Fire Investigator

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izzick
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15839
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Fire Investigator
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2013-04-12 09:51:25
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fire investigator
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Investigator state exam notes
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  1. NFPA publication used to record fire investigative field notes
    NFPA 906
  2. Before release of information to the public, approval should be obtained by whom?
    Public information officer or local fire marshal
  3. Read the following statements and select your answer:

    Statement 1: A physical barrier provides scene security.

    Statement 2: A physical barrier provides a starting place for the scene search.

    Statement 3: Rope, traffic cones, or market barrier tape can be used to create a physical barrier.

    a) All three statements are true

    b) Statement 1 is true; statements 2 and 3 are false

    c) Statement 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false

    d) Statement 1 and 3 are true; statement 2 is false
    a) All three statements are true
  4. Spontaneous heating
    Heating of an organic substance without an external heat source
  5. Prime hazard of an oxidizer under fire conditions
    Yield oxygen to enhance combustion
  6. Heat can travel through a burning building by one or more of three methods, commonly referred to as:
    Conduction, radiation, and convection
  7. Fire investigator should be extremely cautious when:
    There is lack of physical evidence to support the cause of an incendiary fire; or using subjective opinions to support the cause of an incendiary fire.
  8. To formulate an opinion of the person who is setting fires, one should look at three principal trends:
    Materials and method, temporal frequency, and geographic area
  9. Arson motive that commonly involves using only fuels incidental to the scene as opposed to accelerants brought along by the perpetrator:
    Vandalism
  10. Motive
    The cause, reason, or incentive that induces specific behavior.
  11. Intent
    Performed with malice to destroy property.
  12. Timed opportunity
    An act that coincides with another circumstance permitting successful destruction of property.
  13. Temporal frequency
    The setting of fires at a particular time and day of the week.
  14. Incendiary fire
    A deliberately set fire
  15. Trailers
    A distribution of a fuel from one area to another
  16. Delay devices
    Used to set fires over a longer period of time for alibi/scene escape
  17. Unusual fire load
    A large amount of flammables arranged to support fire growth and development
  18. Motive that accounts for the largest percent of total arson problem
    Revenge
  19. Best suited location for an arsonist's destructive goal
    Basement
  20. Sophisticated timing and ignition devices are most likely to be used when the motive for arson is:
    Terrorism
  21. Read the following statements and select your answer:

    1: Open doors are the most common method of fire travel through a structure.

    2: Sabotage to fire or smoke doors can increase fire and smoke spread througout a structure.

    3: Stairway doors propped open are always a good indicator of sabotage.

    a) All three statements are true

    b) 1 and 2 are true and 3 is false

    c) 2 and 3 are true and 1 is false

    d) 2 is true and 1 and 3 are false
    b) 1 and 2 are true and 3 is false
  22. Type of sabotage to fire protection systems that will require determining the design limitations of the systems
    Setting multiple fires
  23. Accidental
    Not a deliberate act
  24. Natural
    No human intervention
  25. Undetermined
    Cause cannot be proven
  26. Incendiary
    Deliberate act
  27. An accidental fire is one:
    Where the proven cause does not involve a deliberate human act
  28. The cause of a fire may be classified as:
    Accidental, natural, incendiary, or undetermined
  29. Motive for arson that juveniles and adolescents are most likely to have:
    Excitement, attention, or recognition
  30. 8 gauge wire
    40 amps
  31. 10 gauge wire
    30 amps
  32. 12 gauge wire
    20 amps
  33. 14 gauge wire
    15 amps
  34. In conducting a fire investigation where electricity is suspected of being the cause, the investigator should examine the service panel for all of the following except:

    a) oversized fuses

    b) color coding of conductors

    c) a penny behind fuse

    d) corrosion of components

    e) loose connections
    b) color coding of conductors
  35. If a section of wire between the suspected area and the supply can be found, the condition of the ___________ can provide some useful information.
    Conductor
  36. Electrical heat energy in the form of an arc between oppositely charged conductors best defines:
    Static electricity
  37. Heat that is created by passing an electrical force through a conductor defines:
    Resistance heating
  38. Long-lived events in which the fault current is not high enough to trip the circuit overcurrent protection is called:
    High resistance faults
  39. Arc
    High temperature luminous electric discharge across a gap or through a medium
  40. Parting arcs
    Brief discharge that occurs as an energized electrical path is opened while current is flowing
  41. Sparks
    Luminous particles that can be formed when an arc melts metal and spatters particles away from the point of arcing
  42. Static electricity
    Stationary charge that builds upon some objects
  43. An abnormal connection of low resistance between normal circuit conductors where the resistance is normally much greater is called a(n):
    Short circuit
  44. The search of an explosion scene requires that the searchers be briefed in the proper procedures for identifying, logging, photographing, __________, and ____________ the location of the evidence.
    marking, mapping
  45. Recognition
    Assessment of blast damage (location, intensity, and direction)
  46. Recovery
    Collecting, documenting, and preserving evidence
  47. Reassembly
    Piecing the device or mechanism together
  48. Reconstruction
    Drawing a "picture" of the scenario
  49. The ignitability of any dust-air mixture is based on:
    Size of particles, impurities in the mixture, and strength of ignition source
  50. Combustible dusts present a unique hazard because of their ability to form _________ mixtures within an enclosure.
    Explosive
  51. Two major types of explosions with which investigators are routinely involved are:
    Mechanical and chemical
  52. The terms __________-order and ___________-order have been used to characterize explosion damage.
    Low, high
  53. Gases with vapor density of less than one will:
    Rise and concentrate at the high points of confinement
  54. __________ diagrams can be used to show the direction of fire travel.
    Vector
  55. The type of diagram that uses arrows to depict an investigator's interpretation of flame or heat spread is commonly referred to as a(n) __________ diagram.
    Vector
  56. The most common hazard associated with cooking equipment is:
    The potential for ignition of nearby combustibles
  57. The purpose of fire scene reconstruction is to recreate as nearly as possible the state that existed prior to the fire, allowing the investigator to:
    Make a more accurate origin analysis
  58. 1. The flame temperatures of an oxygen/gas mixture are always above the ignition temperature of common combustibles.

    2. Gas appliances are probably less often the cause of fires than is generally assumed.

    3. Only the combination of a fire pattern near the appliance and the finding of a malfunction, improper installation, or defect can be considered as proof of it being the fire's origin.

    a) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    b) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    c) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

    d) All three statements are true
    d) All three statements are true
  59. One way in which a gas furnace or dryer is likely to initiate a fire:
    Simultaneous failure of the thermostat and the high limit control
  60. When the area of origin is identified, all potential ignition sources should be:
    Located and identified
  61. Which statement about "V" patterns is correct?

    a) A narrow angle "V" is produced by a fast burning fire.

    b) A wide angle "V" is produced by a slow burning fire.

    c) The value of these patterns lies in the direction of spread that they depict, not what caused them.

    d) The "inverted cone" displays lines of heat demarcation emanating from the ceiling.
    c) The value of these patterns lies in the direction of spread that they depict, not what caused them.
  62. The inspection and evaluation of the fire scene for the determination process and location of the point or area of origin involves the coordination of information derived from:
    A hypothesized analysis of the physics and chemistry of the fire, witness statements, and observations of the physical marks left by the fire
  63. Constructing a depth-of-char grid diagram and plotting on graph paper to show points of equal char depths may display:
    Identifiable lines of demarcation
  64. The preliminary scene assessment of how a fire spreads through a structure is developed by noting the areas of _________ and ___________, and attempting to track the fire _________.
    Lesser destruction, greater destruction, back to its point of origin
  65. A fire investigator should begin searching for the area of origin by examining:
    The exterior of the fire scene first
  66. The lead agency during a terrorist emergency (crisis management) is the:
    FBI
  67. Upon arrival at a hazardous material incident involving a truck, you locate the 4-digit ID number on an orange panel. You should look first in the Emergency Response Guidebook for guidance in the:
    Yellow bordered section
  68. When using the Emergency Response Guidebook, the next step the first responder should follow after learning a material's 3-digit guide number is to:
    Go to the orange bordered section
  69. In the ERG, a first responder would expect to find the highlighted entries indicating that a material is either a toxic inhalation hazard or a dangerous water reactive material in the:
    Yellow and blue bordered sections
  70. Upon arrival to a hazardous material incident involving a truck, you learn it is carrying magnesium scrap. You are unable to obtain the 4-digit ID number. Where should you look first in the ERG for guidance?
    In the blue bordered material index section
  71. The isolation distance in the numbered guides is to be used:
    Once the 3 digit guide number has been obtained through the ID number or material name indexes.
  72. First responders trained to the Awareness level have the ability to:
    Realize the need for additional resources and make the appropriate notifications.
  73. The mission of the first responder trained to the awareness level includes all of the following except:

    a) Recognizing the presence of hazardous materials

    b) Surveying the incident from a close proximity to determine the identity of the material involved.

