1. Instructions or procedures prefaced by the word ________ are mandatory.
2. The C-17A max design zero fuel weight is _________.
3. To override the #2 or #3 hydraulic aux. pumps for an auto shutdown due to low quantity or overheat, _________.
a. Press and hold appropriate Aux pump switch for 5 seconds.
b. Press and hold XFER pump switch for 5 seconds
c. Press and hold appropriate Aux pump switch for 3 seconds
d. Press and hold XFER pump switch for 3 seconds
4. An automatic shut down override switchlight provides a means to override all APU ECU automatic shutdown signals except _________.
a. over temperature
b. low fuel inlet pressure
c. high oil temperature
d. indicated fire or overspeed
5. When the APU alert start feature is used, there will be no _______ until the battery bus is powered.
a. fuel flow
b. available power
c. fire detection or protection
d. emergency exit lights
6. When the warning horn makes the tone of a squeal it indicates what warning situation?
a. APU Fire Warning
b. Avionics/IRU Smoke, Avionics Overtemp
c. Cabin Altitude Warning
d. IRU- Battery On
7. The Battery Direct Bus, the Battery Bus, the AC and DC Emergency Buses, and the AC and DC Transfer Buses comprise the ______.
a. electrical power system
b. battery power system
c. external power system
d. emergency power system
8. Flight rules governing cargo-passenger aircraft require immediate descent to below ________ feet altitude upon complete loss of cabin pressurization.
9. If the APU is started and the AVAIL light does not illuminate, the ____ must be cycled from ON to RESET to ON.
a. BATT switch
b. APU PWR switch
c. EMERG PWR switch
d. APU ALERT START switch
10. The Maximum Payload for the C-17 is 170,900 pounds; however for specific aircraft, Maximum Payload is ______________.
a. Maximum Takeoff Weight minus Operating Weight.
b. Maximum Takeoff Weight minus Ramp Fuel Weight.
c. Zero Fuel Weight minus Operating Weight.
d. Basic Aircraft Weight minus Operating Weight
11. The AUX pump reservoir sump is provided as a backup fluid supply for the number _________ system AUX pump for the cargo door and ramp when isolated from its primary system.
12. There are _________ smoke detectors located on the aircraft.
13. Control panels for the ramp blowdown system are located at the __________.
a. Forward Loadmaster Station only
b. Aft Loadmaster Station (left and right)
c. Forward Loadmaster Station; Aft Loadmaster Station, Left Side
d. Forward Loadmaster Station; Aft Loadmaster Station, Right Side
14. A WAP message, CREW OXY LOW will be displayed when quantity is less than 5 liters or supply pressure is below __________ +/- 5 psi.
15. Oxygen is supplied to the 48 centerline seat passenger masks via two flexible hoses. Each hose can supply oxygen to as many as _________ seat modules (six seats per module).
16. Following an intentional cabin depressurization above 10,000 feet, the cabin must be repressurized to less than ________ feet to reset the regulators. If the regulators are not reset, subsequent flight above 9,000 feet cabin altitude may deploy the passenger oxygen masks.
17. Below _______ feet cabin altitude, each emergency oxygen regulator SURGE MODE lever/three position toggle switch must be positioned to MAN ON/MANUAL ON to provide passenger oxygen.
18. The passenger oxygen masks can be manually deployed at any altitude with the -1 emergency oxygen regulator by positioning the SURGE MODE lever to the MAN ON position and rotating the spring loaded surge knob _____ and holding approximately ___ seconds to open the passenger oxygen mask containers and start the flow of oxygen.
a. clockwise; 3
b. counter clockwise; 3
c. clockwise; 6
d. counter clockwise; 6
19. All four FED hatches can be deployed from the maintenance/ditching hatch or FWD LM Station initiator handles if ______ FED ARM switch is in ARM.
a. only the LM's
b. only the Pilot's
c. both the LM and Pilot's
d. either the LM or Pilot's
20. There are _______ hand held fire extinguishers located in the cargo compartment and a total of ______ on the aircraft.
a. 6; 9
b. 5; 9
c. 6; 6
d. 3; 6
21. If unable to leave the area after using the handheld fire extinguishers, ___________.
a. breath 100 percent oxygen as necessary
b. breath through a wet cloth
c. don EPOS
d. verify smoke detectors are still operational
22. There are ________ Emergency Escape Breathing Devices (EEBD) installed in the aircraft.
23. The EEBD is a _______-minute self-contained, disposable breathing unit with a maximum operating altitude of ________.
