RCIS review.csv

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RCIS review.csv
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  1. usual hemodynamic finding in left heart failure is
    elevated pulmonary pressures
  2. primary cause of LV hypertropy with dilation
    increased pressure load
  3. heart failure is an abnormal state of cardiac function which fails to meet the needs of metabolizing tissues or can only meet them with
    increased venous pressure
  4. "rapid onset short acting synthetic narcotic is"
    fentanyl
  5. the potency of fentanyl is up to how many times that of morphine
    100
  6. acute pulmonary edema occurs when there is inadequate emptying of the
    left ventricle
  7. heart failure is an abnormal state of cardiac function which fails to meet the needs of metabolizing tissues or can only meet them with
    increased venous pressure
  8. HOCM=Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy is
    genetic disorder with a hypertrophied and hypercontractile LV
  9. increasing the stiffness (decreasing the compliance) of the LV has the greatestt effect on properteries of the LV
    diastolic filling
  10. proper IABP settings should result in an arterial pressure showing
    systolic decrease and diastolic increase
  11. systemic venous 02 sat in L-R ASD. What is the formula used?
    Flamm formula=1 IVC + 3 SVC/4
  12. what is the normal rate of travel for an automated IVUS pullback
    0.5-1 mm/sec
  13. a VSD develops in your adult STEMI pt. this shunt will normally be
    L-R and the pt. will be acyanotic or pink
  14. during heart catheterization cyanotic cardiac shunts show a
    stepdown in 02 sat on the left side of the heart
  15. a transseptal catheter which is introduced over the wire
    Brockenbrough
  16. RAO-Caudal apex point to the and backbone is on the
    "right
  17. RAO-caudal heart apex is directed superiorly and the system is seen the LAD indicating a caudal view
    "circ
  18. overall mortality rate of a PCI procedure done on an average adult is approxiately
    10 times that of diagnostic cath (1.0%)
  19. beside CPR which therapy is indicated in asystole
    epinephine or vasopressin
  20. "when using a JL 3.5 catheter on a left coronary PCI in an average sized American pt.
    the tip will be angled up"
  21. a lone health care professional who sees a pt. collapse becomes unresponsive & gasping should call for help and follow the
    c=circulation, a=airway, b=breathing
  22. Most common reversible cause of PEA
    hypovolemia
  23. most common access for RV endomyocardial biopsy using stiff shaft devices is
    internal jugular vein
  24. "the regurgitation blood hits the mitral leaflets and cause them to vibrate causing this murmur"
  25. can contribute up to 30% of CO
    atrial kick
  26. the amount of blood that remains in the LV at the end of systole
    LV end systolic volume
  27. he amount of blood that is in the ventricles just before ejection (systole) occurs
    LV end diastolic volume
  28. LV never ejects the entire volume it receives during
    diastole
  29. combination LV and RV pressures are for
    screen for presence of restrictive or constrictive physiology
  30. "what do you do if you started a dopamine drip and 30 minutes later
    pt. complains of coldness and swelling at IV site. What should be don FIRST"
  31. the blood vessel that carries desaturated blood from RV to the lungs.