    c) Isolating the area of the emergency and preventing entry by unauthorized persons.

    d) Calling for the appropriate help to mitigate the incident.
    b) Surveying the incident from a close proximity to determine the identity of the material involved.
  74. If, in using the ERG, a first responder discovers the entry for the material in question is highlighted and there is no fire involved, the first responder should go directly to the:
    Green bordered section
  75. When providing emergency medical care to victims of a hazardous materials incident:
    The patient should be removed from the contaminated area at which time basic care and decontamination can begin.
  76. Upon arriving on the scene of a 55 gallon drum leaking an unknown liquid, you notice a flammable liquid placard. After referring to your ERG, you are directed to guide number 127. You would expect to find the Emergency Action for a spill or leak in the section which is bordered:
    Orange
  77. The Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances in the ERG is divided into "small spills" and "large spills." The DOT defines a small spill as a leaking container, smaller than:
    55 gallons
  78. A first responder must refer to the Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances in the ERG:
    Whenever the material entry in the Idenification Number and Name Indexes is highlighted and fire is not involved.
  79. Of the following, which are the prescribed shapes of the recommended initial isolation and protective action zones?

    a) A circle for the initial isolation zone with an elongation of it downwind side for the protective action zone.

    b) A circle for the initial isolation zone with an elongation of it outward toward the upwind side for the protective action zone.

    c) A rectangle for the initial isolation zone elongating toward the downwind side.

    d) A square for the initial isolation zone, expanding in all four directions as needs dictate for the protective action zone.
    a) A circle for the initial isolation zone with an elongation of it downwind side for the protective action zone.
  80. One of the roles of the first responder at the awareness level during a Hazmat incident is to:
    Isolate the area
  81. Of the following, which is not a responsibility of the individual trained to the awareness level?

    a) Establish the decon corridor

    b) Call for appropriate assistance

    c) Protect themselves

    d) Isolate the area
    a) Establish the decon corridor
  82. Typical ignition sources found at the scene of a hazardous material incident would include all of the following except:

    a) Chemical light sticks

    b) Hand lights

    c) Radios

    d) Lighting equipment
    a) Chemical light sticks
  83. Copies of the local emergency response plan (LERP) must be made available to:
    All first responders
  84. The route of exposure that is the most commonly associated with causing ill effects, both acute and chronic, is:
    Inhalation
  85. __________ is the process of taking in materials through the skin or eyes.
    Absorption
  86. The colleciton of evidence at a terrorist event is primarily the responsibility of:
    Law enforcement
  87. Thermal hazard
    Excessive heat or excessive cold
  88. Asphyxiation hazard
    Can lead to suffication and may be either simple or chemical
  89. Etiological hazard
    Exposure to a micro-organism or its toxin
  90. Which of the following is/are potential ignition sources found at the scenes of hazardous materials incidents?

    a) Radios, hand lights, pagers

    b) Heated surfaces

    c) Static electricity

    d) All of the above
    d) All of the above
  91. Of the 62 guides found in the orange bordered section of the ERG, only two, Guides 161 and 162, (low level and low to moderate level radiation) list _________ as providing adequate protection for first responders.
    SCBA and structural firefighter's protective clothing
  92. Scene control at a terrorism incident may present unique challenges for the responders. In particular, responders must be aware that:
    The terrorist may be on scene waiting for responders to arrive before striking again.
  93. When determining initial isolation distances for incidents involving explosive devices, it is best for responders to:
    Understand that recommended isolation distances should be considered only as a guide.
  94. Isolate hazard area and deny entry
    Keeping everyone not directly involved in the emergency operation away from the affected area
  95. Evacuate
    Moving everyone from a threatened area to a safer area
  96. In-place protection
    Having people remain inside a building rather than moving them to another area.
  97. The general routes of entry for human exposure to hazardous materials are:
    Inhalation, ingestion, absorption, and injection.
  98. The statement: "People inside a building should remain inside until the danger passes," best describes:
    Shelter in place
  99. The recommended shape of the initial isolation zone around a chemical spill or release is:
    Circular
  100. When using the Table of Isolation Distances in the ERG, a large spill is defined as a quanity greater than:
    55 gallons
  101. One resource that deals with protective action distances involving poisonous gas, is the:
    DOT Emergency Response Guidebook
  102. The recommended course of action for fighting a small fire involving a substance identified by the UN/NA ID number 2553 would be found in the _________ section of the ERG.
    Orange
  103. If a numbered guide for a transported hazardous material cannot be obtained by following the three steps outlined on page 1 of the DOT ERG, the first responder should:
    See if the placard is visible, refer to the Table of Placards section of the Guidebook.
  104. Which section of the ERG provides the fire, explosion, and health hazard information for the material identified by the first responder?
    Orange
  105. The DOT Hazard Class 9 consists of:
    Miscellaneous
  106. The DOT Hazard Class 7 consists of:
    Radioactive substances
  107. The DOT Hazard Class 6 consists of:
    Poisons
  108. The DOT Hazard Class 5 consists of:
    Oxidizers
  109. The DOT Hazard Class 4 consists of:
    Flammable solids
  110. The DOT Hazard Class 3 consists of:
    Flammable liquids
  111. The DOT Hazard Class 2 consists of:
    Gases
  112. The DOT Hazard Class 1 consists of:
    Explosives
  113. Using the DOT ERG, the hazard class number assigned for vinyl chloride with the ID #1086 is:
    2
  114. The chemicals listed in highlighted type in the ERG were selected because:
    They present a poison inhalation hazard.
  115. When referring to the ERG, if a chemical name is not highlighted, the next step is to preceed to the _________ section.
    Orange
  116. If a chemical name is highlighted in the ERG, the table of initial isolation and protective action distances are found in the _________ section.
    Green
  117. If a placard is visible, but no product name or four digit UN number is given, how can you determine which guide page of the ERG to use?
    The table of placards lists guide numbers.
  118. The DOT Hazard Class 8 consists of:
    Corrosives
  119. The primary hazard of a DOT Hazard Class 5 material is:
    Oxidation
  120. 1: A Material Safety Data Sheet provides the name the chemical company uses to identify the product.

    2: The product name is not always identical to the chemical name, as listed on a MSDS.

    3: The listing of product names, chemical names, and synonyms on MSDS can make identifying chemicals sometimes confusing.

    a) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    b) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    c) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

    d) All three are true
    d) All three are true.
  121. T/F: Hazardous materials that are manufactured, stored, processed, or used at a particular site are not subject to regulations affecting transported materials.
    True
  122. The complexity of transport regulations is compounded by several agencies having overlapping responsibilities. All of the following agencies are involved in the regulation of hazardous materials and/or wastes except the:

    a) Department of Transportation (DOT)

    b) Department of Energy (DOE)

    c) Transport Development Group (TDG)

    d) Chemical Transportation Energy Center (CHEMTREC)
    d) CHEMTREC
  123. 1: The blue section of the ERG lists the shipping names of hazardous materials.

    2: Shipping names are always identical to the chemical names of materials.

    3: It is important to know the proper spelling of the shipping name of a material before referencing the ERG.

    a) All three are true

    b) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    c) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

    d) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false
    d) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false
  124. Which of the following examples of hazardous materials would be classified and placarded Class 9 during transportation?

    a) Molten sulfur, PCBs

    b) Gasoline, kerosene

    c) Ammonium nitrate, ethyl ketone peroxide

    d) Anhydrous ammonia, phosgene
    a) Molten sulfur, PCBs
  125. Cylindrical or box-like cask packaging made of rigid metal that is designed for performance under hypothetical accident conditions best describes Type ________ radioactive packaging.
    B
  126. Which of the following would not be used to determine the name of a hazardous material located in a facility?

    a) NFPA 704 diamond

    b) DOT ERG

    c) Labels

    d) MSDS
    a) NFPA 704 diamond
  127. Given the product name, you can find the four digit UN/DOT number assigned by referencing all the following except:

    a) Shipping papers

    b) ERG

    c) MSDS

    d) NFPA 704
    d) NFPA 704
  128. 1: Examples of nerve agents are sarin, soman, and V agent.

    2: Nerve agents were designed with only one purpose in mind: to kill people

    3: Nerve agents are very effective due to their high vapor pressure, which allows them to readily vaporize.

    a) 1 is false; 2 and 3 are true

    b) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    c) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false

    d) All three statements are true
    b) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
  129. 1: Biological agents are very easy for terrorist to distribute effectively.