a. 15; 25,000
b. 20; 25,000
c. 15; 41,000
d. 20; 41,000
24. One crash axe is located on the aft side, right EPC and one at the _______ chop out location.
a. left forward
b. right forward
c. left aft
d. right aft
25. When an aircraft engine is at idle thrust, the engine inlet danger area is ________.
a. 10 feet
b. 9 feet
c. 5 feet
d. 20 feet
26. Failure to fully install safety switch pins or place CMDS WOW MAINT ORIDE switch to NORM could result in _________.
a. a partial jettison of payloads
b. unintended jettison of payloads
c. intended jettison of payloads
d. deployment of struts
27. If radio communication is not possible for an APU start, ________
a. use the HF backup radio
b. coordinate an alternate method of communication
c. use only external power
d. delay starting the APU
28. The loadmaster advises the medical crew director that seat belts are required _________.
a. at the briefing
b. immediately prior to engine start
c. immediately prior to taxi
d. immediately prior to takeoff
29. The purge valve on the flight crew quick don mask should be in the ________ position except during preflight and when oxygen is in use where smoke or fumes are not present and goggles are not required.
30. During in-flight operation of the troop doors, deploy the air deflector between ______ and ______ degrees before opening the first door.
a. 5; 10
b. 10; 15
c. 15; 20
d. fully deployed
31. Failure to___________ before strut extension may result in aircraft movement and damage if the stabilizer strut manifold malfunctions.
a. set the parking brake
b. chock nose gear
c. open the cargo doors
d. chock main gear
32. Pallets/platforms or containers will not be repositioned _________ except in cases of extreme emergency. Failure to comply could cause injury to personnel, and cause the aircraft CG limit to be exceeded.
b. on the ground
c. by aerial port personnel
d. on the aircraft ramp
33. When on/offloading vehicles, do not deflate vehicle pneumatic tires _________.
a. at any time
b. to decrease PSI
c. to reduce the need for shoring
d. below the tires rated inflation pressure
34. Use caution when positioning pallets/platforms into ADS pallet position No. 1 that exceeds _______ inches in height measured from the surface of the pallet/platform.
35. Prior to extending the struts, visually clear the area _________ to prevent personnel injury.
a. beneath the cargo ramp
b. under the stabilizer strut doors
c. beneath the ramp and stabilizer struts
d. in the vicinity of the paratroop doors
36. Should delay in winching occur on the incline of the cargo ramp, use _________ to secure the item.
a. wheel chocks
b. the winch cable
c. chain type tiedown equipment
d. the parking brake
37. Equipment mounted on a single axle disconnected from its prime mover and loaded with its tongue resting on the aircraft floor or ramp, _____________.
a. must be drained and purged
b. must be drained, but not purged
c. may be transported with fuel in tank not to exceed 1/2 tank
d. may be transported with fuel in tank not to exceed 3/4 tank
38. When the vehicle is parked on the cargo floor and parking brakes are inoperative, ___________.
a. place chock(s) adjacent to vehicle tires
b. install all required restraint
c. install a minimum of two chains and two tiedown devices, one forward and one aft
d. install a minimum of one chain to prevent the vehicle from rolling out of the aircraft
39. There are ________ clearly marked chop out areas in the C-17.
40. Except where prohibited by specific procedures, open circuit breakers ________ in the event that the electrical condition was transient in nature.
a. may never be reset
b. may be reset once
c. will be reset by maintenance personnel
d. will be entered in the AFTO Form 781A
41. The signal for ground evacuation is _________.
a. 3 short rings of the alarm bell
b. 6 long rings of the alarm bell
c. 1 short ring of the alarm bell
d. 1 long sustained ring of the alarm bell
42. The signal for prepare for ditching or crash landing is ________.
a. 3 short rings of the alarm bell
b. 3 long rings of the alarm bell
c. 6 short rings of the alarm bell
d. 6 long rings of the alarm bell
43. The signal for prepare to bailout is ________.
a. 3 short rings of the alarm bell
b. 3 long rings of the alarm bell
c. 6 short rings of the alarm bell
d. 6 long rings of the alarm bell
44. All odors not identifiable by the flight crew shall be considered _________.
45. There are _______ emergency exits provided for ground evacuation.
46. Following a ditching emergency, as a minimum, the Loadmaster will provide ______________.
a. water and food
b. survival vests and ML-4 kits
c. extra LPUs and blankets
d. flashlight and first aid kit
47. For passengers, the primary source of oxygen for a smoke/fumes environment is the ________.
a. troop masks
b. smoke goggles
48. If the fire is being fed by oxygen from an oxygen system, consider turning off the __________ valves until the fire is suppressed.
