HamExamG4c2.txt

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Author:
Colinsoon
ID:
160066
Filename:
HamExamG4c2.txt
Updated:
2012-06-25 21:06:33
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Ham
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Description:
Ham Exam General 2/3
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  1. G4A01
    ===============
    What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?
    ---------------
    A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
    B. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
    C. To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
    D. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. G4A02
    What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?
    ---------------
    A. Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
    B. More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
    C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
    D. Accidental out of band operation can be prevented
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. G4A03
    What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?
    ---------------
    A. The transmitter is emitting a SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
    B. The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
    C. The radio is operating at half power
    D. The transceiver is operating from an external power source
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. G4A04
    What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?
    ---------------
    A. A pronounced peak
    B. A pronounced dip
    C. No change will be observed
    D. A slow, rhythmic oscillation
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. G4A05
    What is a purpose of using Automatic Level Control (ALC) with a RF power amplifier?
    ---------------
    A. To reduce distortion due to excessive drive
    B. To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
    C. To reduce harmonic radiation
    D. To increase overall efficiency
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. G4A06
    What type of device is often used to enable matching the transmitter output to an impedance other than 50 ohms?
    ---------------
    A. SWR Bridge
    B. Q Multiplier
    C. Balanced modulator
    D. Antenna coupler
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. G4A07
    What condition can lead to permanent damage when using a solid-state RF power amplifier?
    ---------------
    A. Shorting the input signal to ground
    B. Exceeding the Maximum Usable Frequency
    C. Low input SWR
    D. Excessive drive power
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. G4A08
    What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?
    ---------------
    A. Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
    B. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
    C. Minimum SWR on the antenna
    D. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. G4A09
    Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?
    ---------------
    A. To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
    B. To prevent stations from talking over each other
    C. To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations
    D. To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. G4A10
    What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?
    ---------------
    A. Automatic transmit/receive switching
    B. VOX operation
    C. Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
    D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. G4A11
    Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?
    ---------------
    A. To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency
    B. To change frequency rapidly
    C. To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency
    D. To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. G4A12
    Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?
    ---------------
    A. To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time
    B. To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
    C. To permit ease of monitoring the transmit and receive frequencies when they are not the same
    D. To facilitate computer interface
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. G4A13
    What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?
    ---------------
    A. To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals
    B. To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
    C. To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
    D. To slow down received CW signals for better copy
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. G4A14
    How should the transceiver audio input be adjusted when transmitting PSK31 data signals?
    ---------------
    A. So that the transceiver ALC indicator shows half scale
    B. So that the transceiver operates at no more than 25% of rated power
    C. So that the transceiver is at maximum rated output power
    D. So that the transceiver ALC system does not activate
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. G4B01
    What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?
    ---------------
    A. An oscilloscope
    B. A signal generator
    C. An ammeter
    D. An ohmmeter
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. G4B02
    Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?
    ---------------
    A. Complex waveforms can be measured
    B. Complex impedances can be easily measured
    C. Input impedance is much lower
    D. An oscilloscope uses less power
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. G4B03
    Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?
    ---------------
    A. A sidetone monitor
    B. A wavemeter
    C. An oscilloscope
    D. A field-strength meter
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. G4B04
    What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?
    ---------------
    A. The transmitter balanced mixer output
    B. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
    C. An external RF oscillator
    D. The local oscillator of the transmitter
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. G4B05
    Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?
    ---------------
    A. It decreases battery consumption in the meter
    B. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
    C. It improves the frequency response
    D. It improves the resolution of the readings
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. G4B06
    What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?
    ---------------
    A. Better precision for most uses
    B. Better for measuring computer circuits
    C. Faster response
    D. Better for RF measurements
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. G4B07
    Which of the following might be a use for a field strength meter?
    ---------------
    A. An overmodulation indicator for a SSB transmitter
    B. A modulation monitor for a frequency or phase modulation transmitter
    C. A keying indicator for a RTTY or packet transmitter
    D. Close-in radio direction-finding
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. G4B08
    Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?