    2: The two most popular biological agents among terrorist are anthrax and ricin.

    3: Biological agents are the easiest warfare agent classification for terrorists to make.

    a) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

    b) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    c) 3 is true; 1 and 2 are false

    d) All three statements are true.
    a) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
  130. 1: Victims have lost control of their bowels - you suspect a nerve agent.

    2: Victims complain of not feeling well after inhaling an airborne white powder a few days earlier - you suspect a biological agent.

    3: Victims are exhibiting pinpoint pupils, runny noses and difficulty breathing - you suspect a biological agent.

    a) 1 is false; 2 and 3 are true

    b) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    c) 1 and 2 are false; 3 is true

    d) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
    b) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
  131. Using the nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC) classification, which of the following is not considered a chemical warfare agent?

    a) Sarin

    b) Mustard

    c) Ricin

    d) Tabun
    c) Ricin
  132. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of exposure to a nerve agent at a Hazmat or suspected terrorism incident?

    a) Eye and respiratory irritation

    b) Dizziness and difficulty in breathing

    c) Loss of bladder control and vomitting

    d) Fever and muscle tenderness
    c) Loss of bladder control and vomitting
  133. 1: Federal public buildings are prime targets for terrorist attacks.

    2: Social Security buildings would be an exception to 1.

    3: Virtualy all terrorist attacks are directed toward public buildings.

    a) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    b) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false

    c) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    d) All three statements are true
    c) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
  134. Blister agents belong in which category of warfare agents under the CBRNE classification?
    Chemical
  135. The acronym SLUDGEM is used to describe the signs and symptoms of exposure to which of the warfare agents?
    Nerve agents
  136. 1: Nerve agents were designed for one purpose: to kill people.

    2: Blood and choking agents, while being terrorism agents, are also common industrial chemicals.

    3: Biological agents are the easiest of the categories of warfare agents to make.

    a) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    b) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    c) 1 is false; 2 and 3 are true

    d) All three statements are true
    d) All three statements are true
  137. Easiest biological or chemical agent for a terrorist to make:
    Ricin
  138. Using the NBC classification, which of the following is not considered a biological warfare agent?

    a) Mycotoxins

    b) Tularemia

    c) Plague

    d) Soman
    d) Soman
  139. In the course of extinguishing a small fire in an unoccupied house, you discover the presence of chemicals and lab equipment, an indicator of possible illegal activity. According to statistics, the most likely illegal activity occurring is:
    Drug making
  140. While extinguishing a small fire in an unoccupied house, you discover a lab setup and numerous types of raw materials. There is particularly a large amount of powders. What type of illegal activity might be occurring here?
    Explosive manufacturing
  141. You arrived on the scene of an incident involving an explosion. People in the immediate vicinity are all experiencing runny noses and difficulty breathing. Some are having convulsions. You suspect a terrorist incident involving a:
    Nerve agent
  142. The senses which are acceptable for use in hazmat detection are:
    Vision and hearing
  143. 1: There are numerous informal ways to recognize the presence of hazardous materials.

    2: Using the senses of sight, sound, and odor is one of the informal ways of recognizing the presence of hazardous materials.

    3: Using the human senses indiscriminately to detect the presence of hazardous materials, while fairly reliable, is unsafe.

    a) All three statements are true

    b) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    c) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    d) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
    c) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
  144. Which of the following is not an indication of a physical action?

    a) Activated pressure-relief devices

    b) Pinging or popping of heat exposed vessels

    c) Wavy vapors over the surface of a liquid puddle

    d) Wavy vapors over water surfaces
    d) Wavy vapors over water surfaces
  145. Where would a first responder expect to find an air bill?
    Cockpit
  146. Where would a first responder expect to find a waybill or consist?
    Engine or caboose
  147. Where would a first responder expect to find a dangerous cargo manifest?
    Bridge or pilot house
  148. Who is responsible for care and control of an air bill?
    Pilot
  149. Who is responsible for care and control of a dangerous cargo manifest?
    Captain or master
  150. Who is responsible for care and control of a bill of lading?
    Driver
  151. Air bill - mode of transport
    Air
  152. Bill of lading - mode of transport
    Highway
  153. Dangerous cargo manifest - mode of transport
    Water
  154. Waybill/consist - mode of transport
    Rail
  155. Person responsible for shipping papers during air transport:
    Pilot
  156. Person responsible for shipping paper during rail transport:
    Conductor
  157. Person responsible for shipping papers during highway transport:
    Driver
  158. Person responsible for shipping papers during water transport:
    Captain or master
  159. Bill of lading - location
    Cab of vehicle
  160. Waybill/consist - location
    Engine or caboose
  161. Dangerous cargo manifest - location
    Wheelhouse, bridge or pipe-like container (on a barge)
  162. Air bill - location
    Cockpit
  163. 1: When carrying hazardous materials, a transportation mode must carry shipping papers.

    2: Shipping papers may include a packing group number listed as I, II, or III.

    3: The higher the packing group number, the more dangerous the chemical.

    a) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    b) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    c) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

    d) All three are true
    b) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
  164. 1: If placards are clearly displayed on the transportation mode, shipping papers are not required.

    2: If a transportation mode is not carrying hazardous materials, there is no requirement for specific information to be provided on shipping papers.

    3: Shipping papers must contain the proper name of the chemical or its hazard class.

    a) All three are true

    b) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    c) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false

    d) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
    d) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
  165. Of the following, which is the quickest available source of MSDS for first responders at a hazmat emergency?

    a) The supplier of the material

    b) The Local Emergency Planning Committee

    c) CHEMTREC

    d) OSHA
    c) CHEMTREC
  166. Which of the following agencies regulates pipelines that carry hazardous materials across state borders, navigable waterways, and federal lands?

    a) EPA (Environmental Protection Agency)

    b) DOT (Department of Transportation)

    c) CERCLA (Comprehensive Envirionmental Response Compensation & Liability Act)

    d) FEMA (Federal Emergency Management Association)
    b) DOT
  167. Where are pipeline owners required to place pipeline markings (and first responders can expect to find them)?
    At any place the underground pipline crosses a mode of transportation
  168. The manufacturing and labeling of pesticides is regulated by:
    EPA
  169. 1: EPA labels on pesticides must contain one of the signal words DANGER/POISON, WARNING, or CAUTION.

    2: The word WARNING is used on labeling for packages containing highly toxic materials.

    3: The signal words EXTREMELY FLAMMABLE are also displayed if package contents have a flash point below 80oF

    a) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    b) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    c) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false

    d) All three are true
    c) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false
  170. 1: In urban or suburban locales, hazardous materials can be found in service stations, hardware stores, and doctor's offices.

    2: In rural areas, hazardous materials can be found in agricultural stores or co-ops, farm buildings, and residences.

    3: The size of a community determines the potential for hazardous materials.

    a) All three are true

    b) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    c) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    d) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
    c) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
  171. With respect to the U.S. Military Marking System for Hazardous Materials, which of the following is not one of the three special hazard symbols?

    a) Apply No Water (bucket of water being thrown onto a fire with a diagonal slash within a circle)

    b) Apply No Dry Chemical (fire extinguisher discharging chemical onto a fire with a diagonal slash within a circle)

    c) Chemical Hazard (person in an encapsulated suit within a circle)

    d) Wear Protective Mask or Breathing Apparatus ( person's face with a protective mask in place within a circle)
    b) Apply No Dry Chemical (fire extinguisher discharging chemical onto a fire with a diagonal slash within a circle)
  172. Hazardous Material
    A substance or material, including a hazardous substance, that has been determined by the Secretary of Transportation to be capable of posing an unresonable risk to health, safety, and property when transported in commerce
  173. Hazardous Waste
    Any material that is subject to the Hazardous Waste Manifest Requirements of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency
  174. Hazardous Chemical
    Any chemical that is a physical hazard or health hazard
  175. Extremely Hazardous Substance
    Any chemical that must be reported to the appropriate authorities if released above the threshold report quanity
  176. Factors that should raise your awareness of possible terrorism involvement:
    • Occupancy or location
    • Type of event
    • Timing of event
    • On-scene warning signs
  177. Some of the on-scene warning signs that may be present in a terrorist event involving chemical or biological agents are:
    • Unexplained patterns of illnesses or death
    • Unexplained signs and symptoms of skin, eye, or airway irritation
    • Recognizable odors and/or taste
    • Unexplained vapor clouds, mist, and plumes
  178. Occupancy or location types that would be considered a possible target for terrorism:
    • Symbolic and historic sites
    • Controversial businesses
    • Public buildings or assembly areas
    • Infrastructure systems
  179. Which of the following events should raise your awareness of possible terrorism involvement?