b. automatic shutoff
c. manual shutoff
49. Selective freefall of any landing gear can be accomplished by activating the release handles only for those gear that are not extended. When lowering both main gear on one side, lower ______________.
a. both simultaneously
b. the forward gear first
c. the aft gear first
d. either first
50. Prior to a wheels up landing, the ______________ will be opened.
a. maintenance/ditching hatch
b. troop doors and cargo door
c. troop doors and ramp
d. crew entry door
51. The order of preference for bailout exits are ____________.
a. paratroop doors, cargo door and ramp
b. cargo door and ramp, paratroop doors
c. paratroop doors, cargo door and ramp, crew entrance door
d. cargo door and ramp, paratroop doors, crew entrance door
52. For bailouts at or above 14,000 feet, pull the ___________; for bailouts below 14,000 feet, pull the ______
a. automatic rip cord release; automatic rip cord release
b. parachute ripcord T-handle; parachute ripcord T-handle
c. automatic rip cord release; parachute ripcord T-handle
d. either automatic or parachute ripcord
53. Salvo type jettisoning is recommended for both ADS and Logistic rails
54. The maximum vertical height of a load to be jettisoned is ________ inches measured from the ______ of the pallet/platform.
a. 78; top
b. 96; top
c. 100; bottom
d. 118; top
55. The loadmaster will don and connect a restraint harness or parachute prior to opening the troop doors, or the cargo door and ramp from the aft loadmaster station. Connect the restraint harness to any tiedown ring at or forward of FS _________.
56. During jettison, ensure all selected lock annunciators are ___________ before stating "LOCKS RELEASED".
a. indicating locked
d. flashing or blank
57. During a ditching, do not activate __________ hatches prior to the aircraft coming to a rest as life rafts may be lost.
a. maintenance ditching
c. EMERGENCY ESCAPE
d. life raft
58. The ground evacuation checklist is not complete until _________ .
a. emergency response vehicles arrive on scene
b. released by the emergency response chief
c. personnel count is established
d. Command and Control acknowledges the emergency
59. During the Ramp Blowdown deployment sequence, if the RAMP switch is moved to the ________ position, the deployment sequence will stop.
60. If a fire should break out during loading operations, the first items that should be offloaded are _______.
a. flammable and/or explosive materials
d. registered mail
61. The maximum airspeed when opening the troop doors or cargo door and ramp is _______.
62. The cargo ramp shall not be unlatched in flight when the payload on the ramp exceeds _________ pounds, except during jettison conditions.
63. Highlights an essential operating procedure, practice, condition, statement etc, which if not strictly observed could result in injury to or death of personnel or long term health hazards are __________.
64. Without [STRUT IMP]; in the event the stabilizer strut system fails to operate properly, do not recycle the STAB STRUTS switch. Immediately __________.
a. proceed with manual operations of the stabilizer strut system
b. remove hydraulic power and notify maintenance
c. close the DOOR Solenoid Valve Handle to prevent damage to the aircraft
d. open the DOOR Solenoid Valve Handle to prevent damage to the aircraft
65. Without [STRUT IMP]; prior to closing the strut doors ensure both struts are fully retracted in the vertical position.
66. If ________ external power is the only power source on the aircraft, activation of any auxiliary hydraulic pump may cause a disconnect of the external power relay.
a. 60 KVA
b. 80 KVA
c. 90 KVA
d. 200 - 300 Hz
67. Do not use ____________ in flight. PA system speakers/volume will be deactivated during any condition that activates the cargo compartment lights because of sidewall oxygen system deployment. The peakers/volume must be manually reactivated to make PA announcements.
a. Emergency cargo compartment lighting
b. NVG cargo compartment lighting
c. SECURE cargo compartment lighting
d. Red cargo compartment lighting
68. On a non-E/R aircraft, an E/R SPR panel can be installed, but when ER transfer pump switches are placed to the ON position, no aircraft system functions will occur.