    pulmonary artery
  32. when monitoring hemodynamic pressure the catheter that measures PA pressure is placed in the PA. this catheter can measure pressures in
    "PA
  33. dosage of methylergonovine to provoke Prinzmetal's angina
    "0.05mg, 0.1mg, 0.25mg iv at 5 minutes intervals
  34. IVUS % Diameter Stenosis formula
    (D2-D1)/D2
  35. Qp/Qs=Pulmonary blood flow/systemic blood flow=PBF/SBF
    (ao-ra 02 sat)/(pv-pa 02 sat)
  36. "pulmonary blood flow is larger than the systemic flow there is a "
  37. child=coronary artery aneurysms
    Kawasakidisas
  38. a rare polyarteritis in infants and children-causes multiple small aneurysms at the branch points of the arteries and may lead to myocardial infarction
    Kawasaki's disease
  39. Three I's of MI's
  40. ACLS Asystole & PEA Algorithm causes 5 T=
  41. components of the pulmonary system
    "lungs
  42. upper airway =
    "nose
  43. lower airway=
    "trachea
  44. "the left lung has ____ lobes the right lung has ____ lobes"
  45. cellular respiration is dependent on
    "ventilation
  46. exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the atmosphere and the lungs
    ventilation
  47. inspiration and expiration
    breathing
  48. movement of gas in and out of the lungs
    ventilations
  49. "occurs passively generating positive alveolar pressure"
  50. ABCD Primary and Secondary are
  51. hemodynamics effects of morphine include
    increase venous capacitance and decreased pheripheral vascular resistance
  52. ACLS asystole & PEA Algorithm causes & treatments "6 H's =
  53. compensitory pulse
    "predictable p wave
  54. non compensatory pulse
    unpredictable p wave PAC
  55. aberrant=
    irregularly
  56. hypertrophy=
    thickening
  57. what artery supplies the anterior surface of the ventricles and the anterior 2/3 of the intraventricular septum thru septal branches
    LAD
  58. what arteries supplies anterior and in some individuals laterial surface of the septum V1-V2
    Diagional branches
  59. V3-V4=is associated with what artery
    LAD
  60. "Supplies the posterior and high lateral wall of left ventricle I
    aVL
  61. what percentage of people have the PDA branch supplying the inferior surfaceof the hearrt rises off of the CX artery and what is this considered
    "10%
  62. what obstructed vessel will produce ST elevation inferior & lateral leads
    Prox obstruction of CX
  63. what artery supplies RT ventricle thru a marginal branch
    RCA
  64. what percentage of people does the RCA supply the inferior surface of the ventricle called the posterior descending artery
    90%
  65. what artery also supplies posterior 1/3 of the intraventricular septum
    PDA
  66. "inferior stemi what leads"
  67. what artery supplies the anterior wall of the RT ventricle
    RCA Prox
  68. the degree of blackness on a film is termed
    radiographic density
  69. Hpertrophy Pattern: initial large positive p wave in Lead II
    Right Atrial Enlargement (RAE)
  70. Hypertrophy pattern: elevated R waves in V1
    Right Ventricular Hypertrophy (RVH)
  71. "hypertrophy pattern: notched p in II
    biphashic late negative p wave in V1"
  72. hypertrophy pattern: large s in V1 and r-wave in V6 totaling >35mm
    Left ventricle hypertrophy (LVH)
  73. "surface ECG-Lead II large A
  74. "surface ECG-Lead II large A and small V in left AV Grove"
  75. surface ECG-Lead II large V only
    RV apex
  76. 1st wave of atrial depolarization is
    p wave
  77. p wave and PR segment time from first atrial depolarization until the ventricle begins deplorizing
    pr interval
  78. first positive ventricular deplorization is
    R wave
  79. first positive and following negative ventricular depolarization
    RS (QRS)
  80. times from the end of QRS complex to beginning of T wave(ventricular repolarization)
    QT interval
  81. "delayed onset long acting narcotic"
  82. "rapid onset short acting benzodiazepine"
  83. "delayed onset long acting benzodiazepine"
  84. when doing angiographic flood injections with a 4fr or 5fr catheter the injector pressure should not exceed
    1000 psi
  85. what should you closely monitor when using ionic or hi osmolar contrast during coronary arteriography
    "ecg & ao pressure
  86. how long does skin burns from x-ray radiation take to evolve and heal
    a year
  87. the amount of radiation that a physician is allowed to administer to a patient during PCI is
    limited to the amount that can be clinically justified
  88. what radiographic views will produce the highest x-ray exposure to staff working on the right side of patient
    LAO-scatter radiation is greatest where the operator is in close proximity to the beam entry point
  89. "calcium channel blockers effects and name some
  90. Verapamil (isoptin) Do not use in CHF why
    has a negative inotropic effect-to decrease the force of contraction. It would not be used in heart failure because it would decrease cardiac contractility even further
  91. do not mix this med with other meds
    sodium bicarb
  92. this med you do not shake ampule and can cause pulmonary fibrosis
    amidorone
  93. major side effect with procainamide
    "bradycardia
  94. IV adenosine half life is
    5 seconds
  95. critical coronary stenosis occurs when the stenosis exceeds
    > 50% reduction in diameter
  96. retention of sodium and water by the kidney due to insufficient cardiac output is an example of
    forward CHF
  97. diamond shaped ejection murmur radiating toward the neck is
    aortic stenosis-AS
  98. arterial pulse which is felt as two distinct impulses during systole is term and is associated with
    "Pulsus bisferiens
  99. More than 10mmHg drop in BP with inspiration is
    pulsus paradoxus
  100. holostystolic or pansystolic murmurs occur in patients with
    "MR-
  101. what seeps out thru out systole
    potassium
  102. another term for ostiium secundum
    foramen ovale
  103. microscopic blood exam that estimates the percentage of each type of WHITE cell is called
    differential blood count
  104. NPH insulin dependent. What specific precautions should be taken with heparin
    avoid revesing heparin with protamine
  105. "the consent signed and witness by a nurse. Patient looks worry and start asking what this test is for and what is he really going to do. As a CV lab person what should you do"
    and what is her really going to do. As a CV lab person what should you do"
  106. NPH insulin dependent diabetic. Morning of cath they should be NPO and be administered
    half dose of NPH Insulin
  107. number of capillaries in the body is approxiately 3.0 x 10^9. this is
    "3 billions-3
  108. "a pt that has a prosthetic tilting disc aortic valve.what should be the physician's choice for left heart cath
  109. "never cross a disc valve(bjork st jude) why?