    a) Warehouse fire

    b) Tanker truck accident

    c) Ruptured drum

    d) Non-trauma mass casualty incident
    d) Non-trauma mass casualty incident
  180. Which of the following is not required on a pipeline marker?

    a) Pipeline contents

    b) Pipeline depth underground

    c) Pipeline owner

    d) Emergency contact number
    b) Pipeline depth underground
  181. In general, as compared to the standard emergency incident faced by a first responder, a Haz Mat incident will:
    Be more complex
  182. In which of the following locations would you expect to encounter hazardous materials?

    a) Private residences

    b) Doctor's offices

    c) Hardware stores

    d) All of the above
    d) All of the above
  183. Which of the following is not a signal word found on pesticide labels?

    a) Danger

    b) Warning

    c) Toxic

    d) Caution
    c) Toxic
  184. Danger
    High toxicity
  185. Caution
    Relatively low toxicity
  186. Warning
    Moderate toxicity
  187. Shipping papers are referred to as __________ and usually stored __________, in air transport.
    Air bills; in the cockpit
  188. The person responsible for control of the air bill papers is the:
    Pilot
  189. During transport, the party responsible for the waybill should be the:
    Conductor
  190. Toxic substances that are living materials or are obtained from living organisms are called:
    Biological agents
  191. During the recognition and identification of a facility, the firefighter should utilize the NFPA 704 system to identify the:
    Flammability of the material
  192. __________ is placed on highway transport vehicles to identify the contents.
    A placard
  193. A tractor trailer hauling gasoline should display a placard with the Hazard Class:
    Red; 3
  194. During a suspected terrorist event, the outward warning indicator(s) that responders should be alert to is/are:
    Strong chemical odors without apparent reason

    Unexplained patterns of illness or death

    Unusual containers that are out-of-place with the surroundings
  195. A substance that readily yields oxygen to support combustion of fuels would be labeled __________ under the UN Labeling System.
    5
  196. The number __________ would be shown in the Flammability Quadrant of the NFPA 704 System for a material that must be moderately heated before ignition can occur and on which water spray may be used to extinguish a fire.
    2
  197. A document developed by the manufacturer listing specific hazards of a product is called:
    The Materials Safety Data Sheet
  198. Under SARA Title III, some facilities are required to have MSDS information. The primary consideration in determining whether a facility is required to have MSDS information is whether the facility:
    Has chemicals that are not consumer quantities
  199. According to the NFPA 704 System, the most dangerous chemical would have a placard showing which of the following number sets?

    a) 4, 4, 2

    b) 3, 2, 1

    c) 0, 2, 4

    d) 3, 3, 2
    a) 4, 4, 2
  200. The least likely location for terrorist activity of the following choices is:

    a) Public assembly

    b) Mass transit systems

    c) Telecommunication facilities

    d) A remote government facility in a rural area
    d) A remote government facility in a rural area
  201. In using the various clues for detecting the presence of hazardous materials, the use of _________ would be considered the most dangerous.
    The sense of smell
  202. The NFPA 704 System indicates hazardous materials as:
    Potential dangers
  203. Placards that contain the DOT Class number 6 at the bottom identify a material that may be an infectious substance hazard.

    True/False
    True
  204. The DOT Hazard Class 6 includes all of the following except:

    a) Liquid poisons

    b) Infectious substances

    c) Poison solids

    d) Poison gases
    d) Poison gases
  205. The DOT Hazard Class 1 includes:
    Explosives
  206. The DOT Hazard Class 2 includes:
    Flammable gases, Non-flammable gases, Non-toxic gases, and Toxic gases
  207. The primary hazard of an oxidizer in a fire is its ability to:
    Accelerate combustion
  208. The NFPA 704 System provides the:
    General hazard information
  209. A tractor trailer carrying 975 lbs of organic peroxides, other than Type B, requires:

    a) A white placard

    b) An orange placard

    c) A yellow placard

    d) No placard
    d) No placard
  210. When referring to the U.S. Military Marking System, if a circle with a symbol of a person wearing a mask is seen, it is necessary to assume that:
    A protective mask or breathing apparatus must be used
  211. The placard shown indicates that the material is considered to be:

    Poisonous
  212. An explosive with a fragment hazard is denoted by the U.S. Military Marking System as a:
    #2 in an X
  213. Referring to the U.S. Military Marking System for Hazardous Materials, the symbol for a mass fire hazard is:
    #3 in a triangle
  214. Referring to the U.S. Military Marking System for Hazardous Materials, an octagon shaped placard with a #1 on it denotes a:
    Mass detonation
  215. The background color of a placard that would signify a poisonous substance hazard and that contains a skull and crossbones is:
    White
  216. Physical data, chemical name, exposure limits, health hazard data, and special precautions are all parts of the:
    Material Safety Data Sheet
  217. Of the references listed below, the most specific source of information on a hazardous material is/are:

    a) DOT Emergency Response Guidebook

    b) MSDS

    c) DOT Placard

    d) NFPA 704 System
    b) MSDS
  218. Within the UN System, a container labeled with a Hazard Class 4 conatins a:
    Flammable solid, Spontaneously combustible material, or Water-reactive substance/Dangerous when wet material


  219. Cable from meter
    A


  220. Main disconnects
    B


  221. Ground or neutral wire
    C


  222. Single breaker
    D


  223. Pair or double breaker
    E


  224. Grounded water pipe
    F
  225. Using the DOT Labeling System, a flammable liquid would receive a hazard classification of:
    3
  226. A container of flammable solids would receive a UN Label or placard with a hazardous classification number of:
    4
  227. A substance that readily yields oxygen to support combustion of fuels would be labeled Hazard Class _________ under the UN Labeling System.
    5
  228. A Hazard Class 3 within the UN Labeling System indicates a _________ product.
    Flammable/combustible liquid
  229. In the NFPA 704 System, the quadrant dealing with reactivity is colored:
    Yellow
  230. The National Fire Proctection Association (NFPA) lists _________ as the standard for identifying chemical hazards of materials at fixed facilities.
    704
  231. In the NFPA 704 System of Identification, the diamond shaped placard used for fire hazard is always colored:
    Red



  232. Within the NFPA 704 system, position #4 is the information and degree of hazard relating to a chemical's:
    Special information (white) hazards



  233. Within the NFPA 704 system, position #3 is the information and degree of hazard relating to a chemical's:
    Reactiviy (yellow) hazard


  234. Identify direction of fire spread
    #1 upward fire direction; #2 downward fire direction


  235. Within the NFPA 704 system, position #1 is the information and degree of hazard relating to a chemical's:
    Health (blue) hazard


  236. Within the NFPA 704 system, position #2 is the information and degree of hazard relating to a chemical's:
    Flammability (red) hazard


  237. The placard illustration above represents which class hazard?
    Flammable Gas
  238. The DOT Placarding System requires a vehicle carrying nonflammable compressed gas to display a placard colored:
    Green


  239. The placard illustration above represents which hazard class?
    Flammable/combustible liquids


  240. The placard illustration above represents which hazard class?
    Corrosives


  241. The placard above illustrates which hazard class?
    Poison gas


  242. The placard above represents which hazard class?
    Radioactives


  243. The placard above represents which hazard class?
    Flammable solid


  244. The placard above illustrates which hazard class?
    Oxidizers
  245. The DOT Placarding System requires a vehicle carrying over 1001 lbs of corrosive to display a __________ placard.
    White over black
  246. On a placard, the number at the bottom of the diamond indicates the:
    UN Hazard Class


  247. The hazard class represented by the placard illustration above is:
    Explosives


  248. The hazard class that is represented by the placard illustration above is:
    Flammable solids
  249. Liquid or solid substances that emit toxic, dangerous, and irritating fumes are known as:
    Poisonous materials
  250. A type of gas that can be extremely toxic and is considered by the DOT to be a hazardous material is a(n):
    Poison gas


