CDC Volume 1 URE

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Author:
parkerb88
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15942
Filename:
CDC Volume 1 URE
Updated:
2010-12-27 15:41:47
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CDC Volume one
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URE
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  1. Your duty in maintenance is to ensure
    Assigned aircraft and equipment meets mission needs
  2. The primary focus of the maintenance effort should be
    preventative maintenance
  3. what the the two basic types of maintenance
    on-equipment and off-equipment
  4. what are the three maintenance levels
    Depot, intermediate, and organizational
  5. which level of maintenance involves repairing or replacing component parts in the back shop
    intermediate
  6. Depot-level maintenance is performed when equipment
    cannot be repaired at the other levels
  7. thr group commander monitors the assignment and use of maintenance personnel to ensure
    equitable distribution of skilled people among the squadron
  8. who is responsible for ensuring compliance with the wing environmental protection agency program
    squadron commander
  9. who is responsible to the squadron commander for maintenance production
    maintenance supervisor
  10. besides leaves, ancillary training, and details, what must the flight chief manage to minimize work force degradation
    additional duties
  11. the first-line manager and supervisor of maintenance production is the
    section chief
  12. aircraft on-equipment maintenance is performed by the
    aircraft maintenance squadron and maintenance squadron
  13. which maintenance squadron is responsible for servicing, maintaining, launching, and recovering assign aircraft
    AMXS
  14. Quality maintenance is the responsibility of maintenance technicians, supervisors, and commander, who work in concert with
    Quality Assurance (QA)
  15. Which urgency justification code is used to order a part for a piece of aerospace ground equipment (AGE)
    AA
  16. What is created when a requirement is placed on supply and insufficient assets are on hand to satisfy the request
    Due-out
  17. Although supply customers may cancel an obligated memo due-out at any time, when is the customer not granted credit for the quantity cancelled
    if the due-out was obligated in a prior fiscal year
  18. which form is used to request a local purchase item.
    DD form 1348-6
  19. what does the mark-for field on the AF form 2005 identify
    end item
  20. which of the following should you be able to do
    identify, report, and resolve deficiencies in materials received from supply
  21. the purpose of a deficiency report is to
    identify, report, and resolve deficiencies in materials received from supply
  22. the responsibility for preparing a draft deficiency report rest with the
    originator
  23. when is the due-in from maintenance (DIFM) clock stopped on a deficiency report exhibit
    when the exhibit, tags and a copy of the draft are turned in to supply
  24. how does supply know if an item is under warranty
    you put the words "WARRANTY ITEM" in block 15 of the AFTO Form 350
  25. Processing of a warranty action is at the discretion of the
    Personnel in the local contracting office
  26. which term is not an Air Force inspection concept
    preflight
  27. the program depot maintenance inspection concept applies to
    all of the above
  28. which type of inspection is performed before resuming flying activities after the aircraft has been inactive for a specific period of time
    preflight
  29. which type of inspection combines the hourly post flight and/or basic post flight inspections and periodic inspection requirements
    phase
  30. which type of inspection is designed to reduce the time an aircraft is out of commission for any given inspection
    phase
  31. the two best ways to prevent corrosion in a test station or a line replaceable unit are
    painting and cleaning
  32. which statement is not true concerning lubrication of your test station
    prevents the accumulation of dust and dirt.
  33. air force policy directives are orders of the
    Secretary of the Air Fore
  34. which type of publication is used by a unit to standardize local maintenance or safety procedures when they are not specified in an Air Force instruction or supplement
    operating instruction
  35. which is a publication of compiles information, arranged in systematic order
    directory
  36. what type of publication is graphical illustration that may permanent or temporary
    visual aid
  37. which type of technical order is an excerpt from ne or mare basic technical orders, and organizes or simplifies instruction
    abbreviated
  38. which type of technical order update is issues when only small parts of the TO are affected
    change
  39. what type of technical order update is issued when changed material affects more than 80 percent of the text
    revision
  40. what technical orders give general information and instruction in various subject areas for supervisory and administrative personnel
    methods and procedures
  41. what identifiers at the beginning of a technical order number indicates that it is a method and procedures technical order
    00
  42. what type of time compliance technical order is used to correct conditions that could result in fatal or serious injury to personnel, or extensive damage or destruction to valuable property
    Immediate action
  43. in addition to printing the words immediate action in red,how is an immediate action time compliance technical order identified on the first page
    • XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX
    • X Red X's around the border of the page X
    • XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX
  44. in addition to printing the words Urgent Action in red, what is used to identify an urgent action time compliance technical order on the first page
    • X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X
    • X\ Red Xs alternately spaced with red diagonals X\
    • X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X\X
  45. in what part of the technical order do you find warnings and cautions defined?