  110. what is the lowest profile dilation catheter which may be used as a balloon of last resort in crossing very tight lesions
    fixed wire or on the wire
  111. "when performing right heart catheterization by the sones/cutdown technique. when would the venous torniquet MOST likely be applied"
    at the start of prepping the arm or even sooner to identify a good vein
  112. "which type of stent design provides the best flexibility diliverability and side branch access"
    open cell stents
  113. varied geometry is what type of stent
    open cell stents
  114. same geometry is what type of stent
    closed cell stents
  115. "the ""rate of rise""adjustment on power injectors is used to "
    reduce catheter whip
  116. what piece of equipment in the ep lab allows you to select different electrode pairs from the intracardiac electrodes for monitoring or stimulation
    junction box or swithch box
  117. what gauge is the long needle used for transseptal catheterization
    18 gauge diameter which tapers to 21 gauge at the curved tip
  118. after valvuloplasty which valve has the worst long term outcome
    aortic valvuloplasty
  119. what valvuloplasty least successful
    ao valvuloplasty
  120. what closure device is suture medicated
    perclose
  121. what closure device is passive pressure
    femostop (radi)
  122. what closure device is staple medicated
    evs-angiolink (medtronic)
  123. what closure device is extravascular collagen
    angio seal (st jude)
  124. in emergency temporary pacing the designation for asynchronous pacing is
    VOO
  125. the physiologic sensors found in most rate responsive pacers that responds most rapidly to the onset of exercise is a/an ____ that senses ______.
    accelerometer, motion
  126. porous tip steroid eluting pacer electrode tips are used because they
    decrease acute stimulation threshold
  127. adequate acute VVI pacemaker implant setting are a sensed R wave _____ and an acute stimulation threshold _____, (< mean less than)
    >4 mV, <2 V
  128. the perclose hemostatic closure device uses
    nonabsorbable suture is permanent
  129. a major advantage to using ICE - intracardiac echocardiography vs TEE
    no general anestheia needed
  130. intracardiac echocardiography uses as an injectable contrast agent to view shunts or distinguish the right heart from the left heart chambers
    agitated saline
  131. the x-ray dose per frame for cine acquisition technique is approxiately ______ times than fluoroscopy
    15
  132. "compared with dx cath, angioplasty and PCI has ______ times more risk of major complications and death"
    10
  133. the amount of stretch inherent in balloon materials is termed
    compliance is the inverse of stiffness
  134. "the ""kissing balloon technique"" is used in _____ lesions to prevent ______."
