Simuflite King Air 350 Memory Items part 2

Card Set Information

Simuflite King Air 350 Memory Items part 2
2012-06-27 02:48:56
simuflite king air 350 oral exam preparation prep memory items

Study guide for oral exam, Simuflite King Air 350, part II
Show Answers:

  1. What is the total fuel capacity?
    • 3611 pounds ( 539 gallons) total
    • Each main and nacelle tank, 190 gal;
    • Each aux tank, 79.5 gal
  2. What pump normally pumps motive flow fuel through the auxiliary tank's venturi type jet pump?
    engine-driven boost pump
  3. What 4 things happen when you select crossfeed?
    • 1.  crossfeed valve opens
    • 2.  boost pump on the supply side turns on
    • 3.  motive flow valve on the receiving side closes
    • 4.  crossfeed light illuminates
  4. What is the maximum fuel imbalance?
    300 pounds
  5. What safety device prevents you from crossfeeding with both engines running?
    There is no device that prevents you from crossfeeding with both engines running.
  6. What are the limitations for using AVGAS in the King Air 350?
    150 hours of use between overhauls.
  7. What does the Fuel Press Low annunciator indicate?
    less than 10 PSI in the fuel line
  8. What is the yellow arc on the fuel gauge?
    0-265 pounds of fuel -- do not takeoff in this range.
  9. What holds up the landing gear in flight?
    hydraulic pressure
  10. If the landing gear doesn't go down when you lower the handle, what should you do?
    Refer to the checklist.
  11. During gear retraction, what turns off the electrical motor driving the hydraulic power pack?
    2775 PSI pressure switch or a 14 second timer
  12. What is the maximum gear extension speed?
    184 KIAS
  13. What is the maximum landing gear retraction speed?
    166 KIAS
  14. What is the proper procedure for setting the parking brake?
    Apply pressure to the pedals and then pull the parking brake handle.
  15. Where is the brake fluid reservoir located?
    Avionics bay, left side of nose
  16. What are the Landing Gear cycle limits?
    1 cycle (1 up, 1 down) every 5 minutes; total of 6 cycles, then a 15 minute cool down
  17. How are the primary flight controls actuated?
    Cables, Pulley, and Bellcranks
  18. Which electric trim, pilot's or copilot's, has priority?
    Pilot's will override the copilot's trim
  19. Loss of electrical power to the flap indicator will cause what indication?
    the indicator pointer fails and it points to the 11 o'clock position
  20. What is the maximum altitude without yaw damper?
    5000 feet
  21. How does the rudder boost system detect an engine power loss?
    engine torque meter oil pressure is compared and detects a 30% torque differential
  22. Is there split flap protection between wings?
    No, only between inboard and outboard section on each wing.
  23. Where is bleed air for pneumatics extracted from the engine?
    After the centrifugal compressor (P3 port)
  24. What is the max cabin pressure differential?
    6.6 PSI
  25. how can you determine if the pneumatic bleed valve has closed completely?
    Both switches in "pneu & envir off" position and observe 0 (zero) on the pneumatic pressure gauge
  26. In an electrical failure, what will the pneumatic shutoff do?
    Remain open, since it is a normally open valve
  27. What position should the environmental bleed switch be in when operating at temperatures of 10o C or greater?
  28. What N1 setting is required to engage the air conditioner compressor clutch?
  29. When will the vent blower operate in the HI mode?
    When the vent blower switch is selected to HI
  30. Altitude limiters begin closing the outflow and safety valves at what cabin altitudes?
    13,000 ft PA
  31. How should the pressurization controller be set prior to landing?
    500 feet above field pressure altitude
  32. where is crew and passenger oxygen stored?
    in an oxygen bottle in the tail
  33. What prevents the aircraft from pressurizing on the ground?
    The safety valve
  34. how can the aircraft be pressurized on the ground?
    placing the pressurization switch in the TEST position
  35. With the shutoff valve closed, where is oxygen available?
    At the bottle
  36. Where can oxygen pressure be monitored?
    gauges in the cockpit and at the filler door
  37. What are the modes of operation on the crew's oxygen masks?
    normal, 100%, and emergency
  38. How much ice does the manufacturer recommend to build before inflating the deice boots?
    1/2 inch
  39. What happens when you select single cycle on the de icers?
    Wing boots inflate for 6 seconds, then the tail boots inflate for 4 seconds.
  40. What is the normal amperage for the prop deice?
    26-32 Amps or Green Arc
  41. What is the minimum OAT to use the service de-ice boots?
  42. What will the prop ammeter show when using MANUAL prop deice?
  43. How can you tell the manual prop de-ice system is operating?
    Loadmeters will indicate an approximate 10% increase in load
  44. What anti-ice is on for all flights?
    Hot five-- 2 pitot heats; 2 fuel vents; & stall warning
  45. What is the max temperature for takeoff with the engine anti-ice on?
    10o C
  46. How long will it take the battery to discharge with a dual generator failure and a 40A electrical load?
    40 min
  47. Explain how to maually extend the landing gear.
    Refer to checklist
  48. What will happen if the primary governor fails?
    The overspeed governor will hold the prop at 1768 RPM
  49. What is the max landing weight?
    15,000 pounds
  50. The airstair door is limited to how much weight at a time?
    300 pounds
  51. What is zero fuel weight?
    12,500 pounds
  52. What is TOFL?
    • The greatest of:
    • -Accelerate-Stop with engine failure at V1
    • -Accelerate-go with engine failure at V1 and V2 achieved at 35 feet above runway
    • -Takeoff distance with all engines operating,V35 acheived at 35 ft above runway, + 15%
  53. During a landing roll out at what speed should you stop using reverse?
    40 KIAS