69. With ambient temperatures are at or below -9 C (15 F), the AUX pumps may not initially generate full pressure. If system pressure does not rise to at least 3500 psi within 30 seconds of selecting the pump to AUTO, select the pump to off, wait 30 seconds and proceed as follows.1. Select the AUX pump to AUTO for 30 seconds, then off for 30 seconds.2. Repeat ___________ or until system pressure indicates at least 3500 psi.
a. for a maximum of 5 cycles
b. for a minimum of 5 cycles
c. for a maximum of 10 cycles
d. for a minimum of 10 cycles
70. If the MFD CFG display, landing gear control panel or landing gear control handle indicates unsafe (RED), proceed as follows:1. Conduct a visual inspection of the affected gear to confirm damage or proper alignment of red fluorescent band on down-lock links. _________________________.
a. If all gear are up/down and locked, disregard unsafe indications.
b. If any gear is not up/down and locked, refer to the appropriate checklist.
c. If any gear is not up/down and locked, recycle the gear one time; cycling the landing gear handle more than one time may cause damage to the landing gear handle seloniod
d. A and B
71. Vehicle single axle weights equal to or greater than ________ pounds must be loaded within 8 inches of the aircraft centerline in compartments D, F and G.
72. Vehicle single axle weights equal to or greater than ________ pounds must be loaded within 8 inches of the aircraft centerline in compartment E.
73. When using ramp toe approach shoring the minimum shoring width shall be ________ inches or tire width, whichever is greater.
74. The maximum vehicle weight of a tracked vehicle with articulated suspension loaded in E compartment is ___.
75. Tracked vehicles with articulated suspension and with wheel weights exceeding ____ lbs (average) must be loaded within 8 inches of aircraft centerline
76. Tunner loader furnished bridge plates shall not be used when loading/offloading rolling stock from a K-loader with the ramp toes installed.
77. Hazardous cargo considered jettisonable ____________ be positioned forward of non-jettisonable cargo, except when its size, weight, and location will permit jettison by hand.
a. should not
b. could not
c. can not
d. shall not
78. _____ are essential operating procedures, practice, condition or statement, etc which if not strictly observed could result in damage to, or destruction of equipment or loss of mission effectiveness.
79. The cargo compartment loading heights vary between _________ inches.
a. 120, 148, and 158
b. 140, 150, and 160
c. 148, 158, and 162
d. 148, 162, and 171
80. Do not connect exhausts from low temperature materials to the _______ side vents or exhausts from operating engines to the __________ side vents. Connection of a low temperature exhaust to a vent contaminated with oil or grease may cause an explosion.
c. left or right
81. When cargo projects aft of the end of the logistics rails (FS ____), ensure the ramp toes do not contact the cargo while being raised to the vertical position.
82. When pedestal shoring is used under the Ramp Ground Support Pad for special loads, the shoring shall be a minimum of ________ inches long and __________ inches wide.
83. The aft end of the ramp toes shall not be supported when in the _________ position.
c. low or high
d. the ramp toe shall never be supported
84. There are provisions for a total of ____ aeromedical litter positions.
85. The rated capacity of the snatch blocks is ________.
86. When winching and the direction of pull is changed, the sheave ________.
a. can be realigned with the RWC.
b. will automatically realign to the new direction.
c. is realigned by selecting the #3 hydraulic pump to ON.
d. must be manually realigned to the new direction.
87. When four snatch blocks are required the 7500 pound cable pull may be increased to _______ under the winches increased load capability.
a. 7,500 pounds
b. 9,000 pounds
c. 10,000 pounds
d. may not be increased
88. The primary method for controlling winching operations is ___________.
a. The forward Winch Control Panel
b. The aft Winch Control Panel
c. The Remote Winch Controller (RWC)
d. All of the above
89. The maximum load allowed on the bridge plates is _______ pounds per plate or a ________ pound axle using both plates.
a. 4,500; 9,000
b. 5,500; 11,000
c. 6,500; 13,000
d. 7,500; 15,000
90. There are ______ therapeutic oxygen outlets located on the right side cargo compartment sidewall, and ______ therapeutic oxygen outlets located on the left side of the cargo compartment.
a. five / five
b. five / zero
c. seven / zero
d. zero / seven
91. To prevent contact/damage to flight control cables, ensure that the aft most seat back assembly is stowed ____________.
a. on its side with the carrying handle facing aft
b. on its side with the carrying handle facing fwd
c. on its bottom with the carrying handle facing up
d. in any manner wanted.
92. Palletized seat assemblies may be loaded in the logistic rails when transported as cargo. Passengers will not occupy palletized seats in the logistic rails.