    ---------------
    A. A field-strength meter
    B. A Q meter
    C. A multimeter
    D. An antenna noise bridge
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. G4B09
    Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?
    ---------------
    A. The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter
    B. The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
    C. The radiation resistance of an antenna
    D. The radiation pattern of an antenna
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. G4B10
    Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?
    ---------------
    A. RF interference
    B. Antenna front-to-back ratio
    C. Standing wave ratio
    D. Radio wave propagation
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. G4B11
    Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?
    ---------------
    A. Transmitter
    B. All of these choices are correct
    C. Receiver
    D. Antenna and feed line
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. G4B12
    What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?
    ---------------
    A. Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
    B. Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
    C. The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
    D. SWR readings may be incorrect if the antenna is too close to the Earth
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. G4B13
    What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?
    ---------------
    A. Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna
    B. Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer
    C. Determining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable
    D. Determining the gain of a directional antenna
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. G4B14
    What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a numerical digital readout?
    ---------------
    A. When high precision is desired
    B. When adjusting tuned circuits
    C. When testing logic circuits
    D. When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. G4B15
    What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?
    ---------------
    A. Carrier and undesired sideband suppression
    B. Percentage of frequency modulation
    C. Linearity
    D. Percentage of carrier phase shift
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. G4B16
    What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?
    ---------------
    A. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90-degrees
    B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals
    C. Two swept frequency tones
    D. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. G4C01
    Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio-frequency devices?
    ---------------
    A. Bypass capacitor
    B. Forward-biased diode
    C. Reverse-biased diode
    D. Bypass inductor
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. G4C02
    Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?
    ---------------
    A. Arcing at a poor electrical connection
    B. The use of horizontal rather than vertical antennas
    C. Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
    D. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. G4C03
    What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single-sideband phone transmitter?
    ---------------
    A. On-and-off humming or clicking
    B. Clearly audible speech
    C. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
    D. Distorted speech
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. G4C04
    What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?
    ---------------
    A. Severely distorted audio
    B. A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
    C. On-and-off humming or clicking
    D. A chirpy CW signal
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. G4C05
    What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?
    ---------------
    A. The ground rod is resonant
    B. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
    C. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
    D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. G4C06
    What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?
    ---------------
    A. Overheating of ground straps
    B. Corrosion of the ground rod
    C. A ground loop
    D. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. G4C07
    What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?
    ---------------
    A. Use a ground loop for best conductivity
    B. Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire
    C. Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station
    D. Connect all equipment grounds together
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. G4C08
    Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?
    ---------------
    A. Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
    B. Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable
    C. Adding series capacitors to the conductors
    D. Placing a ferrite bead around the cable
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. G4C09
    How can a ground loop be avoided?
    ---------------
    A. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
    B. Connect all ground conductors in series
    C. Connect all ground conductors to a single point
    D. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. G4C10
    What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?
    ---------------
    A. You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
    B. An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
    C. The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
    D. You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. G4C11
    Which of the following is one use for a Digital Signal Processor in an amateur station?
    ---------------
    A. To remove noise from received signals
    B. To increase antenna gain
    C. To provide adequate grounding
    D. To increase antenna bandwidth
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. G4C12
    Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver Digital Signal Processor IF filter as compared to an analog filter?
    ---------------
    A. Mixing products are greatly reduced
    B. Fewer digital components are required
    C. A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
    D. The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. G4C13
    Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?
    ---------------
    A. Band-pass tuning
    B. A noise limiter
    C. Balanced mixing
    D. A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. G4D - Speech processors; S meters; sideband operation near band edges

    G4D01
    What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?
    ---------------
    A. Prevent distortion of voice signals
    B. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
    C. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
    D. Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. G4D02
    Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?
    ---------------
    A. It reduces intermodulation distortion
    B. It increases average power
    C. It increases peak power
    D. It reduces harmonic distortion
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. G4D03
    Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?
