Pharm review Qs

Card Set Information

Author:
Butterbug10
ID:
158889
Filename:
Pharm review Qs
Updated:
2012-07-07 09:57:35
Tags:
Parm review Qs butterbug 10
Folders:

Description:
Pharm review Qs
Show Answers:

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview

The flashcards below were created by user Butterbug10 on FreezingBlue Flashcards. What would you like to do?


  1. Which phase of pharmacokinetics refers to a drug's movement from systemic circulation into the tissues?
    A.) absorption
    B.) metabolism
    C.) secretion
    D.) distribution
    D.) distribution
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. How many classes are in the schedule of controlled substances?
    A.) two
    B.) three
    C.) four
    D.) five
    D.) five
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. The assessment phase of the nursing process includes which action in relation to drug administration?
    a.) determining if the client has food or drug allergies
    b.) Developing a nursing diagnosis
    c.) developing outcomes with input from client and his family
    d.) Putting the developed care plan into action
    1.) determine if the client has food or drug allergies
  4. The I.M. injection site most commonly used in children is the:
    A.) deltiod muscle
    B.) ventrogluteal muscle
    C.) vastus lateralis muscle
    D.) dorsogluteal muscle
    C.) vastus lateralis muscle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. what's the best actio to take if a drug order is unreadable?
    A.) ask the cleitn what drug he normally takes
    B.) guess what the drug should be
    C.) call the physician and clarify the order
    D.) ask the charge nurse to read the order
    C.) call the physician to clarify the order
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. A client carefully follows a diabetic diet and exercise program as prescribed. His glucose remains elevated, and glipizide (Glucotrol) is ordered. To learn more about this drug's absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion, which branch of pharmacology provides this information?
    A.) pharmacokinetics
    B.) pharmacotherapeutics
    C.) pharmacognosy
    D.) pharmacodynamics
    A.) pharmacokinetics
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. A nurse is preparing to give a client his schedules 9 am drugs. The nurse realizes the pt is in the bathroom. Through the door, the pt tells the nurse to leave them by the bed and he'll take them when he comes out. Which action is most appropriate?
    A.) go into the BR and give pills to the client to take while standing there
    B.) take the drugs away, but return in 10 min to give them
    C.) return the drugs to the client's drug drawer, and chart "drugs refused"
    D.) leave the drugs at the bedside with a note for the pt to take them as soon as possible
    B.) take the drugs away, but return in 10 min to give them
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. In 1938, Congress passed an amendment to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. As a result of this amendment, drug labels myst consist of:
    A.) a statement of the contents of the package
    B.) the name of the scientist who discovered the drug
    C.)only the name of the distributor
    D.) a warning if the drug comes from a foreign market
    A.) a statement of the contents of the package
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. A nurse is reviewing a new drug order written for a client. After reviewing the order, the nurse thinks that the dosage is unusually high. How should the nurse proceed?
    A.) give the drug exactly as ordered
    B.) ignore the drug order
    C.) have another nurse double-check the order
    D.) question the pysician about the dosage
    D.) question the physician about the dosage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. A nurse is preparing to give cortisone to a client. Which item must always be checked before giving a drug?
    A.) family hx
    B.) respiratory rate
    C.) BP
    D.) identification bracelet
    D.) identification bracelet
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. A nurse is teaching a client about a newly prescribed drug. What could cause an elderly client to have difficulty learning about prescribed medications?
    A.) fixed income
    B.) sensory deficits
    C.) decreased drug excretion
    D.) lack of family support
    B.) sensory deficits
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. During an acute infection, a client with diabetes develops severe hyperglycemia and requires insulin therapy. Which administration route provides an immediate systemic response?
    A.) Intradermal
    B.) I.M.
    C.) I.V.
    D.) SubQ
    C.) I.V.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. A cardiologist prescribes digoxin (Lanoxin) 125mcg orally q am for a client dx w/ HF. the pharmacy dispenses tablets that contain 0.25mg each. How many tablets should the nurse administer?
    one half tablet
  14. A nurse is administering an IM injection to a 2-yr-old child. The best place to give the injection is:
    a.) 1" to 2" (2.5 - 5 cm) below the acromial process, with the needle angled toward the process
    b.) in the middle third of the lateral muscle of the quadracepts group, from a handbreath below the greater trochanter to a handbreadth above the knee
    c.) in the upper quadrant of the buttock, below the iliac crest
    d.) within 1" of the umbilicus, with the needle at a 45-degree angle
    b.) in the middle third of the lateral muscle of the quadracepts group, from a handbreadth below the greater trochanter to a handbreadth above the knee
  15. A client taking ibuprofen (Motrin) for joint pain is admitted for GI bleeding. The nurse would document this as what type of adverse reaction?