93. On a dolly mounted engine, tiedown devices shall be attached through lifting/tiedown eyes on the engine adapter.
94. On aeromedical evacuation missions with litter or ambulatory patients, the ramp is restricted to __________.
a. no cargo permitted
b. loose baggage
c. a maximum of two pallets in the Logistic rails, left or right
d. a maximum of two pallets in the ADS rails or centerline floor loaded items
95. All netted pallets loaded into either rail system __________ built up to ensure lateral projections beyond the vertical stacking line do not exist.
a. could be
b. should be
c. shall be
d. might be
96. Pallets or pallet trains up to ________lbs per pallet may be loaded into the logistics rail system provided at least two locks, one left and one right are engaged in each pallet.
97. Netted two pallet trains that exceed _____ shall be restrained to the cargo floor.
a. 96 inches
b. 10,355 pounds
c. 100 inches
d. 20,710 pounds
98. Pallets or pallet trains up to 7,800 pounds per pallet may be loaded into the ADS rail/lock system when
a. at least two ADS locks (one left and one right) are engaged in each pallet.
b. at least four ADS locks two left and two right) are engaged in each pallet.
c. all longitudinal restraint is attached to the cargo floor.
d. additional longitudinal restraint is attached to the cargo floor.
99. Forklift operation ____________ performed inside the aircraft provided all Section IV loading/offloading limitations and forklift limitations are not exceeded.
a. may never be
b. shall not be
c. may be
d. will not be
100. Ensure cargo is restrained __________ prior to raising and closing the ramp when cargo is positioned on the ramp for flight. Failure to comply could result in damage to the aircraft and cargo.
c. in both directions
d. in all directions
101. If increasing or decreasing the ramp angle prevents positive control of an item of cargo, restraint __________ prior to raising or lowering the ramp.
a. will be applied
b. will be removed
c. will be considered
d. by chocks
102. When properly installed on a single pallet, the nets provide all necessary restraint for cargo loads up to ________ pounds when the height of stacked cargo does not exceed 96 inches.
103. The maximum wheel load on each ramp toe in the low position is __________ pounds.
104. The maximum pallet/platform weight on two ramp toes is _____ pounds except for 18-foot type VI platforms which may be increased to 14,500 pounds.
105. The maximum single axle load on the toes in the low position is ________ pounds.
106. Replace the cargo winch cable if ________ or more broken wires per strand inch or _________ or more broken wires per cable inch are found.
a. 2; 4
b. 3; 7
c. 4; 7
d. 5; 3
107. Cargo on a single pallet regardless of size __________.
a. will meet only forward and aft restraint requirements
b. will meet all restraint requirements
c. requires side and top nets for restraint
d. requires a top net and tiedown straps for supplemental restraint
108. Vehicles with transmissions that are not equipped with a neutral position shall be loaded/offloaded using the cargo winch.
109. Two or three pallet train weight for cargo secured with nets and stacked to 96 inches shall not exceed ________ pounds.
110. Two or three pallet train weight for cargo secured with nets and stacked above 96 inches (not to exceed 100 inches) shall not exceed __________ pounds.
111. All vehicle winching must be closely monitored by a crew of at least _______ personnel.
112. The maximum cargo weight that may be loaded left or right of the aircraft centerline is _______ pounds, provided all other aircraft limitations are complied with.
113. When low profile cargo does not permit the use of side nets, the top net may be used by itself provided the cargo weight does not exceed __________ pounds and cargo height does not exceed ________ inches from the pallet surface.
a. 4,000; 25
b. 4,000; 45
c. 2,500; 25
d. 2,500; 45
114. During offload operations and continuous tension cannot be maintained while transiting the ramp hinge ensure ramp position remains ___________ co-planar when cargo is on the ramp or traversing the ramp hinge.
d. above or below
115. When plywood barriers and chain bridles are installed for forward restraint on palletized cargo, pallets that exceed ________ inches in height will have a minimum of _______ bridle(s) installed and the minimum thickness for the barrier will be _______ inches.
a. 20; 1; 1/2
b. 30; 2; 3/4
c. 35; 2; 3/4
d. 40; 3; 1/2
116. If stowage pins _____ are not engaged on both left and right side of each toe stowed on the cargo door, that toe may come loose during flight.
