CDC Volume 2 URE

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CDC Volume 2 URE
2010-12-27 15:42:34
CDC Volume Two

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  1. An electrical charge at rest is called
    static electricity
  2. Triboelectrification is the
    generation of static charge by friction
  3. In an ESD prtective area, what level of relative humidity is the most desirable
  4. The electrostatic voltage sensitive threshold of the human body is approximately
    3,5000 volts
  5. when ESDS components are mounted on a circuit board, the
    components are still susceptible to ESD damage
  6. it is important for serviceable and un-serviceable (reparable) ESDS items to reveive the same ESD protection so
    no further ESD damage is done to the remaining operating parts
  7. proper static drain is fast enough to quickly remove the static charge before any damage is done, yet slow enough so it doesn't produce a damaging
    discharge current
  8. which is not one of the three principal components of a static control workstation
    static dissipative flooring
  9. how often must a wrist strap be tested with a wrist strap tester
  10. What is the proper procedure when you are testing a wrist strap with a wrist strap tester
    check continuity and resistance of the entire system when you are wearing the cuff
  11. you must torque a bolt to 60 inch-pounds, but you only have a foot-pound torque wrench. to what value must you set the foot-pound torque wrench to properly torque the bolt?
    5 foot-pounds
  12. when would you use a torque wrench to break loose a bolt
  13. Which torque wrench uses micrometers-like markings and a rotating adjustment sleeve to set torque values
    Type III
  14. You must compensate for the prevailing torque of a self-locking nut if its more than
    33 (1/3) percent of a nut's recommend torque value
  15. you must compensate for the prevailing torque of a self-locking nut when the
    technical order specifies that compensation is required
  16. before using a dropped torque wrench,you must
    have it re calibrated
  17. which is not provided by TAS
    tool manufacturer
  18. in the heterodyning or mixing process, what are the two new frequencies produced
    upper sideband (sum) and lower sideband (difference)
  19. which radio-frequency component is used to sample and input signal and does not have any moving parts
    Directional coupler
  20. the radio-frequency component used to prevent any feedback in a circuit is the
  21. the power meter
    can be operated manually or automatically
  22. what control compensates for a slight sensitivity associated with a particular type of power sensor?
  23. a power sensor is essentially a
  24. before a power meter can be used, the meter and power sensor must be
    calibrated together
  25. when calibrating the power sensor, you adjust the CAL ADJ control so the digital readout indicates
  26. before turning on the power meter, ensure it is
    set the match the line voltage you're using
  27. measuring relative power on a power meter is useful for
    troubleshooting stages of a component
  28. each division of the oscilloscope faceplate is
    one centimeter square
  29. the horizontal divisions of an oscilloscope faceplate are calibrates to the settings of the
    TIME/DIV control
  30. the VAR control of an oscilloscope must be in the calibrated detent or the time measurement will be
  31. when measuring time on an oscilloscope, multiply the trace distance between reference points by the stetting of the
    TIME?DIV control
  32. frequency is determined by the formula
    F = 1/T
  33. a spectrum analyzer is simply a receiver with the output of
    a CRT display instead of a speaker
  34. which control selects how much frequency band is represented by each division of a spectrum analyzer disply
  35. Before using the spectrum analyzer to make any measurements, you must calibrate it using the
    CAL OUTPUT signal
  36. Which piece of test equipment is primarily used to self-calibrate devices within equipment and test stations
    spectrum analyzer
  37. what does resolution mean in reference to a frequency counter
    the degree of accuracy of the reading
  38. when using a pulse generator, selecting the NORM mode produces a
    continuous pule output
  39. when using a pulse gernerator, the four control modes allow you to vary the output
    pule characteristics
  40. when using the START FREQ function key on a sweep oscillator to select the start frequency for start/stop sweep operation, the start frequency must be at least 100 Hz lower than the
    stop frequency
  41. when using a sweep oscillator, the sweep time has an allowable range of
    10ms to +200sec
  42. the 115 VAC, 400 Hz facility power input to a test station originates from the
    public utility line
  43. what type of power supply is computer-controlled to produce variable outputs
  44. the 400Hz facility power input to the test station is primarily used to
    develop all the necessary voltage for the test station TRUs and the LRUs involved in checkout procedures
  45. The 60 Hz facility power input to the test station is primarily used to
    provide power to cooling air blowers, measurement devices, and standard outlets
  46. the concept of rousing, inciting, or increasing action refers to
  47. which signal generator operates in the 20 Hz to 20 KHz frequency range
    audio frequency
  48. which signal generator operstes in the 1 GHz to 18 GHZ frequency range
  49. what device is designed to measure AC voltage, DC voltage, and resistance?