    ---------------
    A. Distorted speech
    B. Excessive background pickup
    C. Splatter
    D. All of these choices are correct
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. G4D04
    What does an S meter measure?
    ---------------
    A. Transmitter power output
    B. Impedance
    C. Received signal strength
    D. Conductance
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. G4D05
    How does an S meter reading of 20 dB over S-9 compare to an S-9 signal, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?
    ---------------
    A. It is 10 times weaker
    B. It is 100 times stronger
    C. It is 20 times stronger
    D. It is 20 times weaker
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. G4D06
    Where is an S meter found?
    ---------------
    A. In a receiver
    B. In an SWR bridge
    C. In a conductance bridge
    D. In a transmitter
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. G4D07
    How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S- meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?
    ---------------
    A. Approximately 4 times
    B. Approximately 1.5 times
    C. Approximately 2 times
    D. Approximately 8 times
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. G4D08
    What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?
    ---------------
    A. 7.178 to 7.184 MHz
    B. 7.175 to 7.178 MHz
    C. 7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
    D. 7.178 to 7.181 MHz
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. G4D09
    What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?
    ---------------
    A. 14.347 to 14.647 MHz
    B. 14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz
    C. 14.344 to 14.347 MHz
    D. 14.347 to 14.350 MHz
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. G4D10
    How close to the lower edge of the 40 meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?
    ---------------
    A. Center your signal on the edge of the segment
    B. Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
    C. 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
    D. 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. G4D11
    How close to the upper edge of the 20 meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?
    ---------------
    A. Center your signal on the edge of the band
    B. 3 kHz below the edge of the band
    C. Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
    D. 3 kHz above the edge of the band
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. G4E01
    What is a "capacitance hat", when referring to a mobile antenna?
    ---------------
    A. A device that allows remote tuning of a mobile antenna
    B. A device to increase the power handling capacity of a mobile whip antenna
    C. A device to electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
    D. A device that allows automatic band-changing for a mobile antenna
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. G4E02
    What is the purpose of a "corona ball" on a HF mobile antenna?
    ---------------
    A. To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
    B. To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna
    C. To increase the "Q" of the antenna
    D. To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. G4E03
    Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?
    ---------------
    A. To the battery using resistor wire
    B. To the alternator or generator using resistor wire
    C. To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
    D. To the battery using heavy gauge wire
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. G4E04
    Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver from an automobile's auxiliary power socket?
    ---------------
    A. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
    B. The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current being drawn by the
    transceiver
    C. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF
    transceivers
    D. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
  59. G4E05
    Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75 meter band?
    ---------------
    A. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
    B. FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75 meter band
    C. The antenna system
    D. "Picket Fencing" signal variation
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. G4E06
    What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?
    ---------------
    A. Operating bandwidth may be very limited
    B. Short antennas can only receive vertically polarized signals
    C. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
    D. Harmonic radiation may increase
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. G4E07
    Which of the following is the most likely to cause interfering signals to be heard in the receiver of an HF mobile installation in a recent model vehicle?
    ---------------
    A. The anti-theft circuitry
    B. The anti-lock braking system
    C. The vehicle control computer
    D. The battery charging system
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. G4E08
    What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?
    ---------------
    A. Photon decomposition
    B. Photovoltaic conversion
    C. Photosynthesis
    D. Photon emission
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. G4E09
    What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a modern, well-illuminated photovoltaic cell?
    ---------------
    A. 0.5 VDC
    B. 0.02 VDC
    C. 0.2 VDC
    D. 1.38 VDC
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. G4E10
    What is the reason a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?
    ---------------
    A. The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination
    B. The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge
    C. The diode prevents self discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination
    D. The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. G4E11
    Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?
    ---------------
    A. The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
    B. All of these choices are correct
    C. A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
    D. The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. G5A01
    What is impedance?
    ---------------
    A. The electric charge stored by a capacitor
    B. The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields
    C. The inverse of resistance
    D. The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. G5A02
    What is reactance?