  251. The placard drawing above represents which hazard class?
    Nonflammable gas


  252. Letter A represents:
    Hazard Class Symbol


  253. Letter B represents:
    UN Product Identification Number


  254. Letter C represents:
    United Nations Hazard Class Number
  255. When transporting hazardous materials, the shipping papers should contain:
    • Emergency contact information
    • Proper name of shipped materials
    • Hazard class of the shipment
  256. True or false: Shipping papers are required to contain an entry for hazard classification according to DOT regulations.
    True
  257. Local emergency response personnel can gain valuable information if the __________ is utilized in preincident planning.
    MSDS
  258. Hazardous occupancies should be identified and evaluated:
    During preincident planning
  259. Using the human senses of smell or taste to determine the presence of a hazardous material is:
    Unreliable, unacceptable, and unsafe
  260. During an incident involving a train, you should look for the shipping papers in:
    The engine, the caboose, or the engineer's possession
  261. The normal location for the bill of lading is in the:
    Cab of the truck
  262. Care and control of the bill/consist is the responsibility of the:
    Train conductor/engineer
  263. A bill of lading contains valuable information about the origin of the product and is the type of shipping paper used when transporting a product via:
    Highway truck
  264. UN/DOT placards indicate general hazard recognition by:
    Giving the UN hazard class number
  265. For the materials in Hazard Class 8 (corrosive), a DOT placard is required if the gross weight is in excess of:
    1000 lbs
  266. The fact that a product is water reactive would be indicated in the __________ quadrant of the NFPA 704 System.
    White
  267. A white quadrant in the 6 o'clock position of the NFPA 704 System is used to indicate:
    Special hazards
  268. A number 4 in the blue quadrant of the NFPA 704 System indicates that there is ___________ risk in this category from the chemical involved.
    Severe
  269. The NFPA 704 System for identifying hazardous materials gives:
    General hazard and degree of severity
  270. The four digit number appearing on a placard or an orange panel of a tank car is the:
    UN product identification number
  271. All cylinders should be considered dangerous, regardless of what type of hazardous material it contains, because the contents are:
    Pressurized
  272. A major difference between a hazardous materials incident and other types of emergencies is the fact that hazmat incidents:
    Can be more complex
  273. Federal OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1200 and several states have required that local establishments keep a Material Safety Data Sheet on file when:
    Hazardous materials are used or stored on site
  274. Which of the package labels listed below indicates the highest radiation hazard?

    a) Radioactive White - I

    b) Radioactive Yellow - II

    c) Radioactive Yellow - III

    d) Radioactive Blue - III
    c) Radioactive Yellow - III
  275. 1: Section 304 requires reporting of releases of the extremely hazardous substances listed in section 302 of SARA, Title III.

    2: Releases resulting in an exposure to a person while at a fixed facility may be exempted from being reported.

    3: Private industry is exempt from notification and reporting requirements in regards to releases of hazardous substances.

    a) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false

    b) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

    c) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    d) 2 and 3 are false; 1 is true
    c) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
  276. All of the following information (to the extent known at the time) should be provided during the notifications except the:

    a) Cost estimate for clean up

    b) Chemical name

    c) Estimated of quantity released

    d) Time and duration of release

    e) Name and phone numbers of contacts for further information
    a) Cost estimate for clean up
  277. To protect themselves and others, first responders must be able to make a proper assessment. The most important part of an assessment is:
    Recognizing the presence of hazardous materials
  278. The steps that are taken to preserve the health and safety of emergency responders and the public during an incident involving releases of hazardous materials are called:
    Protective actions
  279. The two types of potential hazards found in each guide of the ERG are:
    Health and fire/explosion
  280. A reference book intended to be carried in every emergency vehicle in the United States is the:
    Emergency Response Guidebook
  281. When dealing with a radiological incident involving a leak or spill, what exposure guidelines should the hazmat first responder use to minimize radioactive contamination?
    Time, distance, and shielding
  282. Substances or materials in quantities or forms that may pose an unreasonable risk to health, safety, or property when transported, stored, or used in commerce is a definition of a:
    Hazardous material
  283. The investigator's personal health and safety requires special precautions when a fire scene involves:
    Chemical plants or concentrations of toxic chemicals, medical/biological hazards, or radiological hazards
  284. The investigator often encounters hazardous atmospheres on a fire or explosion scene. Prudent steps should be taken when such dangerous atmospheres are suspected including but not limited to:
    Testing the air using hazard detection instruments and avoiding the use of ignition sources such as flashlights, radios, and cameras
  285. The investigator must be cognizant of safe and effective crowd control at the scene. The scene should be secured by:
    Ropes and markings and assistance from police or fire department personnel
  286. The investigator must be cognizant of standing pools of water on the scene. They may contain:
    Debris that can cause tripping and falling; Dangerous objects that may cause injury; Deep water that is over the head of the investigator
  287. 1: The investigator should avoid operating switches or electrical equipment if flammable gases or vapors are suspected in the immediate area.

    2: Location of all underground utilities should be verified before beginning any site digging or excavation.

    3: Always use a meter to determine whether the electricity is off.

    a) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    b) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

    c) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    d) All three are true
    c) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
  288. 1: It is important that the fire investigator maintain close cooperation and communication with utility companies while conducting the investigation.

    2: Rubber footwear can be depended on as an insulator.

    3: Wires can be considered no longer "hot" once the meter has been disconnected.

    a) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    b) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

    c) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    d) All three are true
    a) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
  289. 1: The fire investigator should know the service status of all utilities before entering a structure.

    2: The fire investigator should consider all external and internal downed power lines as energized.

    3: The fire investigator has four methods available to reduce job risk.

    a) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    b) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

    c) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    d) All three statements are true.
    c) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
  290. A dangerously weakened structure should be:
    Shored in key areas such as load bearing walls, floors, ceilings, and roofs; Evaluated by experts to assess the degree of structural damage
  291. During preliminary activities, prior to entering a fire/explosive scene structure, the investigator should:
    Assess wind speed and possibility of approaching storms; Check for collections of suppression water, rain water, ice and snow; Seek experts to assess severe structural damage
  292. Before entering a structure or beginning debis removal, the investigator should assess the:
    Area for holes in the floor, loosely stacked debris or standing water/ice; Stability and safety of the structure
  293. An investigator entering a structure soon after the fire is believed to be extinguished should:
    Be alert to the possibility of rekindling; Be aware of the safest and fastest means of egress
  294. An investigator should never enter a burning structure unless:
    Accompanied by fire suppression personnel
  295. An investigator planning to enter a fire scene prior to complete extinguishment must first:
    Obtain permission from the incident commander
  296. Long periods of strenuous labor by investigators on a fire scene can lead to:
    Poor body coordination; Loss of strength; Inability of recognize and respond to hazardous conditions
  297. A common problem often encountered by an investigator on large major fire scenes is:
    Lack of rest, fluid replacement, and nourishment
  298. 1: Homes contain hazardous materials in several locations, which, in general, are well organized and easy to locate.

    2: Hazardous materials storage in commercial and business structures are generally better organized than in homes.

    3: Homes contain hazardous materials only in the garage and kitchen.

    a) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    b) 2 is true; 1 and 3 are false

    c) All three are true

    d) 1 and 3 are true, 2 is false
    b) 2 is true; 1 and 3 are false
  299. The investigator must be particularly aware when:
    Structural stability at the scene is unknown; The investigation is to be conducted above/below ground level; An action involves a personal safety risk
  300. The investigator should not attempt to use personal protective equipment or other saftey equipment without:
    Specialized or appropriate training
  301. Safety equipment and clothing should be worn by the investigator on the fire scene:
    At all times.
  302. An investigator should not work a fire scene alone. It is recommended that fire scene investigaions be conducted by the __________.
    Investigator and one other person
  303. 1: Rigor mortis is caused by chemical changes in muscle tissue.

    2: Rigor mortis passes after 12-24 hours leaving joints and muscles limber again.

    3: Rigidity of muscles caused by exposure to fire leaves the body in the same manner as rigor mortis.

    a) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    b) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    c) 1 is false; 2 and 3 are true

    d) All three are true
    b) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
  304. Reasons to prematurely remove a fire victim's body from the building are:
    Imminent collapse of the building; Uncontrollable fire in the immediate vicinity; There is a chance to resusitate the victim
  305. 1: If fire victims die rapidly (within seconds to a few hours) the cause is usually associated with heat, smoke, or carbon monoxide.

    2: Fire deaths occurring in the first few days following the fire usually involve shock or fluid loss.

    3: Fire deaths occurring several days to weeks after the fire usually are due to infections or organ failure.

    a) 2 is true; 1 and 3 are false

    b) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    c) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false

    d) All three are true
    d) All three are true
  306. Asphyxiation
    Caused by inhalation of toxic gases
  307. Anoxia
    Caused by oxygen depletion
  308. Hyperthermia
    Caused by exposure to high temperatures alone
  309. Burns
    Caused by incineration
  310. Internal edema
    Caused by inhalation of hot gases
  311. The best form of victim identification is:
    Dental X-rays
  312. The most predominant service to fire investigators that a laboratory provides is the analysis of fire debris to:
    Identify suspected volatile accelerants
  313. 1: During trial, all evidence submitted will be kept by the courts and is not a concern of the fire investigator.