    A.) dose related
    B.) iatrogenic
    C.) sensitivity-related
    D.) toxicity
    B.) iatrogenic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Colinergic agonists stimulate which receptors?
    a.) adrenergic
    b.) alpha1
    c.) beta2
    d.) cholinergic
    d.) cholinergic
  17. Edrophonium is used to treat what?
    A.) bradycardia
    B.) paralytic ileus
    C.) myasthenia gravis
    D.) inner ear infection
    C.) myasthenia gravis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Terbutaline (Brethine) is commonly used for:
    A.) controlling seizures
    B.) stopping preterm labor
    C.) treating hyperthyroidism
    D.) treating glaucoma
    B.) stopping preterm labor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. A nurse should monitor a client taking ergotamine (Ergomar) for:
    A.) bradycardia
    B.) blurred vision
    C.) tingling in the fingers and toes
    D.) ringing in the ears
    C.) tingling in the fingers and toes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Which drug is most appropriate to give an intubated client who's fighting the use of a ventilator?
    A.) Cisatracurium (Nimbex)
    B.) Dicyclomine (Antispas)
    C.) Metroprolol (Lopressor)
    D.) Dobutamine (Dobutrex)
    A.) Cisartacurium (Nimbrex)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. A client with Parkinson's disease asks the nurse why he's taking trihexyphenidyl. The nurse should respond by explaining that the drug:
    A.) Prevents cleints from developing depression
    B.) Controls the symptoms of drooling and muscle rigidity
    C.) Counteracts the adverse reactions of levodopa
    D.) Helps clients relax so they can sleep
    B.) Controls the symptoms of drooling and muscle rigidity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. A client is scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The physician orders preoperative sedation with meperidine (Demerol), 75 mg I.M., and the cholinergic blocker atropine, 0.4 mg I.M. Which statement describes the purpose of atropine as a preanesthetic agent?
    A.) Atropine minimizes the risk of postoperative ileus
    B.) Atropine reduces excess salivation and gastric secretions
    C.) Atropine reduces hyperreflexia during surgery
    D.) Atropine prevents respiratory depression during surgery
    B.) Atropine reduces excess salivation and gastric secretions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. A client with an ET tube receiving mechanical ventilation becomes more consious and begins to fight both the ET tube and the ventilatior. Pancuronium, 0.1 mg/kg of body wt is ordered. This durg exerts its therapeutic effect by:
    A.) Enhancing the muscle's ability to respond to the neurotransmitter acetylcholine
    B.) Stimulating muscarinic at effector orgas
    C.) Competing with acetylcholine at cholinergic receptor sites
    D.) Inhibiting the action of cholinesterase at the motor end plate
    C.) Competing with acetylcholine at cholinergic recptor sites
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. A client with a hx of asthma occasionally has bronchospasm attacks. The nurse reviews the client's drug hx, questioning the use of which drug?
    a.) Ergotamine (Ergomar)
    b.) Metoprolol (Lopressor)
    c.) Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)
    d.) Phentolamine (Regitine)
    • b.) Metoprolol (Lopressor)
    • -Metoprolol is a bets-adrenergic blocker. The most common respiratory adverse reaction is cronchospasm. Beta-adrenergic blockers must be used cautiously in clients with brnchial asthma, bronchitis, or emphasema. Ergotamine, phenoxybenzamine, and phentolamine are alpha-adrenergic blockers, which cause smooth-muscle relaxation and vasodilation, not bronchospasm
  25. Essential hypertension, Raynaud's disease, and pheochromocytoma respond effectively to which class of drugs?
    A.) Alpha-adrenergic blockers
    B.) Cholinergic blockers
    C.) CNS stimulants
    D.) Beta-adrenergic blockers
    A.) Alpha-adrenergic blockers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. A client taking an anticholinergic for 1 month arrives at an outpatient clinic with complaints of constipation, dry mouth, and decreased sweating. The nurse realizes that these complaints are:
    A.) symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction
    B.) dose-related adverse reactions
    C.) rare
    D.) normal
    B.) dose-related adverse reactions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. A nuse is caring for a client with a T5 complete spinal cord injury. On assessment, the nurse notes flushed skin, diaphoresis above Y5, and a blood pressure of 162/96 mmHg. The client reports a severe. punding h/a. Which nursing intervention would be appropriate for this client? Select all that apply.