    Digital multimeter
  50. providing a visual display for measuring voltage and frequency is a function of the
  51. the concept of interconnecting UUT and test station recourses is
  52. overall test station switching can be classed as
    stimulus and measurement
  53. the most important test station function is
  54. what numbering system is most widely used to allow computers to perform their functions?
  55. Using IEEE-488 bus, devices can be linked in either linear, combination, or
    star configuration
  56. what is the maximum total cable length specified for the IEEE-488 bus
    20 meters
  57. At the maximum cable length specified for the IEEE-488 bus, how many devices can be connected?
  58. what type of interface is the IEEE-488 bus
  59. how many data lines does the IEEE-488 bus have
  60. the end of identity line, which is part of the IEEE-488 bus/interface management lines, has two uses. The first part is to indicate end-of-date, and the second is to
    initiate a parallel poll
  61. each device on the IEEE-488 bus has a unique bus address that starts at 0 and goes up to
  62. what device, usually a computer with an IEEE-488 board installed, always retains ultimate control of the bus
    system controller
  63. what process in the MIL-STD-1553B, transmits information from several sources through one system with different signals staggered in time to form a composite pule train?
  64. up to how many units or terminals on an aircraft is the MIL-STD-1553B data bus designed to allow transfer of information between
  65. referring to the MIL-STD-1553B bus architecture, how many buss controllers may be active on a 1553 multiplexed bus?
  66. Which element that makes up the MIL-STD-1553B data bus system, is an avionics unit designed to transfer data between an aircraft component and the data bus?
    remote terminal
  67. the data bus in the MIL-STD-1553B data bus system is made up of two types of stubs, the transformer-coupled and
    direct coupled
  68. what is the only device that transmits a command word in the MIL-STD-1553B
    bus controller
  69. refering to the MIL-STD-1553B data bus systems command, status, and data words, what is the only device that transmits a status word
    remote terminal
  70. referring to the VXI bus, there are two classification of devices with respect to register capabilities, on is register base and the other
    message base
  71. which slot of the VXI chassis has special resources suck as backplane clocks, configuration signals, and synchronization signals
    Leftmost slot (slot 0)
  72. which size(s) of the VXI bus modules is/are the true VME bus module size(s)
    A and B
  73. Using the MXI bus, a computer can be located directly next to the VXI mainframe or up to how many meters away?
  74. a computer or instrument with a MXI is called
    MXI device
  75. the MXI bus has two cables, a point-to-point cable and a
  76. a MXI bus system cansists of how many MXI bus devices connected in a daisy chain
    two or more
  77. what type of damage to the test station may result with improper usage of certain ATLAS system procedures
  78. what is always the first section of an ATLAS program
    Preamble structure
  79. what are the two basic fields that make up every ATLAS statement
    Fixed and variable
  80. what field of an ATLAS statement specifies in great detail exactly what is applied or how the timing of a signal is set up
  81. what type of ATLAS statement does not require that use of the rest of the test station to properly execute
  82. which type of nontest ATLAS statement alters the normal sequence of program flow?
  83. which ATLAS test statement generate a signal that can have more states than just "on" or "off"
    analog stimulus
  84. when calibrating ATE, you must consider
  85. in a PATEC calibration, which error is not associated with a systematic error?
  86. What organization sets national calibration standards
  87. what calibration ratio is necessary to ensure sufficient traceability of standards
  88. in PATEC equipment, what type of standard is a Rubidium frequency standard
  89. the CAPRE uses what type of computer
    ruggedized laptop
  90. the CAPRE is powered by a(n)
    AC adapter and lithium-Ion battery