    2: Once all appeals have been exhausted, the investigator may petition the court to destroy the evidence.

    3: A written record of authorization to dispose of the evidence should be kept.

    a) All three are true

    b) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    c) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false

    d) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
    d) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
  314. 1: Criminal cases such as arson require the evidence be kept until the case is adjudicated.

    2: Circumstances may require that evidence be retained for many years.

    3: Once all appeals have been exhausted, the investigator is free to dispose of the evidence.

    a) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    b) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    c) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

    d) All three are true
    a) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
  315. 1: An evidence log is a complete list of all items of evidence recovered from a fire scene.

    2: Items of evidence corresponding to the evidence log can be packaged, labeled, or tagged.

    3: Each person recovering evidence items must make their own entries into the log.

    a) All three are true

    b) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    c) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    d) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
    c) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
  316. No matter what kind of material is recovered or how carefully it is preserved, it is valueless as evidence if it has not been __________ and ___________ following the requirements for the chain of evidence.
    Maintained; documented properly
  317. __________ delivery minimizes the potential of physical evidence becoming damaged, misplaced, or stolen.
    Hand
  318. 1: Firefighting gloves should be used whenever possible to collect evidence samples at a fire scene.

    2: If latex gloves are used to collect samples, the gloves should be discarded after each use.

    3: Some fire investigators number their latex gloves and the evidence.

    a) All three are true

    b) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    c) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false

    d) 1 is false; 2 and 3 are true
    d) 1 is false; 2 and 3 are true
  319. At all times after its discovery and collection, physical evidence should be stored in a secure location that is designed and designated for this purpose. Whenever possible, this storage area should be controlled by the:
    Fire investigator
  320. For every negative, a record must be kept of any transfer to any person other than the authorized storer. This is referred to as:
    Chain of custody
  321. Steps for shipping physical evidence to a testing facility:
    1 - Choose an adequate cardboard box

    2 - Pack evidence securely in box

    3 - Seal the box and mark it as evidence

    4 - Place a copy of the transmittal letter in envelope and mark it "invoice"

    5 - Stick the envelope to the outside of the sealed box

    6 - Wrap the sealed box in outside wrapper and seal with gummed paper

    7 - Address the package to the appropriate testing facility
  322. If flammable liquids are suspected of having been used to accelerate a passenger compartment fire, samples should be collected from the remaining upholstery, carpet, and carpet padding. When such samples are collected, the investigator should also include:
    A comparision sample of the vehicle's fuel
  323. Physical State
    Whether evidence is a solid, liquid, or gas
  324. Physical Characteristics
    The size, shape, and weight of evidence
  325. Fragility
    Ease of damage, breakage, or altering of evidence
  326. Volatility
    How easiy evidence evaporates
  327. Preservation of evidence: fire debris with suspected accelerant
    New, unlined metal can or glass jar
  328. Preservation of evidence: glass fragments
    Box, paper bag, or envelope; seal to avoid movement
  329. Preservation of evidence: paper documents
    Manila envelope; do not fold; wrap securely
  330. The most commonly submitted form of evidence is __________ suspected of containing a residue of __________.
    Solid debris; volatile liquids
  331. It is recommended that containers used for collection of __________ and __________ accelerants be limited to __________ types.
    Liquid; Solid; Four
  332. Evidence can be collected at the fire scene by:
    - Police and fire investigators

    - Private investigators and insurance company representatives

    - Other individuals, including owners, occupants, and manufacturing representatives
  333. Traces of suspected accelerant liquids can be recovered from concrete by absorbing them into:
    Lime, flour, or diatomaceous earth
  334. Suspected chemical incendiary mixtures may be packaged in:
    Clean metal paint cans, polyester bags, or glass jars
  335. Action to be taken to preserve organic evidence collected at fire scene:
    Allow the material to air dry at room temperature, package in a clean paper container, and store in cool, dry, secure location
  336. Any physical or tangible item that tends to prove or disprove a particular fact or issue is referred to as:
    Physical evidence
  337. Most contamination of physical evidence occurs during:
    Collection
  338. While examining the scne of a kitchen fire, an investigator suspects that mechanical or electrical equipment is the source of ignition. What is the best option for laboratory anaysis?
    Collect or identify similar equipment to be used as a comparison sample
  339. 1: If the chain of custody is broken, it cannot be restored.

    2: If the chain of custody is broken, the evidence collected is valueless.

    3: The importance of the chain of custody to a successful fire investigation cannot be overemphasized.

    a) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false

    b) All three are true

    c) 3 is true; 1 and 2 are false

    d) 2 is true; 1 and 3 are false

    e) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
    b) All three are true
  340. 1: Traces of volatile liquids are likely to be found in areas of deep char or in the center of burned areas.

    2: Many furnishings contain synthetic materials that share the same petroleum-based origin as most accelerants.

    3: Control blanks of floor coverings may be found under large appliances or bookcases.

    a) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    b) 2 is true; 1 and 3 are false

    c) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

    d) 3 is true; 1 and 2 are false

    e) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is fasle
    b) 2 is true; 1 and 3 are false
  341. The decision regarding what physical evidence to collect at the incident scene rests with the:
    Fire investigator
  342. The recommended container for the collection of liquid and solid accelerant evidence is a:
    Clean metal can with a tight-fitting lid
  343. It is recommended that collection of solid and liquid accelerant evidence be limited to several types of containers:
    Glass jars, metal cans, or special evidence bags
  344. The form of arson evidence most commonly submitted for analysis can be classified as:
    Solid debris suspected of containing volatile liquids
  345. When collecting physical evidence for examination and testing, it is often necessary to also collect:
    Comparision samples
  346. It is recommended that physical evidence collected for the purpose of examination and testing by a recognized forensic laboratory be:
    Hand delivered
  347. The diagramming and photographing of a scene should always be accomplished before the physical evidence is:
    Moved or disturbed
  348. Physical evidence should be thoroughly documented before it is moved. Documentation can be accomplished through:
    Field notes, sketches or diagrams, photographs or videos, and/or written reports
  349. Most contamination of physical evidence occurs during:
    Collection
  350. The __________ makes the decision on what physical evidence is to be collected at the fire scene and makes the appropriate documentation.
    Fire investigator
  351. The preservation of evidence at the fire scene should begin with the:
    First arriving firefighter
  352. Long-lived events in which the fault current is not high enough to trip the circuit overcurrent protection are called:
    High resistance faults
  353. 1: The size of the perimeter for both fire and explosion scenes may change several times during the incident.

    2: The perimeter for explosions should be established at 1500' beyond the location of the farthest piece of debris found.

    3: Access to the scene through the perimeter should be strictly monitored, with all persons who enter and leave being required to log in and out.

    a) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    b) 2 is true; 1 and 3 are false

    c) All three are true

    d) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false
    d) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false
  354. The value of __________ evidence depends on the fire investigator's efforts to maintain the __________ and __________ of that evidence from time of discovery to time of examination and testing.
    Physical, security, integrity
  355. Basic Method of a Fire Investigation
    1: Receive the assignment

    2: Prepare for the investigation

    3: Conduct the investigation

    4: Collect and preseve evidence

    5: Analyze the incident

    6: Report findings
  356. A preliminary report is often a brief summary of the incident and involves the:
    What, who, and when of a fire
  357. The most important means of communication for a fire investigator is through:
    The written report
  358. The completeness and accuracy of a fire investigator's report is determined by its:
    Clarity, readability, and concisness
  359. Which one of the following statements concerning report writing is false:

    a) Write simply and clearly, using the "active" form of writing.

    b) Report all allegations and suppositions, even if they are unsupported.

    c) Be sure the report is complete and all facts are reported accurately.

    d) Avoid spelling errors; use simple active sentences.
    b) Report all allegations and suppositions, even if they are unsupported.
  360. Which one of the following should not be included in the summary section of an investigation report?