    Bifurication lesions, shifting of plaque
  135. in x-ray technique, adequate mA results in
    inadequate photons are generated
  136. the fluorescent screen of an image intensifier uses
    cesium iodide
  137. the modern device that converts x-rays into visible light is the
    flat panel detector
  138. in coronary cine angiography, the mA setting has the greatest influence over
    ultimate density of the image
  139. which part of an x-ray tube produces the s-ray photons
    target on the rotating anode
  140. x-ray photon strength is most affected by
    kilovoltage
  141. a major advantage of using high "mA" settings during, angiography is
    decreased pulse width duration (reduces motion blurring by shortening as exposure time)
  142. in cororary cine angiography a long pulse width (exposure time) may cause
    blurring due to motion
  143. ic verapamil may be called for in case of
    coronary artery spasm
  144. these effectively prevent coronary vasospasm and variant angina and they should be administered in perference to beta-blockers
    calcium channel blocker
  145. "following the reopening of a totally occcluded prox RCA using a stiff .014 guide wire angiography reveals a small amount of dye entering the anterior right atrium. This most likely caused by"
  146. what is the normal angiographic appearance of a perforation
    staining of the pericardium
  147. "while wiring a diseased circ coronary artery prior to stenting you notice a contrast stain or blush outside the coronary silhouette near the area of greatest tortuosity
  148. what is the most common cause of tamponade is the interventional lab
    perforation or rupture of coronary artery
  149. what type of device remove plaque and calcium by pulverizing (rotablader) or vaporizing (laser) it and allowing it to flow antegrade thru the capillary bed
    athero-ablation
  150. what type of device remove and pull out plaque from lesions
    atherectomy
  151. what type of device remove and pull out clots
    thrombectomy
  152. "what type of device do not remove plaque, they repair lesions by pressing the plaque against the arterial wall"
  153. "when does CABG surgery tend to prolong pt life as compared to PCI"
  154. what is the MAIN OBJECTIVE in treating pt with acute MI
    restore blood flow to the ischemic myocardium
  155. "what can be salvage thru thrombolytic drugs
  156. acute ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) usually occurs when a coronary lesion has
    total thrombotic coronary occlusion
  157. current medical guidelines only recommend PTCA & Stenting on stable angina pt with symptomatic coronary artery disease when
    medical therapy has failed
  158. stable angina should be 1st treated how
    medically
  159. the sub-types of acute coronary syndrome which heart muscle is damaged include
    "unstable angina
  160. the PTFE covered stents or stent-grafts contain a
    distensable micro-orous Teflon membrane
  161. emergency coronary stenting may be necessary in the case of
    spiral dissection
  162. what type of stents is NOT recommended in degenerated SVG
    PTFE covered stents
  163. how many mm of the stent is deployed in the prox/parent vessel when a crushing stent technique is performed in a bifurcation lesion
    4-5mm
  164. "what type of stenting is it when a stent is deployed at the ostium of the side branch followed by a second stent in the parent vessel"
  165. "in a DES the term ""eluting"" means
  166. what type of cardiac pt are most prone to in-stent restenosis
    diabetics
  167. "in sirolimus drug eluting stents approx 80% of the active drug is released within
    1 month
  168. in the paclitaxel eluting stent 50% of the active drug is dissolved out in
    1 month
  169. on the average what types of pt receiving angioplasty and stent therapy have their life extended
    acute STEMI pt live longer
  170. statistics show that appropriate stent placement in pt with unrelieved stable angina, help pt's how
    relieves angia pain and improves the quality of life
  171. this technique is used for dilating rigid lesions that fail to dilate with your initial balloon
    force-focused angioplasty
  172. sirolimus=
    cypher-cordis
  173. paclitaxel=
    taxus - boston sci.
  174. zotarolimus=
    rapimycin analog-medtronic
  175. everolimus=
    rapimycin analog-abbott vasc.
  176. the DES agent Sirolimus (rapimycin) was originally derived from
    bacteria from easter island soil
  177. what type of cardiac pt are most prone to in-stent restenosis
    diabetics
  178. the major benefit of bare metal stent placement compared with balloon angioplasty is
    reduction in restenosis with BMS
  179. the risk of repeat CABG is how many times that of the first operation
    2-3 times
  180. "which type of stents have the best flexibility and tend to conform better on tight bends. These stents also provide better access to jailed side branches by staggering the cross elements"
  181. an off-label use of a DES would be for
    SVG stenosis
  182. "one level of acute coronary syndrome is unstable angina. The expected cause of UA/NSTEMI is that a major coronary artery has _________ and its optimal treatment is."
    partial or intermittent thrombus, treated with antiplatelet, antithrombin, and antianginal therapy
  183. "in rotational atherectomy "" Orthogonal Displacement of Friction"" describes "
    advancing a rotating burr is much easier than a stationary burr
  184. "in the rotational atherectomy ""Rotablator""system the two foot pedals are a/an high speed turbine and a for dynaglide low-speed mode"
    "on-off switch
  185. "for safest and optimal rotational atherectomy, final burr size should be a _____burr/artery ratio of to the reference vessel diameter with adjunctive PTCA inflations of ."