    ---------------
    A. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
    B. A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
    C. Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
    D. A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. G5A03
    Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?
    ---------------
    A. Reluctance
    B. Admittance
    C. Reactance
    D. Conductance
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. G5A04
    Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?
    ---------------
    A. Reactance
    B. Conductance
    C. Reluctance
    D. Admittance
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. G5A05
    How does an inductor react to AC?
    ---------------
    A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
    B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
    C. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
    D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. G5A06
    How does a capacitor react to AC?
    ---------------
    A. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
    B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
    C. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
    D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. G5A07
    What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the internal impedance of the power source?
    ---------------
    A. The source can deliver maximum power to the load
    B. No current can flow through the circuit
    C. The source delivers minimum power to the load
    D. The electrical load is shorted
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. G5A08
    Why is impedance matching important?
    ---------------
    A. To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
    B. So the load will draw minimum power from the source
    C. To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
    D. So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. G5A09
    What unit is used to measure reactance?
    ---------------
    A. Ohm
    B. Siemens
    C. Farad
    D. Ampere
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. G5A10
    What unit is used to measure impedance?
    ---------------
    A. Volt
    B. Ohm
    C. Ampere
    D. Watt
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. G5A11
    Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?
    ---------------
    A. Reduce the power output of the first circuit
    B. Insert a circulator between the two circuits
    C. Increase the power output of the first circuit
    D. Insert an LC network between the two circuits
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. G5A12
    What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?
    ---------------
    A. To maximize the transfer of power
    B. To minimize transmitter power output
    C. To reduce power supply ripple
    D. To minimize radiation resistance
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. G5A13
    Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?
    ---------------
    A. A length of transmission line
    B. A transformer
    C. All of these choices are correct
    D. A Pi-network
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. G5B01
    A two-times increase or decrease in power results in a change of how many dB?
    ---------------
    A. Approximately 2 dB
    B. Approximately 3 dB
    C. Approximately 6 dB
    D. Approximately 12 dB
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
  80. G5B02
    How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a parallel circuit?
    ---------------
    A. It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
    B. It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
    C. It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
    D. It equals the average of each branch current
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. G5B03
    How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?
    ---------------
    A. 400 watts
    B. 200 watts
    C. 0.5 watts
    D. 3200 watts
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. G5B04
    How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12-VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?
    ---------------
    A. 24 watts
    B. 2.4 watts
    C. 6 watts
    D. 60 watts
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. G5B05
    How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms?
    ---------------
    A. Approximately 61 watts
    B. Approximately 11 milliwatts
    C. Approximately 61 milliwatts
    D. Approximately 11 watts
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. G5B06
    What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?
    ---------------
    A. 400 watts
    B. 353.5 watts
    C. 100 watts
    D. 1.4 watts
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. G5B07
    Which value of an AC signal results in the same power dissipation as a DC voltage of the same value?
    ---------------
    A. The RMS value
    B. The peak-to-peak value
    C. The peak value
    D. The reciprocal of the RMS value
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. G5B08
    What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave that has an RMS voltage of 120 volts?
    ---------------
    A. 339.4 volts
    B. 240.0 volts
    C. 84.8 volts
    D. 169.7 volts
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. G5B09
    What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?
    ---------------
    A. 34 volts
    B. 12 volts
    C. 8.5 volts
    D. 24 volts
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. G5B10
    What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?
    ---------------
    A. 20.5%
    B. 12.2%
    C. 25.9%
    D. 10.9%
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. G5B11
    What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?
    ---------------
    A. 1.00
    B. 2.00
    C. .707
    D. 1.414
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. G5B12
    What would be the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?
    ---------------
    A. 692 volts
    B. 245 volts
    C. 346 volts
    D. 173 volts
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. G5B13
    What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?
    ---------------
    A. 1060 watts
    B. 2120 watts
    C. 1500 watts
    D. 530 watts
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. G5B14
    What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm resistor connected to the transmitter output?