    safety summary
  46. the illustrated parts breakdown assigns each part of a system or equipment item
    a figure and index
  47. which column in an illustrated parts breakdown table indicates how many of each part are needed to completely put a section together
    units per assembly
  48. what must you do if you discover a condition requiring a technical order change
    submit a recommended change
  49. what gives you authority to correct a technical order deficiency or implement a change
    an official TO update
  50. the responsibility to ensure your recommend change is valid and warrens submittal rests with your
    supervisor
  51. Technical order deficiencies such as word omission and typographical errors that do not cause any pisinterpertation that would affect mission accomplishment may by submitted as
    minor correction
  52. which statement is true concerning all Air Force computer software?
    it's designated and managed as computer program configuration items (CPIC)
  53. how many major types of computer manuals are there
    two (2)
  54. the computer program identification number (CPIN) compendium 80-0-2 cross references CPINs and
    equipment part numbers
  55. which computer program identification number (CPIN) field identifies the category and major function of the system or subsystem that computer program configuration item (CPCI) was designed to operate, test, or support
    First
  56. the third field position of a computer program identification number (CPIN) compendium number indicates
    the type of software and sequence number
  57. Alpha code B in a computer program identification number (CPIN) compendium indicates what level of test software
    intermediate
  58. the major functions of the maintenance data documentation (MDD) system are collection,
    storage, and retrieval of maintenance information
  59. what technical order governs the maintenance data documentation (MDD) system?
    00-20-2
  60. why is maintenance data documentation (MDD) important at your base
    it provides the means for managing assigned equipment recourses and planning and scheduling maintenance
  61. the maintenance data documentation (MDD) process divides the documentation of production data into how many categories
    five
  62. which maintenance data documentation (MDD) code provides a means to tie together all maintenance actions taken relating to a specific job
    Job Control Number (JCN)
  63. what form is used to document maintenance data documentation (MDD) information for units that do not have access to the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)
    349
  64. What form is used to provide an interface between on and off equipment documentation?
    350
  65. the equipment status symbol used to indicate that a scheduled inspection is overdue is the red
    dash
  66. which equipment red status symbol indicates that an unsatisfactory condition exist but is not sufficiently dangerous enough to warrantdiscontinuing use of equipment
    Diagonal
  67. which IMDS subsystem provides management production to aid the user in forecasting inspection requirements
    Maintenance events
  68. which type of information should not be entered in the IMDS
    Classified
  69. Long-term difficulties are the result of
    bad information provided to the IMDS
  70. which type if maintenance is predictable and planned on a long or short term schedule
    scheduled
  71. to report, control, and identify each maintenance action, the IMDS uses
    an event number
  72. which IMDS screen might you production supervisor use at the beginning of a shift to assign jobs to personnel
    screen 380, Document Maintenance Inquiry
  73. when you order a part through the IMDS, what does it mean to get a kill notice
    the part is not available; you must backorder it
  74. who is required by Air Force Instruction 91-301 to provide specialized training, fire protection, and health on-the-job training to all assigned Air Force personnel
    Supervisor
  75. what Air Force form is used to document safety, fire protection, and health training unless otherwise specified
    55
  76. why should you keep your air force form 55 after you separate or retire from the air force
    it identifies the hazard you have been exposed to during your air force career
  77. we prevent or reduce the severity of personal injuries and property damage in the work area by
    identifying and eliminating unsafe acts of workers and unsafe conditions in the work area
  78. controlling of exposures to airborne chemical concentrations nearly all air fore personnel my be exposed to throughout their careers is covered by air force occupation and environmental safety, fire protection, and health (AFOSH) Standard (STD)
    48-8
  79. you can find the methods prescribed for the use and care of hand tools by referring to Technical Orders
    32-1-101
  80. Regarding your toolbox, how can you improve your efficiency in performing a job
    organize your tools so those used most frequently can be reached easily
  81. what is the recommend color coding for an electrical safety board
    dark green background with white letters and border
  82. what should you do with a compressed gas cylinder containing 25 psi or less
    mark the cylinder with the letters MT, close the valve, and secure the protective cap
  83. as part of the Radio Frequency Radiation Safety Program, who must ensure required warning signs and safety devices are in place and functional prior to beginning work
    Individual
  84. when extremely high noise levels are present and earmuffs do not reduce the noise to and acceptable level, you should use
    earmuffs and earplugs
  85. what AFI gives instruction on the acquisition, storage, and disposal of radioactive materials
    40-201
  86. what is a responsibility of the radiation safety officer
    check the receipt, storage, distribution, use, transfer, and disposal of radioactive materials for compliance with approved rules
  87. lever-operated hoists must only be used in
    a direct pull
  88. hoists must be attached to
    well defined dead-end points capable of handling the load
  89. what is the basis for laser hazard classification
    the ability of the primary laser beam or reflected primary laser beam to cause biological damage to the eye or skin during intended use
  90. for how long can a visit request remain valid
    one year
  91. what should you do if you inadvertently em-mail classified information over an unclassified system
    notify your security manager immediately
  92. what are the three classification levels
    confidential, secret, and top secret
  93. classified working papers must be treated like a finished document when they are retained
    more than 180 days, or when released outside the activity
  94. what is your best resource to determine the degree of protection necessary to safeguard classifies information for a specific system
    Unit security manager
  95. turn-in of classified assets must be
    received only by authorized personnel

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