  186. which lesion below would be most successfully treated with and is an indication for rotational atherectomy
    restenotic lesion
  187. "when using rotational atherectomy to do PCI on a pt's left coronary artery who has a LV EF 30% what propylactice therapy should be initiated first. And if it is RCA what therapy"
  188. when connecting rotational atherectomy advancer drive shaft to the catheter drive shaft at the Rotalink a burr shaft into the advancer shaft and then .
    "snap
  189. "the acronym for final equipment checkout prior to insertion of the rotablator is_____ and means _______ ."
    and means ."
  190. what is the most common complication following a transvenous pacemaker implant
    lead dislodgement
  191. what parameters could be reprogrammed to stop a DDD pacemaker induced tachycardia
    atrial refractory period
  192. what adjustment changes a temp pacemaker from the demand mode to asynchronous mode
    decrease pacer sensitivity
  193. use synchronized cardioversion for stable
    vt
  194. heart failure pt comes to the cath lab with a DDDRV pacemaker. He has a total of how many leads and their locations
  195. biventricular pacing to improve rv & lv synchrony in BBB is also termed
    cardiac resynchronization therapy (CRT)
  196. a blood adnormality commonly found in pt with prosthetic valve is
    hemolytic anemia
  197. a condition in which red blood cells are destroyed (hemolyzed) from the bloodstream before their normal life-span (120 days) is up
    hemolytic anemia
  198. what mechanical prosthetic heart valve has the best flow characteristics and is most commonly implanted worldwide
  199. what valvuloplasty pt has the poorest long term results? Pt with
    calcific aortic stenosis
  200. "another term for balloon ""mitral valvuloplasty"" is"
    perc mitral commissurotomy
  201. when is perc mitral valvuloplasty contraindicated for mitral stenosis
    coexistent mitral regurgitation or la mural thrombus
  202. during pericardiocentesis if the needle accidentally touches the myocardium you will see
    st elevation
  203. when using the Excimer laser in coronary atherectomy just prior to and while energizing the laser in a plaque
    flush 20-30 ml of saline into the guide catheter
  204. metabolic syndrome is also known as
    syndrome X or insulin resistance syndrome
  205. "increased risk of developing cardiovascular disease and diabetes associated with central obesity
  206. "mi pt develops othopnea ________
    tachypnea
  207. fluid in the alveoli
    pulmonary edema
  208. advanced left heart failure is most associated with
    interstitial pulmonary edema
  209. a direct injury to the lung parenchyma is termed
    noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
  210. a pt with a decrescendo diastolic murmur and wide arterial pulse pressure probably has
    aortic insufficiency-AI
  211. where should you start the iv when a radial artery cath is scheduled
    contralateral arm
  212. "svt should not be defibrillated, it should be"
    cardioverted
  213. a pt with acute MI is brought to your labe on a nitro drip. He has SVT at a rate of 200/min. he is pale and lethargic. 1st thing the physician will probably want to do is
    administer adenosine
  214. "the legal rule that holds each individual responsible for his or her own actions is termed"
  215. how many pt identifiers are required before proceeding with an Invasive procedure
    2
  216. "which federal agnecy creates regulations to protect ""pt rights"""
    HIPAA
  217. Class I anti-arrythmics causes _____conduction velocity and are termed ____
  218. "in the Vaughan Williams classification, what complications should be watched for"
  219. drugs that affect phase 0 of action potental are class antiarrhythmic in the Vaughn Willams classification
    class I
  220. the 1st treatment for symptomatic narrow QRS complex tachycardia is
    vagal maneuvers
  221. active half life of adenosine
    10-30 seconds
  222. elimination half life of amiodarone
    4-8 weeks
  223. a synthetic catecholamine drug that is a pure beta stimulant and increase myocardial 02 consumption is
    isoproterenol (isuprel)
  224. "when isoproterenol (isuprel) is administered to a coronary pt, what complications should be watched for"
  225. rapid bolus injection of procainamide may cause
    hypotension
  226. maximum dose of procainamide is
    17mg/kg
  227. what platelet receptor site does abciximab (reopro) block
    glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
  228. name 3 Glycoprotein Iib/IIIa inhibitors
  229. asa works in blood because it interferes with
    prostaglandin synthesis of thromboxane A2
