Pharmacology

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Author:
Shanpaq
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159516
Filename:
Pharmacology
Updated:
2012-06-20 23:45:23
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Pharmacology test
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Final pharmacology 2 test
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  1. The presynaptic ganglion of the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system relases the following neurotransmitter:
    Acetylcholine
  2. The postsynaptic ganglion receptor (not the effector organ receptor) of the autonomic nervous system is:
    nicotinic
  3. Stimulation of the sweat gland by the sympathetic nervous system is via which neurotransmitter:
    acetylcholine
  4. Manifestation of flight or fight response:
    pupillary dilation
  5. Manifestation of the parasympathetic response:
    Increase in GI motility
  6. parasympathetic response in the heart:
    Decrease in the strength of the contraction; bradycardia
  7. Dry mouth, tachycardia, hypotension, papillary dilation are examples of the:
    adrenergic response
  8. Blocking the muscarinic receptor will result in a:
    adrenergic effect
  9. The side effects of urecholine include increased salvation, abdominal cramping, hypotension.  These effects are due to:
    cholinergic response
  10. The effects of urecholine can be reduced by drugs such as atropine cause atropine is which type of drug:
    anti-cholinergic
  11. S/E of atropine:
    constipation
  12. Minipress binde to the following receptor:
    alpha 1
  13. S/E of phenylephrine:
    glaucoma
  14. Indirect parasympathomimetics inhibit the following:
    acetylcholinesterase
  15. Used as an antidote for nerve gas poisoning:
    atropine
  16. Parasympathetic cause:
    bradycardia
  17. Salmetrol is used in management of acute asthma by having:
    Beta - 2 effects
  18. Pts on long term therapy for asthma, managed with inhaled steroids are at risk for:
    oral candidiasis
  19. The effects of Salmetrol may be blocked by:
    Beta blockers
  20. Steroids such as Beclamethasone are used in management of asthma because:
    They reduce inflammation.
  21. The effects of Salmetrol may be blocked by:
    beta blockers
  22. Hydrodiuril
    sodium absorption
  23. cardura
    alpha blocker
  24. Procardia
    CCB
  25. Vasotec
    renin pathway
  26. Apresoline
    Hydralazine
  27. Phophodiesterase
    Milrinone
  28. Renin
    ACE Inhibitors
  29. sodium/potassium ATPase
    Glycosides
  30. Sodium/potassium/chloride symport
    Furosemide
  31. Beta Receptors
    Potential to worsen HF
  32. Mechanism of action Ticlid:
    Inhibits platelet aggregation.
  33. Alteplase have the potential to:
    Break down fibrin
  34. Alteplase effects are ________ by aminocaproic acid
    antagonized
  35. Caution is warranted in pt taking both Amicar and oral contraceptives cause:
    Hypercoagulation
  36. Amiodarone may increase the level of quinidine and increase the risk for:
    Heart block
  37. Impotence is an observed side effect with inderal cause of:
    Decreased HR and thus ouput.
  38. The following may produce pneumonia like syndrome in pts treated for atrial dysrhythmia:
    Cardorone
  39. Phenothaizines have actions_______to Beta ADRENERGICS in pts treated with beta blockers:
    synergistic
  40. Inhibits inflow of calcium:
    Calan
  41. Blockade of inactivated potassium and sodum channels is the mechanism of action of this drug:
    Amiodarone
  42. Nitroglycerin
    sublingual
  43. Atenolol
    Tenormin
  44. Cardiazem
    ankle edema
  45. Reteplase
    Plasminogen Activator
  46. Metropolol
    Lopressor
  47. Norepinephrine is used in shock by promoting:
    vasoconstriction
  48. Inotropic effects of norepinephrine are mediated by:
    Beta 1 adrenergic
  49. Beta 1 blockers in a pt treated with Levophed will result in what kind of effects:
    Opposing effects at the level of the heart
  50. Precursor to norepinephrine:
    dopamine
  51. Dopostat at low doses stimulates this organ and results in vasodilation:
    kidneys
  52. Pts on the following class of antibiotics are more prone to sunburns:
    Tetracyclines
  53. Alternatives to beta-lactam due to allergies include the following class of drugs:
    Macrolides
  54. Cefotaxime inhibits bacteriocidal activity by inhibit the following:
    cell wall synthesis
  55. Photosensitivity is characteristic of the drug that exerts its efect via:
    protein synthesis
  56. In a recent culture sensitivity test, S. aureus was found to be methicillin resistant, the drug of choice for individuals infected with the strain is:
    Vancomycin
  57. Diphenhydramine can also be used in the management of motion sickness:
    true
  58. Benadryl can produce the following except:
    bronchoconstriction
  59. Fexofenadine is a second generation H2 blocker:
    true
  60. Systemic side effects are observed from fluticasone therapy which may include Addison's disease:
    false
  61. Afrin works by producing nasal vasodilation:
    true
  62. Often used in the management of status epilepticus, Lorazepam enhances its effects via the follow neurotransmitter:
    GABA
  63. Although this drug produces GABA mediated CNS depression, it is not a benzodiazepine and it mediates its effect by influx of:
    chloride
  64. By inhibiting the uptake of ____, Tofranil is often used in management of eneurisis:
    norepinephrine, serotonin
  65. Acute hypertension in a person after consumption of food, while taking MAOIs:
    Tyramine crisis
  66. Eskalith administered in normal individuals will result in the following effects:
    no response
  67. Hypertension in a pt treated with Methylphenidate is not due to the following neurotransmitter:
    none of the above
  68. MAOI as a treatment for depression is due to:
    decrease in the level of the enzyme monoamine oxidase, increase in serotonin in the synaptic cleft
  69. Fluoxetine does not increase the levels of the following neurotransmitter except:
    serotonin
  70. The following is an observed side effect in pt treated with TCA:
    tachycardia
  71. Sedative effects of Lorazepam are not due to the following except:
    GABA effects
  72. Bone marrow suppression is a side effect observed in pts on:
    Clozaril
  73. Clozaril binds to the following receptors:
    all of the above
  74. Tardive dyskinesia
    Bizarre tongue and face movements
  75. Acute dystonia
    severe spasms, twitching movements
  76. akathisia
    constant pacing, compulsive movements
  77. Parkinsonism
    tremor, muscle rigidity, shuffling gait
  78. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
    high fever, muscle rigidity, high serum creatinine
  79. Hypertrichosis is an observed side effect with this anti-epileptic:
    phenytoin
  80. This drug may be used in management of pts with bipolar disorder:
    valproic acid
  81. Phenytoin exerts its effects by:
    desensitizing sodium channels
  82. This drug in ineffective against absence seizures:
    Phenytoin
  83. This GABA mediated drug may increase the pt's sensitivity to pain if used for pain management:
    phenobarbital
  84. The primary target tissue of Provera:
    Endometrium
  85. Virulation is seen in which pt's therapy:
    testosterone
  86. Erectile tissue of the penis:
    Cavernosa
  87. Viagra and its side effect:
    Life threatening hypotension, flushing, nasal congestion, and headache.
  88. Enzyme inhibited by Finasteride:
    5 alpha reductase
  89. Side effects of latanoprost (Xalatan):
    Conjunctival edema, tearing, dryness, burning, pain, photphobia, visual disturbances, thickening/darkening eye lashes, pigmentation of iris and periocular skin, rash, headache, upper respiratory infection.
  90. Temporary adverse effect of acetylcholine chloride (Miochol):
    Increase outflow; cycloplegia, blurred vision, accomodation defects
  91. Category of therapy for Neomycin and hydrocortisone (Cortisporin)
    Aminoglycosides

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