117. Each palletized seat assembly shall be secured for _____ using two ADS locks on each side.
a. 1.5 G's
b. 3 G's
c. 8 G's
d. 9 G's
118. Stacking empty pallets _____ will damage the pallet surface or rings.
a. upside down
c. using bare tines
d. in the logistic rail system
119. When loading pallets that exceed a height of 100 inches, monitor overhead clearances between the top of pallets and aircraft structure. When positioning MHE in preparation for loading 463L pallets into the logistic rail system, contact with the aircraft _____ shall be considered.
120. When vehicle gross weight exceeds _____, a _____ chain shall be used to attach the cable/snatch block to the load.
a. 5000 lb; 10,000 lb
b. 10,000 lb; 25,000 lb
c. 23,000 lb; 25,000 lb
d. 25,000 lb; 25,000 lb
121. A strap or chain gate provides restraint in ___________ direction.
b. forward and aft
c. only one
d. more than one
122. A chain bridle provides restraint in __________ direction.
b. only forward and aft
c. more than one
d. only one
123. The maximum number of empty 463L pallets that may be stacked for airlift, excluding the base support pallet is _________.
124. When using alternate winching methods with the aircraft snatch blocks, make sure that the rated capacity of the snatch blocks is not exceeded and that the cable diameter does not exceed _____.
a. 3/8 inch
b. 1/2 inch
c. 3/4 inch
d. 1 inch
125. During palletized loading, minimum distance between the aircraft ramp and K-loader is ___ inches.
126. Tiedown devices connected to cargo that spans from the main cargo floor to the ramp shall be ____________ prior to opening the ramp.
127. The minimum thickness of rolling shoring shall be _______ inch(es).
d. 1 1/2
128. With the ramp toes in the high position, the required overlap between the ramp toe contact pads and the floor of the loader is _________ inches.
129. In the high position the ramp toes may be at an angle which causes the aft end of the toe to be above coplanar position with the ramp floor.
130. The weight limitation of the top litter tier is _____ pounds and the middle and lower tiers is _____ pounds. The weight capacity of each tier includes the patient, litter, and stowed equipment.
a. 200; 250
b. 225; 250
c. 250; 275
d. 250; 300
131. When using a tiedown strap to secure a ramp toe on the cargo door, route the strap around the stowage rack and secure the strap to the rack.
132. Each tiedown ring can accommodate up to ________ for any directional pull calculations.
a. three MB-1 devices
b. two MB-2 devices
c. five CGU-1B tiedown straps
d. All the above
133. When loading pallets in the _______, secure the pallet forward end to the upper frame of the lifting carriage to prevent tipping of the pallet during loading.
a. 88 inch orientation
b. 108 inch orientation
c. 96 inch orientation
134. Crewmembers occupying a crew station will have an oxygen mask connected and readily available for use from _____.
a. before engine start until engine shutdown.
b. before engine start until landing.
c. after engine start until engine shutdown
d. takeoff until landing
135. Calculate crew and passenger oxygen requirements based on flight at _____ from the ETP to the nearest suitable recovery base.
a. FL 100
b. FL 180
c. FL 250
d. FL 280
136. The Hung Flare Procedure will be accomplished _____.
a. after the live firing of flares
b. if displayed flare quantities have decreased since block-out
c. if the crew suspects aircraft battle damage
d. all of the above
137. ______________ will not retain custody of ammunition on an aircraft.
a. Phoenix Raven Team members
b. Special Agents
c. guards of the State Department
d. deadhead crewmembers or troops
138. PHOENIX RAVEN(s) will only be armed in-flight on specifically designated missions identified on the mission "frag" as "RAVEN in-flight arming required".
139. Crewmembers will be armed ___________
a. when reporting at crew show time
b. before beginning preflight or onloading
c. before loading passengers or patients
d. before beginning preflight, on/offload duties, and completion of post-flight duties
140. When crews are directed to carry weapons (IAW mission directive, Form 59, OPORD, etc.) a minimum of ___.
a. two crewmembers will be armed
b. one pilot will be armed
c. one loadmaster will be armed.
d. one pilot and one loadmaster will be armed.
141. If passengers are onboard ________ is/are prohibited.
a. touch-and-go landings
b. Night Vision Goggle (NVG) training
d. all of the above
142. When wearing the ACDE, Atropine and 2 PAM Chloride auto injectors will be kept in the _____ ACDE pocket. If the integrated survival vest/body armor is worn, the Atropine and 2 PAM Chloride auto injectors may be kept in the ____________ flight suit pocket.
a. upper right, lower right
b. upper left, lower right
c. lower right, upper left
d. lower left, upper left
143. M-9 paper should be placed on the flight suit prior to entering the CBRNE threat area or when an alarm _____ or higher has been declared.