  230. what drug prevents thrombin formation and thus prevents fibrin clots from forming
    heparin
  231. low molecullar weight heparin (LMWH) is different from unfractionated heparin in that
    "LMWH is administered subcutaneously
  232. in cath lab the most sensitive parameter to monitor for over sedation is
    o2 sat
  233. which analgesic also reduces myocardial oxygen deman through arterial and venous dilation and decreased HR
    morphine
  234. what is the concentration of 2 grams of lidocaine in 500cc of D5W
    4mg/ml
  235. calculate the concentration of 1 gram of epinephrine in 250 ml
    4mg/ml
  236. to mix a dopamine drip to a strength of 1600 mcg/ml in a 250 ml saline bag add
    400mg/250ml
  237. which electrolyte imbalance exacerbates digitalis (digoxin) toxicity
    hypokalemia
  238. names some calcium channel blockers
  239. what is the main use for calcium channel blockers
    is to decrease blood pressure through vasodilation of smooth muscle
  240. "what is the standard therapy for angina hypertension
  241. for a diabetic pt with post-cath decreased renal function give
    iv saline hydration
  242. oliguria is what
    decreased production of urine is a pt
  243. contrast agent which has the lowest osmolarity
    visapaque(iodixanol)
  244. how is radiographic contrast eliminated from the body
    filtered out by the kidneys and excreted in urine
  245. the dosage of methylergonovine to provoke prinzmetal's angina is
    "0.05mg
  246. is a disorder of the pericardium in which the pericardium becomes swollen or inflamed
    pericardititis
  247. causes of pericarditis
    "bacterial or viral infections
  248. is a disorder caused by the accumulation of large amount of fluid in the pericardium
    pericardial effusion
  249. the pericardium is divided into how many layers
    3
  250. a microscopic blood exam that estimate the percentage of each type of white cell is called
    differential blood count
  251. a pt with oliguria may be treated with a
    foley catheter
  252. the blood flow thru the ivc and svc is termed the
    venous return
  253. the sa node lies at the junction of the
    svc & ra
  254. where to measure ST segment elevation on an EKG
    j point
  255. average stroke volume in adults is
    70ml
  256. what is the range of average stroke volume in adults
    60-130ml
  257. what are the bipolar leads on a 12 lead ekg
  258. "what class of drug is prescribed in htn
  259. what drug decrease peripheral vascular resistance
    morphine
  260. what drug should not be given or given with caution to those with asthma
    "inderol(propranolol)
  261. what drug is given for a MI to decrease preload and afterload
    nitro
  262. how does epi effect afterload
    increases afterload
  263. drugs used in the ccl to increase heart rate
  264. what is the name of low molecular weight heparin
    lovenox(enoxaparin)
  265. aminodarone dose for arrythmias is
    150mg
  266. aminodarone dose for cardiac arrest
    300mg
  267. what drug can you use for vagal reactions and sinus bradycardia
    atropine
  268. contraindication for lidocaine is
    heart block
  269. nitro effects preload and afterload how
    it decreases both
  270. how do diuretics work
    they reduce volume
  271. what happens to vessels when the beta receptors are stimulated
    the vessels dialate
  272. what happen to vessels when alpha receptors are stimulated
    the vessels constrict
  273. what are 2 main types of adrenergic receptors
    alpha & beta
  274. what enzyme is made in the liver that effects bp
    angiotensinogen
  275. where are the baroreceptors located
    aortic arch & carotids
  276. how does the body control bp
    baroreceptors
  277. "the purpose for the iabp is to ______coronary artery perfusion
    increase
  278. what is a sign of right side heart failure
    jugular distention
  279. what most likely cause increased pulmonary blood flow & possibly pulmonary edema
    a PDA(patent ductus arteriosus)
  280. what valve has the smallest valve area
    aortic valve
  281. what will cause a pacemaker to fail to capture in the rv
    lead dislodgement
  282. vascular resistance is most greatly influenced by
    the radius of the tube(vessel)
  283. what is the acls protocol for monophasic defibrillation
    200-300-360 joules
  284. if there is a valve stenosis or regurg. Which CO should you use
    fick co
  285. what does the C wave represent
    onset of ventricular contraction
  286. where do you measure thermal dilution cardiac outputs
  287. greatest percentage of peripheral stenosis occure where
    lower extremities
  288. where is the most common renal stenosis located