    a.) Elevate the HOB 90 degrees
    b.) Loosen constrictive clothing
    c.) Use a fan to reduce diaphoresis
    d.) Assess for bladder distention and bowel impaction
    e.) Administer antihypertensive medication
    f.) Place the client in the supine position with legs elevated
    • a.) Elevate the HOB 90 degrees
    • b.) Loosen constrictive clothing
    • d.) Assess for bladder distention and bowel impaction
    • e.) Administer antihypertensive medication
  28. The wife of a client taking donepezil (Aricept) asks the nurse when her husband's Alzheimer's disease will be cured. The nurse's best response is:
    A.) "Your husband will be cured in 2 weeks."
    B.) "This medication alone doesn't cure Alzheimer's; you have to take two other medications to cure the disease."
    C.) "This medication takes about 6 weeks to cure Alzheimer's."
    D.) "This medication slows the degeneration of the disease. It doesn't cure it."
    D.) "This medication slows the degeneration of the disease. It doesn't cure it."
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. A nurse is caring for a client taking ergotamine (Ergomar) for vascular h/a, Which complaint by the client requires immediate further investigation?
    A.) "I'm having hot flashes every day."
    B.) "My ankles are puffy after I sit up for a couple of hours."
    C.) "My fingers and toes are timgling."
    D.) "I feel my heart racing every now and then."
    C.) "My fingers and toes are tingling."
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. A nurse is caring for a client on a mechanical ventilator who complains of pain. The physician orders succinylcholine (Anectine). What should the nurse do next?
    A.) Position the cleitn for an I.M. injection
    B.) Withhold the drug, call the physician, and ask for pain medication or sedation
    C.) Insert a nasogastric tube to administer the medication
    D.) Administer the drug as ordered
    B.) Insert a nasogastric tube to administer the medication
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. A common adverse effect of CNS stimulants such as dextroamphetamine (Adderall) is:
    A.) blurred vision
    B.) diarrhea
    C.) nausea
    D.) wt loss
    D.) wt loss
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. What's an important teaching topic for a client taking phenytoin (Dilantin)?
    A.) Restrict fluid intake
    B.) Take the medication at night
    C.) Take the medication on an empty stomach
    D.) Use good oral hygiene
    D.) Use good oral hygiene
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Dopaminergic agonists work by:
    A.) Raising the seizure threshold
    B.) Increasing the amount of dopamine available in the CNS
    C.) Blocking acetylcholine breakdown at the neuromuscular junction
    D.) suppressing acetylcholine activity
    B.) Increasing the amount of dopamine available in the CNS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. When administering I.V. phenobarbital, a nurse should have:
    A.) An indwelling urinary catheter or straight catheter on hand
    B.) the practitioner at the client's bedside
    C.) emergency resuscitation equipment readily available
    D.) A signed consent for the drug
    C.) Emergency resuscitation equipment readily available
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. A client should take antimyasthenics according to schedule because:
    A.) Taking them on time helps prevent weakness
    B.) Doing so helps the client remember to take them on time
    C.) He must make an appontment at the clietn to obtain the medicaiton
    D.) It's necessary to take drugs 2 hrs before eating
    A.) Taking them on time helps prevent weakness
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. A client with Parkinson's diseae is being treated with levodopa (Dopar). The nurse would become most concerned if the client develops:
    A.) tachycardia
    B.) edema
    C.) irritability
    D.) nausea and vomiting
    A.) tachycardia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. A physician suspects that a client has myasthenia gravis. Which anticholinesterase can be used to diagnose this disorder?
    A.) Edrophonium (Tensilon)
    B.) Ambenonium (Mytelase)
    C.) Pyridostigmine (Mestinon)
    D.) Physostigmine (Antilirium)
    A.) edrophonium (Tesilon)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. A client being treated with diazepam (Valium), a benzodiazepine, is most likely to experience which adverse reaction?