    ---------------
    A. 2500 watts
    B. 625 watts
    C. 5000 watts
    D. 8.75 watts
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. G5C01
    What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?
    ---------------
    A. Displacement current coupling
    B. Mutual inductance
    C. Mutual capacitance
    D. Capacitive coupling
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. G5C02
    Which part of a transformer is normally connected to the incoming source of energy?
    ---------------
    A. The plates
    B. The primary
    C. The secondary
    D. The core
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. G5C03
    Which of the following components should be added to an existing resistor to increase the resistance?
    ---------------
    A. A capacitor in parallel
    B. A resistor in parallel
    C. A capacitor in series
    D. A resistor in series
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. G5C04
    What is the total resistance of three 100-ohm resistors in parallel?
    ---------------
    A. 300 ohms
    B. .33 ohms
    C. .30 ohms
    D. 33.3 ohms
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. G5C05
    If three equal value resistors in parallel produce 50 ohms of resistance, and the same three resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?
    ---------------
    A. 175 ohms
    B. 90 ohms
    C. 150 ohms
    D. 1500 ohms
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. G5C06
    What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?
    ---------------
    A. 2370 volts
    B. 26.7 volts
    C. 5.9 volts
    D. 540 volts
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. G5C07
    What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having a 600-ohm output impedance to a speaker having a 4-ohm impedance?
    ---------------
    A. 12.2 to 1
    B. 150 to 1
    C. 24.4 to 1
    D. 300 to 1
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. G5C08
    What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5000 picofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?
    ---------------
    A. 10750 picofarads
    B. 3583 picofarads
    C. 1733 picofarads
    D. 576.9 picofarads
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. G5C09
    What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?
    ---------------
    A. 300 microfarads
    B. .30 microfarads
    C. .33 microfarads
    D. 33.3 microfarads
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. G5C10
    What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?
    ---------------
    A. 3.3 Henrys
    B. 30 millihenrys
    C. 3.3 millihenrys
    D. .30 Henrys
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. G5C11
    What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?
    ---------------
    A. 14.3 millihenrys
    B. 1000 millihenrys
    C. 70 millihenrys
    D. .07 millihenrys
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. G5C12
    What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?
    ---------------
    A. 14.3 microfarads
    B. 70 microfarads
    C. .07 microfarads
    D. 1000 microfarads
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. G5C13
    Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?
    ---------------
    A. A capacitor in parallel
    B. A resistor in series
    C. An inductor in series
    D. A capacitor in series
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. G5C14
    Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?
    ---------------
    A. A resistor in parallel
    B. An inductor in series
    C. An inductor in parallel
    D. A capacitor in series
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. G5C15
    What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor in parallel?
    ---------------
    A. 10000 ohms
    B. 5.9 ohms
    C. 0.17 ohms
    D. 80 ohms
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. G6A01
    Which of the following is an important characteristic for capacitors used to filter the DC output of a switching power supply?
    ---------------
    A. Low equivalent series resistance
    B. High equivalent series resistance
    C. High Temperature coefficient
    D. Low Temperature coefficient
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. G6A02
    Which of the following types of capacitors are often used in power supply circuits to filter the rectified AC?
    ---------------
    A. Vacuum variable
    B. Disc ceramic
    C. Electrolytic
    D. Mica
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. G6A03
    Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?
    ---------------
    A. Comparatively low cost
    B. High capacitance for given volume
    C. High stability
    D. Tight tolerance
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. G6A04
    Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?
    ---------------
    A. Tight tolerance
    B. High capacitance for given volume
    C. Non-polarized
    D. Inexpensive RF capacitor
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. G6A05
    Which of the following is one effect of lead inductance in a capacitor used at VHF and above?
    ---------------
    A. ESR may be reduced
    B. Voltage rating may be reduced
    C. The polarity of the capacitor might become reversed
    D. Effective capacitance may be reduced
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. G6A06
    What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased?