    ostial
  289. equalization of LV-EDP & RVEDP =
    constrictive pericarditis
  290. when are the coronary arteries perfused
    during ventricular diastole
  291. what is the normal amount of blood in the pericardium
    50ml
  292. if the pr interval is .25 where is the delay
    in the av node
  293. normal pr interval is
    .12-.20
  294. pulmonic stenosis is generally associated with what
    congential anomalies
  295. to view pulmonary stenosis where do you inject the contrast
    right ventricle
  296. what is the best choice of catheter to use on a lca with a high take off
    amplatz
  297. what converts x-rays to light rays
    image intensifier
  298. what is the max dose of radiation a worker can receive in a year
    5 REM
  299. the most important factor in decreasing x-ray exposure to a pt is to
    decrease the time of exposure
  300. radiation absorbed dose=
    RAD
  301. "in the terms rao & lao the r and the l refers to what"
    the r and the l refers to what"
  302. what pacemaker synchronize the contraction of the ventricles
    bi-ventricular
  303. "in order the first three letters of the pacemaker code mean what"
  304. what type of pacemaker have a unique abiltiy to sense the hearts intrinsic activity and pace only when needed
    synchronous (demand) pacemakers
  305. the ideal contrast volume to be given to the pt. is
    3ml/kg
  306. osmolarity refers to the ability of the contrast to
    pull fluid into the intravascular space
  307. shortness of breath indicates right or left sided heart failure
    left sided
  308. jugular vein distention can be caused by
  309. what is the best balloon to use on an artery that has a tendency to close
    perfusion balloon
  310. if a pt has a heart rate of 150 bpm assist on the iabp should be set at what
    2:1
  311. what is the possible complication of over tightening the touchy
    unable to inflate the balloon
  312. where does the needle enter for a pericardiocentesis
    sub-xyphoid process
  313. "during a rotoblator intervention, what is the most common cause of ""no flow"""
  314. "the symptoms of increased heart rate, decreased bp & sob during a biopsy may indicate what"
  315. what type of balloon works for calcified lesion
    cutting
  316. intermost layer of an artery is
    intima
  317. increased bicarb will do what to the blood ph
    elevate HC03 & increase the ph
  318. a high CO2 will impact the ph how
    lower the ph level in the blood
  319. what would be the approciate intervention for a pt with respiratory acidosis
    increase ventilations
  320. a blood ph less then 7.35 or greater then 7.45 is called
    uncompensated
  321. metabolic acidosis has a low level of what
    bicarb (HCO3)
  322. pseudoaneurysm is what type of aneursym
    FALSE
  323. what is often a pulsatile mass near the sheath site with a bruit present
    pseudoaneurysm
  324. post procedure renal dysfunction is more likely to occur in pt with
  325. the most accurate measure of cardiac muscle fiber damage after a MI is what
    tropronin
  326. what does asa do
    prevents platlet adhesion
  327. what medications turn off the receptor sites on the platlets (super asa)
    ticlid & plavix
  328. what medication impacts antithrombin & factor Xa
    lovenox(enoxaparin)
  329. what medication prevents the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
    heparin
  330. name some antiplatlet meds
    "ticlid(ticlopidine), asa, plavix, effient
  331. what typically increase to compensate for constrictive diseases which impede filling
    preload
  332. in cardiac tamponade venous pressure and arterial pressure
    "rise
  333. "in an aortic pressure recording, a gradual upstroke with a prominent low anacrotic notch is indicative"
  334. left ventricular mass is determined angiographically from measuring the heart wall thickness during what stage of the cardiac cycle
    end diastole
  335. what is the BEST indicator of the exact moment the aortic and pulmonary valves open
    beginning of systolic rise on the arterial pressure
  336. overdrive suppression of torsade de pointes and atrial flutter works by pacing the heart ________ faster than the intrinsic HR
    10-40 beats/min
  337. cardiac myxomas are usually located in the
    left atrium
  338. which of the following may be caused by rapid accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac
    atrioventricular gradient
  339. what will markedly elevate right ventricular systolic pressure suggest
    infundibular stenosis
  340. if a pt has a large s-wave in lead I and a large R-wave in V-5 you might suspect
    LVH