    A.) sedation
    B.) tachycardia
    C.) hypertension
    D.) rash
    A.) sedation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. A nurse is preparing a female client with tonic-clonic seizure disorder for discharge. Which instructions should the nurse include about phenytoin (Dilantin)? Select all that apply.
    a.) Monitor for skin rash
    b.) Maintain adequate amounts of fluid and fiber in the diet
    c.) Perform good oral hygiene, including daily brishing and flossing
    d.) Follow up with necessary, periodic blood work
    e.) Report to the physcian any problems with walking, coordination, slurred speech, or nausea
    f.) Feel safe about taking this drug, even during pregnancy
    • a.) Monitor for skin rash
    • c.) Perform adequate amounts of fluid and fiber in the diet
    • d.) Follow up with necessary, periodic blood work
    • e.)Report to the physician any problems with walking, coordination, slurred speech, or nausea
  40. A nurse would expect a client taking entacapone (Comtan) to alos be takine:
    A.) famotidine (Pepcid)
    B.) levodopa-carbidopa (Dopar)
    C.) furosemide (Lasix)
    D.) tolcapone (Tasmar)
    B.) levodopa-carbidopa
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. A 12-year-old child who's taking methylphenidate (Concerta) is in with his mother for a check-up. Which statement by the mother warrants further investigation?
    A.) "He still takes his medication at noon every day."
    B.) "He likes to drink soy milk."
    C.) "He hasn't grown in over 1 year."
    D.) "I noticed he's starting to get acne."
    C.) "He hasn't grown in over 1 year."
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. A nurse should question the use of sumatriptan Imitrex) in which client?
    A.) A 21-year-old with frequent cluster headaces
    B.) A 65-year-old with diabetes
    C.) A 34-year-old who's 15 weeks pregnancy
    D.) An 18-year-old who's taking a hormonal contraceptive
    C.) A 34-year-old who's 15 weeks pregnancy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. A nurse warns a client taking mephobarbital (Mebaral) about which possible adverse effect?
    A.) Restless
    B.) Lethargy
    C.) Diarrhea
    D.) Seizures
    B.) Lethargy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Gabapentin (Neurontin) may be ordered for a client with which disorder?
    A.) Postherpetic neuralgia
    B.) A hx of pancreatitis
    C.) Parkinson's disease
    D.) Tonic-clonic seizures
    A.) Postherpetic neuralgia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. A nurse suspects a client receiving neostigmine (Prostigmin) is having a myasthenic crisis. Which finding is the nurse likely to assess?
    A.) The client has diaphoresis 45 minutes after the medication is given
    B.) The client experiences extreme muscle weakness 4 hrs after the medication is given
    C.) The client begins vomiting 30 min after administration of the medication
    D.) Increased respiratory secretions are seen 90 minutes after the medication is given
    B.) The client experiences extreme muscle weakness 4 hrs after the medication is given
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. One way that a nonopiod anagesic acts is by:
    A.) inhibiting stimulation of pain receptors
    B.) blocking the effects of opiods
    C.) locking nerve impulse transmission across nerve cell membranes
    D.) binding to opiate receptors to alter perception of pain
    A.) inhibiting stimulation of pain receptors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Before administering a dose of pain medication, a nurse should always:
    A.) reposition the client
    B.) have emergency resuscitation equipment available
    C.) give the client something to eat
    D.) assess the client's pain level
    D.) assess the client's pain level
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Which statement is appropriate for a nurse to make to a client who's about to have surgery using an inhalation anesthetic?
    A.) "Your sense of touch will decrese, and then you'll lose motor function."
    B.) "I'll monitor the area for a rash after surgery."
    C.) "It's normal for you to shiver after surgery."
    D.) "You may not have feeling in the surgical area when you wake up."
    C.) "It's normal for you to shiver after surgery."
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. When caring for a client who's about to receive an injectable anesthetic, a nurse should have:
    A.) naloxone (Narcan) in case of overdose
    B.) atropine (Sal-Tropine) ready for injection
    C.) food for the cleint to prevent GI upset
    D.) equipment for endotracheal intubation readily available
    D.) equipment for endotracheal intubation readily available
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. Which measure may enhance a client's therapeutic response to an analgesic?
    A.) providing soft, quiet music
    B.) having a loud television playing
    C.) allowing the pt to walk around the unti
    D.) waiting as long as possible to administer medication
    A.) providing soft, quiet music
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. A client us hospitalized with terminal cancer. For the past 3 weeks, he has been receiving morphine, 5 mg I.V., every 4 hrs, and has experienced relief from pain. He now says pain is still present, even after receiving the drug. The nurse recognizes that this client:
    A.) resents that the nurse is healthy and he isn't
    B.) has developed a tolerance to the opioid
    C.) is seeking attention for himself because of poor self-image
    D.) has become dependent on the drug
    B.) has developed a tolerance to the opioid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Which symptoms should a nurse observe in an adult developing salicylism?