    ---------------
    A. It will become time dependent
    B. It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient
    C. It will stay the same
    D. It will change depending on the resistor�s reactance coefficient
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. G6A07
    Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit?
    ---------------
    A. The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit
    B. The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
    C. The resistor could overheat
    D. The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. G6A08
    Which of the following describes a thermistor?
    ---------------
    A. A capacitor that changes value with temperature
    B. A device having a specific change in resistance with temperature variations
    C. A special type of transistor for use at very cold temperatures
    D. A resistor that is resistant to changes in value with temperature variations
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. G6A09
    What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?
    ---------------
    A. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
    B. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
    C. All of these choices are correct
    D. Large values of inductance may be obtained
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. G6A10
    How should the winding axes of solenoid inductors be placed to minimize their mutual inductance?
    ---------------
    A. Parallel to each other
    B. Interleaved
    C. At right angles
    D. In line
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. G6A11
    Why would it be important to minimize the mutual inductance between two inductors?
    ---------------
    A. To reduce conducted emissions
    B. To reduce unwanted coupling between circuits
    C. To increase the self-resonant frequency of the inductors
    D. To increase the energy transfer between circuits
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. G6A12
    What is a common name for an inductor used to help smooth the DC output from the rectifier in a conventional power supply?
    ---------------
    A. Repulsion coil
    B. Charging inductor
    C. Filter choke
    D. Back EMF choke
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. G6A13
    What is an effect of inter-turn capacitance in an inductor?
    ---------------
    A. The permeability will increase
    B. The magnetic field may become inverted
    C. The voltage rating may be exceeded
    D. The inductor may become self resonant at some frequencies
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. G6B01
    What is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a rectifier?
    ---------------
    A. The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the non-conducting direction
    B. 2.8 times the AC frequency
    C. 1.4 times the AC frequency
    D. The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the conducting direction
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. G6B02
    What are two major ratings that must not be exceeded for silicon diode rectifiers?
    ---------------
    A. Peak load impedance; peak voltage
    B. Peak inverse voltage; average forward current
    C. Capacitive reactance; avalanche voltage
    D. Average power; average voltage
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. G6B03
    What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?
    ---------------
    A. 0.3 volts
    B. 1.0 volts
    C. 0.7 volts
    D. 0.1 volt
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. G6B04
    When two or more diodes are connected in parallel to increase current handling capacity, what is the purpose of the resistor connected in series with each diode?
    ---------------
    A. To act as an inductor
    B. To ensure the thermal stability of the power supply
    C. To ensure that one diode doesn't carry most of the current
    D. To regulate the power supply output voltage
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. G6B05
    What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?
    ---------------
    A. 1.0 volts
    B. 0.7 volts
    C. 0.3 volts
    D. 0.1 volt
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. G6B06
    Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit as compared to a standard silicon diode?
    ---------------
    A. Higher breakdown voltage
    B. Lower inductance
    C. Longer switching times
    D. Lower capacitance
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. G6B07
    What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?
    ---------------
    A. Its saturation and cut-off regions
    B. Its enhancement and deletion modes
    C. Its peak and valley current points
    D. Its active region (between the cut-off and saturation regions)
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. G6B08
    Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?
    ---------------
    A. To improve the power dissipation capability
    B. To reduce stray capacitance
    C. To increase the beta of the transistor
    D. To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. G6B09
    Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?
    ---------------
    A. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
    B. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
    C. The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
    D. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. G6B10
    Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?
    ---------------
    A. Screen Grid
    B. Control grid
    C. Trigger electrode
    D. Heater
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. G6B11
    Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?
    ---------------
    A. A varistor
    B. A tunnel diode
    C. A Field Effect Transistor
    D. A bipolar transistor
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. G6B12
    What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?
    ---------------
    A. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
    B. To decrease plate resistance
    C. To increase efficiency
    D. To increase the control grid resistance
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. G6B13
    What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?