  341. "if T-wave sensing occurs in ventricular demand or synchronous pacing, what must be done to the programmable generator"
  342. "arterial pressure drops with inspiration, while RV pressure increases"
  343. anacrotic notch characteristic of
    AS
  344. "in pts with debilitating a-fib that is unsatisfactorily treated with med. Or anti-tachy pacing, the cardiologist may decide to ""ablate & pace"" this involves"
  345. elective cardioversion via R2 pads for a-fib should start at a minimun of joules
    100
  346. synchronized cardioversion delivered during the QRS complex is used for all cardioversion except
    rapid ventricular tachycardias
  347. radio freq ablation works to slow or terminate tachy _____
    reentry
  348. the RF signal destroys myocardial tissue by
    heating it
  349. what medication helps electrical cardioversion of a fib (to NSR)
    ibutilide
  350. what does a magnet do when applied to a pt's ICD
    inhibits the tachy (shocking) portion of the icd
  351. "during ICD testing after implant how is vf induced"
  352. when programming a pt's ICD how high should you set the defibrillation output level
    10 joules safety margin
  353. with ICD's the lowest energy that achieves successful defibrillation is termed
    defibrillation threshold (DFT)
  354. when cardioverting or defibrillating most modern ICD's utilize RA coils & Left pectoral generator cam as the _________
    positive electrode
  355. cardioversion from an ICD may be painful to the pt. one method to reduce this discomfort in ventricular tachy pt with ICD's is to
    incorporate anti-tachy pacing (ATP)
  356. current ICD's use high efficiency cardioversion & defibrillaton. The most efficient shock waveforms are
    biphasic waveforms
  357. Most ICD sensing electrodes are biopolar transvenous _______electrodes
    rv
  358. the only shunt NOT normally present in the fetus just prior to birth is the
    ostium primum
  359. outflow tract of the rv =
    infundibulum
  360. aortic dicrotic notch marks the beginnng of ventricular
    isometric relaxation
  361. "which part of the automomic system is termed ""chlinergic"" and when stimulated how does it effect the heart rate."
    parasympathetic- slows it down
  362. greatest expenditure of O2 during cardiac cycle is used to
    open the aortic valve(isometric contraction)
  363. the anterior cerebral artery feeds the
    midbrain
  364. normal fetal pathways between aorta & pa can be described as a R-L shunt termed the
    patent ductus arteriosus
  365. intrinsic ability of the heart to contract with a particular intensity is termed
    inotropism
  366. arterioles are the principal point where _________resistance develops
    vascular
  367. with exercise PA 02 saturations_____ and the (AO-PA) arteriovenous difference ________ .
  368. flap of tissue at the junction of the IVC & the RA normally found in the fetal heart is the
    Eustachian valve
  369. in normal fetal life the foramen ovale is situated to preferentailly shunt oxgenated blood from the
    IVC
  370. congenital defect results from the failure of the normal separation of the aorta & pulmonary artery
    truncus arteriolsus
  371. what syndrome is fainting due to insufficient cerebral blood flow
    adams stokes attack
  372. tetralogy of fallot-there exists a systolic pressure gradient between what 2 cardiac chambers or vessels
    RV & PA
  373. congntial defects is usually acyanotic is
    PDA
  374. normal situs on PA chest x-ray shows
    "left sided stomach bubble, right side hepatic shadow
  375. mitral valve=pansystolic murmur and is heard at the
    apex of the heart
  376. children ebsteins's anomally=
    ASD
  377. kawasaki's disease in children =
    coronary artery aneurysms
  378. aortic stenosis is classified as what type of disease
    outflow obstructive
  379. HOCM is associated with
    myocardial fiber disarray
  380. ventricular myopathy associated with amyloidosis
    restrictive cardiomyopathy
  381. "considering all shocks, only one results in an elevated wedge pressure"
  382. the ventricles are incorrectly positioned on the right side of chest is
    dextrocardia
  383. cardiac situs solitus is
    normal cardiac position
  384. is a vacular tumor of chromaffin tissue of the adrenal medulla
    pheochromocytoma
  385. how is the initial V-V programming of a new biventricular pacemaker optimized
    echocardiogram, minimize septal wall motion and maximze Doppler VTI
  386. it is important in the 6-8 hours after coronary angiography for pt's to drink
    41-2 quart of fluid
  387. what tumor causes increased epinephine release often leading to HTN
    pheochroomocytoma

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