    A.) respiratory depression and acidosis
    B.) bleeding from the gums and blood in the urine
    C.) respiratory alkalosis and tachypnea
    D.) rash and bronchial wheezing
    C.) respiratory alkalosis and tachypnea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. A client in the intensive care unit was given an accidental overdose of morphine. He's unconscious and has slow, shallow respirations at a rate of 8 breaths/minute. What drug should be given?
    A.) naltrexone (ReVia)
    B.) naloxone (Narcan)
    C.) flumazenil (Romazicon)
    D.) norepinephrine (Levophed)
    B.) naloxone (Narcan)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. A client who's taking the NSAID naproxen (Naprosyn) for his osteoarthritis has recently started taking a thiazide diuretic for moderate hypertension. Which instruction is the most important for the nurse to give to this client?
    A.) increase dietary fiber to avoid constipation
    B.) stick to the therapeutic regimen
    C.) watch for GI bleeding
    D.) have regular blood pressure checks
    D.) have regular blood pressure checks
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. During a thoracotomy, a client received halothane and nitrous oxide. After the surgery, the nurse monitors him closely. Which advrese reaction to inhalation anesthetics is most common?
    A.) repiratory distress
    B.) hypersensitivity reaction
    C.) nausea and vomiting
    D.) exaggerated response to a normal dose
    D.) exaggerated response to a normal dose
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. A physician orders a topical anesthetic to relieve a child's pain from a knee abrasion. When instructing the child's parents about the drug, the urse should tell them to be alert for:
    A.) rash, pruritus, and breathing difficulty
    B.) signs of infection
    C.) arrhythmias
    D.) minor pain
    A.) rash, pruritus, and breathing difficulty
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. A physician orders an I.V. push of 0.6 mg naloxone (Narcan) for a client. The vial has a concentration of 0.4 mg/mL. How many millimeters of naloxone bydrochloride should the client receive per dose? Record your answer using one decimal place.
    ________________mL
    1.5 mL
  58. A nurse should question an order for celecoxib written for a client with which condition?
    A.) arthritis of the hands
    B.) a sprained knee
    C.) ustable angina
    D.) painful menses
    C.) unstable angina
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Which drug us most appropriate to give preoperatively to a client scheduled for a skin biopsy?
    A.) acetaminophen (Tylenol)
    B.) Thiopental sodium (Pentothal)
    C.) pentazocine (Talwin)
    D.) mepivacaine (Carbocaine)
    D.) mepivacaine (Carbocaine)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. A nurse administering oxycodone (OxyContin) to a client be concerned about wich finding?
    A.) The client is asleep and has a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/minutes
    B.) The client states he's more tired than usual and takes a nap in the afternoon
    C.) The client complains of dizziness when standing up
    D.) The client experiences nausea 15 minutes after taking the medication
    A.) The client is asleep and has a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/minutes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Which medication is commonly used to reat bipolar affective disorders?
    A.) propofol (Diprivan)
    B.) temazepam (Restoril)
    C.) lithium (Eskalith)
    D.) haloperidol (Haldol)
    C.) lithium (Eskalith)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. A common adverse effect of an antipsychotic is:
    A.) extrapyramidal symptoms
    B.) nausea
    C.) diarrhea
    D.) tachypnea
    A.) extrapyramidal symptoms
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. Which teaching point is important for a client taking an antimanic drug?
    A.) The drug dose will never change
    B.) Blood test aren't necessary while taking the drug
    C.) drink at lest 2 qt (2L) of H2O daily
    D.) limit salt consumption
    C.) drink at least 2 qt (2L) of H2O daily
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Barbituates work by enhancing the effects of which neurotransmitter?
    A.) gamma-aminobutyric acid
    B.) dopamine
    C.) glutamate
    D.) acetylcholine
    A.) gamma-aminobutyric acid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Which medication is commonly used as an anxiolytic?
    A.) pentobarbital (Nembutal)
    B.) alprazolam (Xanax)
    C.) loxapine (Loxitane)
    D.) fluphenazine (Prolixin)
    B.) alprazolam (Xanax)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

What would you like to do?

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview