to exiting the route.
    C. When flying low-levels in the local area, crews will use the "Local TCM No-Fly Area" drawing file maintained on the 62 OSS/OSK website. This drawing file will be overlayed on the low-level chart.
    D. all of the above
    D
  34. 34. If proximity of adverse weather (lightning within five miles, etc.) prevents the maintenance block in/out crew from marshalling aircraft the crew will _______________________ until the lightning advisory has been lifted and a marshaller is available to block the aircraft in/out.

    A. remain inside the aircraft
    B. block in/out without a marshaller
    C. call command post
    D. depart the airfield
    A
  35. 35. Pilots should avoid overflight of Brown's Point during VFR conditions.

    A. True
    B. False
    A
  36. 36. __________will ensure Mission Kits are inventoried IAW 62 OGI 11-3 or for the 446 OG current guidance established at the OGV SharePoint Site.

    A. The Loadmaster
    B. Aircraft Commanders
    C. 62 OG/OGV
    D. Sq/DOV
    B
  37. 37. Aircraft Commanders will review mission tasking (FRAG) and ensure sufficient planning and coordination is accomplished _____________________________.

    A. prior to launching
    B. before stepping to the aircraft at homestation
    C. prior to entering pre-mission crew rest to complete any assigned mission regardless of complexity
    D. when required by the Form 59
    C
  38. 38. Halon, carbon dioxide, or water-type fire extinguishers will NOT be used on fires involving pyrotechnics or magnesium incendiaries due to the risk of explosions.

    A. True
    B. False
    A
  39. 39. Missions requiring a specific departure time to meet a TOT or RZCT will notify ________ of the required departure time _____________________.

    A. McChord Tower; when holding short of the runway
    B. McChord Ground; when placing a request for ATC clearance or engine start
    C. Command Post; at alert
    D. Local Barrel; on mission planning day
    B
  40. 40. Aircrews will annotate all fuel receipts received away from Home Station on the _________________ and ensure all Fuel receipts are attached or put into the Form. The ____________ will be turned in at MX debrief when the aircraft has returned to home station.

    A. Form 8; Form 8
    B. AF Form 365-4; AF Form 365-4
    C. Aircraft Fuels Documentation Log; fuel cards
    D. AF Form 664; AF Form 664
    D

  41. 41. Aircrews may utilize all civil fields during _________________after coordinating with the airspace manager and in accordance with FLIP.

    A. local training missions
    B. off-station training missions and JA/ATTs
    C. TACC tasked missions
    D. none of the above
    B
  42. 42. Non-precision approaches to Runway 16 at KTCM should be planned ________________.

    A. to stay well above MDA
    B. to a go-around
    C. only to full stop landings
    D. to avoid prolonged use of high-power settings at MDA
    D
  43. 43. Avoid overflying Pacific Lutheran University and avoid Spanaway Airport by at least 3000' and 3 SM.

    A. True
    B. False
    B
  44. 44. Where are the designated hot brakes areas at McChord Field?

    A. In the hammerhead of each runway
    B. Taxiways B and J
    C. Delta Parking Ramp
    D. Bravo Ramp near the Pax Terminal
    A
  45. 45. What is the maximum altitude a crew may plan when EPOS is used as a primary source of oxygen for passengers?

    A. FL250
    B. FL350
    C. FL450
    D. FL410
    D
  46. 46. Which of the following is correct according to 62 OG FCB?

    A. all crewmembers will attend mission planning
    B. For locals, crewmembers will use the Msn Planning Guide in the McChord AFB Inflight Guide and the timeline established by the 62 OG Msn Planning Training Insert
    C. A-Code will deliberately plan, instruct, execute, and de-brief each local training sortie
    D. all of the above
    D
  47. 47. Who should be the designated CRM monitor on a crew?

    A. the Aircraft Commander
    B. the loadmaster with the most flying time
    C. the most experienced crewmember other than the AC
    D. the most experienced crewmember
    C
  48. 48. Which of the following is appropriate adherence to strict professional flight and crew discipline?

    A. no interruption of checklists or BOLDFACE
    B. sterile cockpit environment below 18K MSL
    C. no first names while in flight
    D. all of the above
    D
  49. 49. Who can replace aircraft armor once it has been removed due to possible interference with flight controls?

    A. loadmasters
    B. only maintenance can replace armor
    C. any aircrew
    D. instructor pilots
    B
  50. 50. What is the minimum number unmodified or modified 2 MA-1 oxygen bottles and where must they be placed on the aircraft?

    A. 3; 2 on the flight deck and 1 in the cargo compartment
    B. 1 for each crewmember on the orders; at their seat
    C. 2; one at the forward LM station and one at the crew rest area
    D. 10; all bottles must be unmodified or modified 2
    C
  51. 51. Where can backing be accomplished at McChord Field outside of training hours (0500L-2300L)?

    A. on the Bravo parking Ramp
    B. only on the runway when cleared by tower
    C. on taxiway Bravo near taxiway Delta
    D. in the southern hammerhead and on taxiway Hotel adjacent to Echo Ramp
    D
  52. 52. During local training missions, loadmasters should occupy either the LACM or RACM seat during at least one take off, one landing and, if a low level is planned, during the low level.

    A. True
    B. False
    A
  53. 53. Who is authorized on an operational mission to approve an SDP or subtract 48'/NM from the published (or standard) climb gradient for OEI planning?

    A. PIC
    B. OG/CC
    C. AMC/A3
    D. TACC Senior Controller
    A
  54. 54. What is the minimum weather a destination airfield must have before an alternate is required (assume 2 runways with independent precision approaches are available)?

    A. 1000' ceiling, 2 SM visibility
    B. 3000' ceiling, 3 SM visibility
    C. 2000' ceiling, 3 SM visibility
    D. 1500' ceiling, 2 SM visibility
    A
  55. 55. On jets with a new ADTD installed with Block 18, where is the external USB drive stored?

    A. next to the ADTD
    B. in the aircraft gun locker
    C. in the aircraft forms
    D. in the drawer underneath the Loadmaster seat
    B
  56. 56. How many aircraft may operate in the pattern at KMWH during extended ops hrs?

    A. one formation (max 3 ship)
    B. two single ship C-17s
    C. there is no limit for C-17 operations
    D. Two C-17s or 1 single ship and a formation flt (max 3 ship) may be in the traffic pattern simultaneously for multiple rwy ops. If the formation wants to accomplish pattern work only 2 single ships may be airborne in the traffic pattern simultaneously. Additional aircraft must remain on the ground or depart the traffic pattern.
    D
  57. 57. The ADTD is an approved medium for viewing E-PUBS.

    A. True
    B. False
    B
  58. 58. When will PICs use the MAF Debrief Guide to conduct a crew debrief?

    A. At the end of a trip
    B. When required by the Form 59
    C. Upon sortie/sim completion
    D. While taxiing into chalks on the final flight of the day
    C
  59. 59. When are Jeppesen Terminal Instrument Procedures approved without a Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS) review?

    A. when the field is within the CONUS (NAS) or when the approach is listed as a specially accredited procedure
    B. if not a specially-accredited procedure or at a specially-accredited location, the field has the exact same DOD published procedure
    C. pilots must be current for G130 (IRC)
    D. all of the above
    D
  60. 60. An aircraft commander with less than 100 hours since AC certification will accomplish all takeoff and landing, from the left seat, under the following conditions:

    A. Ceiling/visibility less than 300 feet and/or RVR 40 (3/4 SM visibility)
    B. RCR less than 12
    C. Crosswind component greater than 15 knots
    D. Always
    D

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