144. Contaminated engine covers, safety pins and chocks will not be placed in the aircraft unless _____.
a. sealed in clean plastic bags and properly marked IAW technical order requirements.
b. they are handled with gloved hands.
c. they are cleaned with water.
d. directed by DIRMOBFOR.
145. AMC aircraft are not allowed to operate on JP-8+100, except in emergency conditions.
146. Concurrent ground operations (simultaneous refueling or de-fueling while cargo or maintenance operations are being performed) are authorized in accordance with _____.
a. TO 00-25-172
b. TO 1C-17A-1
c. TO 1C-17A-9
d. AFI 11-2C-17V3
147. The aircraft loadmaster may deviate from load plans to facilitate ease of onload or offload of cargo, accommodate additional passengers, and to alleviate unnecessary aircraft reconfiguration without submitting documentation.
148. The loadmaster is the on-scene expert for load planning and accepting cargo for airlift. Some loads are not specifically detailed in applicable directives and require the loadmaster to use his or her best judgment, based on _____, to determine the best and safest method of loading the cargo.
d. all the above
149. When the load consists of palletized netted cargo or cargo secured with straps, a ______ inch space will be maintained between the cargo and the nearest forward litter, occupied seat or nuclear cargo.
150. Duty loadmasters will accomplish a(n) _____ prior to conducting loading operations.
a. Interior Safety Inspection
b. Basic Aircraft Pre-flight
c. all appropriate loading preparation checklists
d. all of the above
151. Weapons are considered loaded if a magazine or clip is installed in the weapon. This applies even though the clip or magazine is empty.
152. Personnel performing duties required to be mobile in the cargo compartment during airdrop, low level operations, or threat environments will wear protective headgear.
153. During ERO's , vehicles and all personnel exiting via the cargo ramp will proceed directly aft of the aircraft at least ________ feet before turning and at least _________ feet before stopping.
a. 25; 200
b. 25; 300
c. 50; 200
d. 50; 300
154. With the exception of small arms ammunition (Hazard Class/Division 1.4), explosives and munitions shall not be combat offloaded without approval of __________.
155. The maximum altitude for emergency airlift of personnel will not exceed flight level __________.
156. During ERO's, do not onload or offload through the crew entrance door and cargo ramp/door at the same time unless both doors are directly supervised by _____.
a. passenger service representative.
b. a C-17A qualified crewmember.
c. any aircrew member
d. flying crew chief
157. On aeromedical evacuation missions, litters will be positioned forward of cargo pallets; except if cargo is in place, and the ______ and _____ agree, patients may be transported aft of the cargo.
a. PIC; Loadmaster
b. MCD; Loadmaster
c. Loadmaster; Chief Med Tech
d. PIC; MCD
158. Maximum altitude for floor loaded patients is flight level ___.
159. Cabin Pressure Gauge at the crew entry door is required to be operational for home station departures.
160. Aircrew Data Transfer Device is not required to be operational for home station departure.
161. The cargo winch does not have to be operational for home station departure.
162. For home station departure, all rails, locks, vertical lips and roller conveyors (ADS and logistic) will be fully operational.
163. All proximity sensors and indicating systems associated with the cargo door system will be operational.
164. The following smoke detectors are required for home station/main operating base departures: One AV, all 4 IRU, _________ plus two others in the cargo compartment.
a. CAR 1, 2, 10, 11
b. CAR 5, 6, 7, 8
c. CAR 1, 2, 13, 14
d. CAR 9, 10, 13, 14
165. The minimum number of Emergency Exit Signs required for an enroute departure.
166. If no maintenance personnel are available and crew duties limit the availability of a crewmember, the engines may be started without someone outside the aircraft. If this option is used, ensure all crewmembers are thoroughly briefed.