    a) Date, time, and location of fire

    b) Date, time, and circumstances of the scene examination

    c) Conclusions about the origin and cause of the fire

    d) Names, addresses, and statements of witnesses
    d) Names, addresses, and statements of witnesses
  361. The primary purpose in photographing the scene would be to:
    Support and document the fire investigator's findings
  362. What pattern should photographic documentation follow?
    The same general pattern as the scene search
  363. The proper recording of a scene may require:
    Photographs, notes, diagrams, and tape recordings
  364. Aerial photographs
    Views from a high vantage point to reveal fire spread patterns
  365. Witness viewpoint photograph
    Vantage point from which a witness observed the fire scene
  366. Evidence photograph
    Gasoline can or a penny in fuse box
  367. Interior photograph
    Rooms within the area of origin
  368. Slides
    Reproduction format that allows large-sized images to be displayed at no additional cost
  369. Prints
    Reproduction format that requires no mechanical device for displaying
  370. Lens
    Object used to gather light and focus images on the surface of the film
  371. One of the most important aspects to remember about fire investigation photography is:
    Proper lighting conditions
  372. Why is color film recommended to photograph fire scenes?
    Color film more realistically depicts variations between objects and smoke stains
  373. How would an investigator photograph an item to depict accurate dimensions of the item?
    Place a readily identifiable object of constant size, such as a ruler or a penny, in the photograph
  374. During a fire investigation, a witness surfaces who claims that while standing in a particular location, he/she was able to observe the fire in its incipent stage. A photograph of such a location can be referred to as a(n) ___________ photograph.
    Witness viewpoint
  375. When photographing fire incidents, a fire investigator should avoid:
    Combining multiple fire scenes on a single roll of film
  376. The exclusive use of video format documentation of a fire scene in place of still photography is not recommended because video photography is considered:
    Less objective and less reliable
  377. The most recognized and used camera for fire photography is a(n):
    35 mm
  378. For a fire investigator to weave photographs and testimony together in court, photographs presented in court must:
    Be relevant to the testimony
  379. The purpose of structural photographs is to show:
    Code violations

    Structural failure

    Damage to the structure and burn patterns

    Identifiable features of the building
  380. The purpose of providing photographs of a fire scene is to:
    Provide an accurate record of the scene
  381. There are numerous speeds of film (ASA rating); 35 mm is the one most used by fire investigators. The common speeds range from 25 to 1600 in color and to 6400 in black and white. As the number increases, the film requires:
    Less light
  382. One of the most important aspects to remember about fire investigation photography is:
    Lighting
  383. Fire scene sketches should be considered an important supplement to photographs and written notes. Their main importance to the investigation is to:
    Portray the accurate location of evidence found at the scene
  384. __________ ___________ should be considered important supplements to photographs and written notes, not replacements for them.
    Fire scene sketches
  385. Topographical drawing
    Show various grades of the land
  386. Electrical drawing
    Shows size and arrangement of service entrance, swithces, outlets, and electrical appliances
  387. Site plan
    Shows the structure on the property with sewer, water, and electrical distributions to the structure
  388. Floor plan
    Shows walls and rooms of structure as if one were looking down on it from above
  389. Fire scene sketches should be considered important supplements to __________ and __________, not replacements for them.
    Photographs, written notes
  390. Documentation of a fire scene involves measurements as well as pictorial documentation. Which system(s) would be used to formulate a meathod of measurements?

    a) Coordinate system

    b) Baseline system

    c) Triangulation system

    d) Angular displacement system

    e) All of the above
    e) All of the above
  391. The creation of the final sketch by the fire investigator would include information that would assist in locating various items at a later date. What information is required on the final sketch to provide this assistance?
    Geographic orientation such as a "north" directional arrow compass marking
  392. In all fire cases, the minimum drawing should consist of:
    A simple sketch
  393. The NFPA standard which references fire safety symbols is:
    NFPA 170
  394. The most common fire scene sketch used by a fire investigator is a(n):
    Projection, plan, or top view
  395. Which of the following systems of measurement should not be used when preparing a final fire scene sketch?

    a) Paces and steps

    b) Feet and inches

    c) Meters and centimeters

    d) All of the above may be used
    a) Paces and steps
  396. A floor plan sketch or diagram of a structure consists of:
    An outline of each floor of the building showing wall, partitions, openings, etc..
  397. A sketch depicting the general arrangement of the property in reference to sewer, water, electrical distribution, and other important features is known as a:
    Site plan
  398. Fire protection engineering deals with the relationship between:
    Ignition sources and materials in determining what may have started the fire
  399. 1: A mechanical or materials engineer can help determine the reason that a drive shaft or bearing failed.

    2: A hydraulic engineer can help determine whether the failure of a hydraulic system caused or contributed to a fire.

    3: Many determinations involving specialized equipment are beyond the capabilities of most crime laboratory personnel.

    a) 1 and 2 are true

    b) 2 and 3 are true

    c) All three are true

    d) 1 is true
    c) All three are true
  400. Mechanical engineer
    Analysis of HVAC system
  401. Fire protection engineer
    Technology of fire and explosion
  402. Attorney
    Legal assistance
  403. Fire engineering technologist
    Fire and safety engineering
  404. Insurance agents and adjusters can provide assistance and information to the fire investigation such as:
    - Contents of structure prior to the fire

    - Type and condition of fire protection systems

    - Insurance coverage and prior losses
  405. In an effort to evaluate information given by a witness, it is important to consider whether or not the source is __________ and/or ___________ by conducting an evaluation of the witness' sources.
    Accurate; Reliable
  406. Municipal Street Department
    Maps showing location of drains, conduits, and easements
  407. State Fire Marshal's Office
    Fire incident databases
  408. County Assessor
    Legal descriptions of property
  409. Municipal Fire Department
    Fire incident reports
  410. Reports, documents, reference materials, and newspapers are all forms of __________ sources.
    Written
  411. Telephone conversations, tape recordings, radio transmissions, and commercial radio broadcasts are all examples of __________ sources.
    Verbal
  412. The State Fire Marshal's Office maintains public records regarding:
    Fire incident databases and fire investigation activities
  413. Documents that may be used during a fire investigation:
    - Fire reports

    - Police reports

    - Insurance policies

    - Financial records
  414. Health Department
    Birth and death certificates
  415. Credit Union
    Payment records
  416. Building Department
    Information regarding construction details
  417. Title Companies
    Former owners of property
  418. County Coroner/Medical Examiner
    Death cerfiticates
  419. Municipal Treasurer
    Amount of taxes paid or owed on real and personal property
  420. Municipal Assessor
    Taxable value of real property
  421. A fire investigator can obtain a copy of a death certificate from the County Coroner/Medical Examiner or the:
    Municipal Health Department
  422. Town/City Clerk
    Town/municipal government sources
  423. State Treasurer
    State government sources
  424. United States Coast Guard
    Federal government sources
  425. National Fire Protection Association
    Private sources
  426. While correlating data and evaluating source information, a credible source that should be considered is:
    Public records maintained by the fire department
  427. 1: During the interview, the most effective approach is to ask open-ended questions.

    2: During the interview, the investigator should actively listen while maintaining eye contact.

    3: During the interview, the investigator should anticipate what the interviewee is about to say.

    a) All three are true

    b) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    c) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

    d) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
    a) All three are true
  428. The two most common methods of documenting an interview are to:
    Tape record and take written notes
  429. While conducting an interview, it is important to remember that privileged communications apply to all of the following except:

    a) Husband and wife

    b) Fire chief and fire marshal

    c) Attorney and client

    d) Priest and penitent
    b) Fire chief and fire marshal
  430. Logical sequence to follow when developing an interview plan:
    1 - Goals of the interview

    2 - Who is to be interviewed

    3 - Setting of the interview

    4 - Who is to be present at the interview
  431. Purpose of the interview
    Gather useful and accurate information
  432. Preparation for the interview
    When and where the interview is held
  433. Documenting the interview
    Tapes or written notes
  434. 1: The express purpose of any interview is to gather useful, pertinent and accurate information.

    2: The fire investigator must identify who is to be interviewed.

    3: All identified parties to be interviewed should be kept together in a single, segregated location.

    a) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    b) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    c) All three are true

    d) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
    b) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
  435. During the preparation for an interview, an investigator should develop a(n) __________ so that a __________ can be determined.
    Interview plan; stragety
  436. Conversations between a husband and wife, priest and penitent, and attorney and client are all forms of __________ and are made by persons within a __________.
    Privileged communication; protected relationship
  437. The most important activity by the fire investigator in preparation for an interview is:
    Developing a thorough understanding of all facets of the investigation
  438. Which of the following is not a suggested procedure when interviewing one who must be approached with caution?

    a) Verify the validity of information given by the interviewee

    b) Conduct the interview in a public place

    c) To prevent the possibility of prepared responses, do not make an appointment with interviewee

    d) Use a flexible checklist
    b) Conduct the interview in a public place
  439. The use of a flexible checklist while conducting an interview may be helpful:
    During all forms of interviews
  440. Interviews can be approached in three different ways. The three different attitudes of the investigator upon the approach are:
    Trust, caution, and distrust
  441. During an interview with a witness, the preferred method of documenting information obtained in the interview is:
    A signed written statement
  442. A witness who has a documented specific interest in a fire may be considered a(n) __________ person.
    Distrusted or unreliable
  443. In preparing for an interview, a fire investigator should always:
    Develop questions ahead of time
  444. The solicitation of relevant and useful information in a statement should begin:
    During the preparation for the interview
  445. The purpose of an interview is to gather:
    Useful and accurate information
  446. In fire-related deaths, the establishment of the cause and manner of death is the province of the:
    Coroner or medical examiner
  447. Photography, video tapes, photographs, motion pictures, and computer-generated animation are all examples of __________ forms of information.
    Visual
  448. The "arson immunity acts" generally provide that an insurance company:
    Must release items of information upon request from an appropriate agency
  449. Civil litigation lawsuits typically involve claims of damages for:
    - Death

    - Injury

    - Property damage
  450. 1: A pretrial conference is not very important.