    ---------------
    A. High discharge current
    B. High voltage
    C. Rapid recharge
    D. Long life
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  134. G6B14
    What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?
    ---------------
    A. 12 volts
    B. 6 volts
    C. 8.5 volts
    D. 10.5 volts
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. G6B15
    When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary cell?
    ---------------
    A. Never
    B. As long as the voltage has not been allowed to drop below 1.0 volt
    C. When the cell is kept warm during the recharging period
    D. When a constant current charger is used
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. G6C01
    Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?
    ---------------
    A. Linear voltage regulator
    B. Frequency Counter
    C. NAND Gate
    D. Microprocessor
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. G6C02
    What is meant by the term MMIC?
    ---------------
    A. Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
    B. Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
    C. Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit
    D. Military-specification Manufactured Integrated Circuit
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. G6C03
    Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?
    ---------------
    A. High power handling capability
    B. Better suited for RF amplification
    C. Better suited for power supply regulation
    D. Low power consumption
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. G6C04
    What is meant by the term ROM?
    ---------------
    A. Resistor Operated Memory
    B. Read Only Memory
    C. Random Operational Memory
    D. Resistant to Overload Memory
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. G6C05
    What is meant when memory is characterized as "non-volatile"?
    ---------------
    A. The stored information cannot be changed once written
    B. The stored information is maintained even if power is removed
    C. It is resistant to high temperatures
    D. It is resistant to radiation damage
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. G6C06
    Which of the following describes an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
    ---------------
    A. MMIC
    B. Programmable Logic
    C. Digital
    D. Analog
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  142. G6C07
    What is one disadvantage of an incandescent indicator compared to an LED?
    ---------------
    A. High power consumption
    B. Low power consumption
    C. Long life
    D. High speed
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  143. G6C08
    How is an LED biased when emitting light?
    ---------------
    A. At the Zener voltage
    B. Reverse Biased
    C. Forward Biased
    D. Beyond cutoff
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  144. G6C09
    Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?
    ---------------
    A. It requires ambient or back lighting
    B. It offers a wide dynamic range
    C. All of these choices are correct
    D. It has a wide viewing angle
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. G6C10
    What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be connected using a USB interface?
    ---------------
    A. Computer and transceiver
    B. Amplifier and antenna
    C. Microphone and transceiver
    D. Power supply and amplifier
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. G6C11
    What is a microprocessor?
    ---------------
    A. A low voltage amplifier used in a microwave transmitter modulator stage
    B. A computer on a single integrated circuit
    C. A microwave detector, amplifier, and local oscillator on a single integrated circuit
    D. A low power analog signal processor used as a microwave detector
    ---------------
    =>
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  147. G6C12
    Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?
    ---------------
    A. Type N
    B. Type SMA
    C. DE-9
    D. PL-259
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. G6C13
    Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF service at frequencies up to 150 MHz?
    ---------------
    A. PL-259
    B. DB-25
    C. RJ-11
    D. Octal
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  149. G6C14
    Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?
    ---------------
    A. RCA Phono
    B. BNC
    C. Type N
    D. PL-259
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  150. G6C15
    What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of non-keyed types?
    ---------------
    A. All of these choices are correct
    B. Prevention of use by unauthorized persons
    C. Higher current carrying capacity
    D. Reduced chance of incorrect mating
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  151. G6C16
    Which of the following describes a type-N connector?
    ---------------
    A. A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
    B. An audio connector used in surround-sound installations
    C. A threaded connector used for hydraulic systems
    D. A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
    ---------------
    =>
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  152. G6C17
    What is the general description of a DIN type connector?
    ---------------
    A. A special watertight connector for use in marine applications
    B. A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes
    C. A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals
    D. A special connector for microwave interfacing
    ---------------
    =>
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  153. G6C18
    What is a type SMA connector?
    ---------------
    A. A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
    B. A large bayonet-type connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW
    C. A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
    D. A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
    ---------------
    =>
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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