167. During ENAF missions, if crews are required to move the maximum number of one type of weapon, section VI of the _____ is the best guide to determine where to position the weapons. Use the maximum tested figure.
a. TO 1C-17A-16-1
b. TO 1C-17A-16-2
c. TO 1C-17A-16-3
d. TO 1C-17A-9
168. During ENAF missions, use standard TO 1C-17A-1-9 restraint criteria. Crews may use the tiedown patterns in the TO 1C-17A 16-1, which _____ TO 1C-17A-1-9 criteria.
a. will exceed
b. will not exceed
c. may exceed
d. may not exceed
169. When guidance in AFI 11-2C-17V3 conflicts with another basic/source document, that document takes precedence.
170. AFI 11-2C-17V3 applies to____________.
a. aircrew members involved with employing C-17 aircraft.
b. support personnel involved with employing C-17 aircraft.
c. managers involved with employing C-17 aircraft.
d. all of the above
171. Unless otherwise directed, the waiver authority for contents of AFI 11-2C-17V3 is _____________.
c. Squadron DOV
d. Wing DOV
172. The maximum FDP for a basic aircrew is ___ hours, (___ hours when the autopilot is inoperative).
173. The maximum crew duty time for a basic C-17 aircrew is ________.
a. 24 hours
b. 20 hours
c. 18 hours
d. 12 hours
174. Maximum CDT for an augmented aircrew is ____ hours.
175. Crew members will not be scheduled to fly, nor will they perform crew duties after consuming alcoholic beverages within ______ hours of _______ time, or when under the influence of alcohol.
a. 12; takeoff
b. 10; takeoff
c. 12; reporting
d. 10; reporting
176. Aircrew members shall not be scheduled to fly or operate equipment within ___ hours after consuming a no-go pill.
177. Aircrew members shall not take no-go-pills within ___ hours of consuming alcohol.
178. For all missions, the latest allowable alert time is ___ hours after the expected alert time.
179. When tasked, an aircraft and/or aircrew in BRAVO Standby Force will launch within ___ hour(s).
180. The total number of persons permitted in the flight station is limited _____. In all cases, sufficient oxygen sources must be available.
a. to 7.
b. to 800 lbs.
c. to PIC's discretion.
d. to the number of seats with operable seat belts.
181. Any crewmember seeing a deviation of ___ feet altitude or ___ knots in airspeed, or a potential terrain or obstruction problem, will immediately notify the PF.
182. Do not taxi an aircraft within ______ of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring clearance between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least _______.
a. 25 yards; 10 yards
b. 10 yards; 25 yards
c. 25 feet; 10 feet
d. 10 feet; 25 feet
183. During the entire reverse taxi operation if the loadmaster states the word(s) "________", the pilot will immediately stop the aircraft.
d. PREPARE TO STOP
184. During reverse taxi operations, stop no less than ________ from an obstruction with or without a marshaller/wing walker.
a. 15 feet
b. 25 feet
c. 50 feet
d. 100 feet
185. Prior to every operational use, NVG should be calibrated. Regardless of the method used for calibration, minimum visual acuity for AN/AVS 4949G sensors should be _____ for high illumination and _____ for low illumination.
a. 20/20; 20/20
b. 20/20; 20/30
c. 20/30; 20/40
d. 20/30; 20/30
186. Night vision goggles malfunctions during critical phases of flight should be addressed during _____________.
a. critical phases of flight
b. emergency procedures
c. post mission debriefs
d. crew briefings
187. Bullseyes are oriented toward ________, unless specified in the SPINS.
a. magnetic south
b. magnetic north
c. true south
d. true north
188. An area extending approximately ______ from the radome of the aircraft is not visible from the pilot or copilot seat due to cockpit height and aircraft fuselage geometry. Ensure all equipment and ground personnel are clear of the non visibility area before commencing taxi.
a. 25 feet
b. 44 feet
c. 50 feet
d. 144 feet
189. Loadmasters and ground crews should wear protective goggles when conducting ______ ground operations.
190. _______ is not a primary functions of PHOENIX Raven teams.
a. Advise the aircraft commander and crew on force protection measures.
b. Perform close-in aircraft security at high-threat locations.
c. Accomplish airfield assessments highlighting existing security measures and vulnerabilities.
d. Perform cockpit denial for high-risk passenger movement missions.
191. Annotated as a ______, the objective point is significant as the target of the airlift/airdrop mission (normally a DZ or ALZ).
192. The objective of ________ is to provide fuel at austere locations for fighters, helicopters, tactical airlift, as well as ground equipment/vehicles.
a. Bulk Fuel Transport (BFT)
b. Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP)
c. Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS)
d. Aerial Bulk Delivery and Dispensing System (ADDS)
193. The loadmaster is a key element in the defense of the aircraft. Which of the following is NOT a loadmaster responsibility?
a. Maintain situational awareness
b. assist in visual acquisition of air and ground threats
c. directing initial defensive maneuvers to the PF
d. giving a visual picture to the rest of the crew