    2: Make a list of your qualifications.

    3: The jury does not have to concentrate on what you say.

    a) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    b) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    c) 2 is true; 1 and 3 are false

    d) All three are true
    c) 2 is true; 1 and 3 are false
  451. The fire investigator should make sure that presentation information to the public or in court is:
    Accurate, reliable, and supported by data and information
  452. 1: A fact witness provides testimony that is sometimes referred to as lay testimony.

    2: Expert witnesses always have the right to answer every question in full and explain their answers.

    3: A fact witness is allowed to provide opinion testimony.

    a) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    b) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

    c) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    d) All three are true
    a) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
  453. If an expert witness is to testify on a scientific theory or technique, then it must be evaluated on four factors. The four factors are:
    - The theory or technique has been or can be tested

    - The theory has a known or potential rate of error

    - The theory has gained acceptance in the relevant scientific community
  454. 1: During pretrial preparation, notes and reports must be reviewed and questions or problems discussed with counsel.

    2: Any errors discovered are best freely admitted to upon direct examination.

    3: Charts, diagrams, or other visual aids must be planned ahead of time.

    a) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    b) 1 is false; 2 and 3 are true

    c) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false

    d) All three are true
    d) All three are true
  455. 1: Proper dress is important for the image of the expert witness.

    2: A suit is always proper dress for an expert witness.

    3: If an expert witness wears a uniform in the performance of regular duties, it can also be considered proper dress.

    a) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    b) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

    c) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false

    d) All three are true
    c) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false
  456. 1: Normally the weight of evidence as to the cause of a fire is determined by the same tests applied to other evidence.

    2: The responsibilities of the expert witness are no greater than those of a fact witness.

    3: An expert witness is allowed at the discretion of the court to provide opinion testimony.

    a) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    b) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false

    c) 1 is false; 2 and 3 are true

    d) All three are true
    b) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false
  457. During testimony, the fire investigator should above everything else:
    Tell the truth
  458. Expert testimony regarding the origin and cause determination of a fire must be:
    Based on scientific knowledge, an understanding of hte science involved, the accuracy and reliability of conclusions reached using the data or information
  459. To qualify as an expert witness you must:
    Posses special knowledge, training, and experience in the area of expertise
  460. The difference between fact testimony and expert testimony is a(n):
    Fact testimony may only testify to facts observed
  461. The final test of a fire investigation is its:
    Presentation in court
  462. A fire investigator qualified as an expert should provide:
    Information to aid the judge and jury in understanding the facts at issue
  463. When testifying in leagal proceedings, a witness should testify:
    In a clear, firm voice using understandable language and terms
  464. 1: In order to certify to NFPA 1033, fire investigators must be able to prepare a written report of an investigation they performed.

    2: The investigative report is an offical record of the investigator's activities and findings

    3: The purpose of the investigative report is to build a case.

    a) All three are true

    b) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

    c) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

    d)2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
    c) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
  465. Recognized format when writing an investigative report:
    Summary, scene description, investigatoin, conclusions
  466. Regarding the investigation section of the investigation report, how is a recorded interview included?
    A verbatim transcript of the interview should be included
  467. __________ is the means by which a party obtains documentation from the opposing party to prove its allegation regarding the information and/or evidence that is possesses.
    Discovery
  468. A goal of every fire investigation is to produce __________ documents, samples, statements, information, data, and __________.
    Reliable; conclusions
  469. Court ruling contended that a fire investigator could offer an opinion that a fire was arson simply as a result of looking at evidence
    Michigan Millers Mutual v. Benfield
  470. The purpose of a(n) __________ serarch warrant is generally to allow those charged with the responsibility, by ordinance or statue, to investigate the origin and cause of a fire.
    Administrative
  471. Which of the following is not a Miranda Right?

    a) To have the presence of an attorney

    b) To make a phone call

    c) Statement they do make may be used as evidence against them

    d) Remain silent
    b) To make a phone call
  472. Discovery is the process occuring during the __________ phase of a legal proceeding.
    Pretrial
  473. Persons interviewed in custodial settings should be advised of their __________ rights.
    Miranda
  474. Evidence from which one can derive an impression by seeing, touching, smelling, or hearing the evidence is known as __________ evidence.
    Demonstrative
  475. Examples of demonstrative evidence
    - Architectural model

    - Sample can

    - Insurance binder

    - Tape recording
  476. Example of documentary evidence

    a) Architectural model

    b) Sample can

    c) Insurance policy

    d) Tape recording

    e) All of the above
    c) Insurance policy
  477. Most frequently used types of illustrative or demonstrative evidence:
    Maps, sketches, diagrams, and models
  478. While fighting a fire, a firefighter who observes a gas can in plain view at the scene of a fire:
    Can seize it as evidence without consent or a warrant
  479. Type of sanctions imposed for failure to obey orders of a fire marshal, fire warden, or other officials and agents of public sector:
    Criminal
  480. Spoilation of evidence:
    Can be eliminated by the proper handling of evidence and proper notification before destruction or disposal
  481. The Supreme Court decision which held the investigation may continue for a reasonable period of time is:
    Michigan v. Tyler
  482. Evidence of an accidental fire cause should:
    Not be removed by the public investigator for personal examination or training purposes
  483. The responsibility for evidence preservation rests with:
    The investigator or anyone who handles/examines evidence
  484. Arson/criminal prosecution
    At common law, the malicious burning of another's house
  485. Arson immunity acts
    Statute requiring release of information to public officials
  486. Civil litigation
    Premised on allegations of negligence
  487. Privileged information
    Attorney, priest
  488. Confidential information
    Statement for the person addressed
  489. Freedom of information
    Public agencies
  490. The "right of entry" refers to legal right to be on a given premises or fire scene. Such entry can be obtained by all of the following except:

    a) Freedom of Information Law

    b) An authorizing form of consent

    c) An Administrative Search Warrant

    d) A Criminal Search Warrant

    e) An exigent circumstance
    a) Freedom of Information Law
  491. Incandescent light bulbs of 25 watt or greater can sometimes show the dirction of heat impingement. The side of the bulb facing the heat will be:
    Pulled towards the heat source
  492. The height to which smoke has stained the walls and windows of a room will reflect:
    The nature and extent of the fire and the amount of ventilation
  493. The rate of charring of wood varies widely depending on such variables as:
    - Direction, orientation, and size of wood grain

    - Rate and duration of heating

    - Ventilation effects
  494. Inverted cone patterns are commonly caused by:
    Vertical flame plumes of the volatile fuels not reaching the ceiling
  495. The solid residue that remains when wood is exposed to elevated temperatures is primarily:
    Carbon
  496. Damage including charring of the underside of furniture, burning of carpet under furniture, uniform burning around the underside of doors, burning of floor covering in corners, and holes burned through carpet and floors is a sign of:
    Full room involvement
  497. A wide "V" pattern at the base of a fire is a sign that the:
    Pattern increased over time as the fire spread
  498. Ventilation-generated patterns are caused by blowing air over glowing embers, raising enough heat to melt metals. This can produce:
    Holes in floors
  499. Which of the following statements is not a key variable that affects the validity of depth-of-char pattern analysis?

    a) Char measurements should be compared only between identical materials

    b) Ventilation factors influence the rate of burning

    c) When adjacent to ventilation source or opening, wood can exhibit deeper char

    d) Depth of char is a good source to determine time of burning
    d) Depth of char is a good source to determine time of burning
  500. The term __________ is used by fire investigators to cover the numerous changes that occur in plaster or gypsum wall surfaces during a fire.
    Calcination
  501. Thermal expansion of metal construction elements can be an indicator to the fire investigator of an:
    Area heated to a higher temperature for a longer period of time
  502. Exploded room diagram showing damage patterns, sample locations and photo location
  503. Pre-fire content diagram
  504. Detailed floor plan
  505. Content reconstruction diagram, showing damaged furniture in original position


  506. Which letter represents the smoke stained area?
    C


  507. Which letter represents the heavy char area?
    B


  508. Which letter represents the location of photo and roll?
    F

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