System Written Review

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Author:
vicoliveira
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160698
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System Written Review
Updated:
2012-07-07 21:24:09
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System Written Review
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System Written Review
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  1. How is a captured (active) Flight Director mode indicated?
    The mode is annunciated in green on the EADI
  2. Moving the A/P switch to engage ALSO engages the YD.
    True
  3. In APPROACH mode you CAN turn off the Flight Director
    False
  4. What must be done if both EADI and EHSI blank out on one side? (DPU fail)
    Place the EFIS switch to DRIVE TRANSFER (XFER)
  5. What does it mean if the yellow XATT annunciator is displayed on the CRT
    • XSIDE DATA selected
    • Data is being received from the opposite AHRS
    • The DPU is operating normally
    • All of the above
  6. The bottom governor is activated when the condition levers are moved into MIN-MAX and Prop RPM above 830 or 581
    True
  7. What is max starter duty cycle?
    30 seconds motoring, 70 seconds max
  8. What is normal bottom governing speed?
    1040 PRPM
  9. At what speed will the propeller overspeed protection system activate? 14-20
    1453 PRPM
  10. Which of the following inputs are not received by the autocoarsen computer?
    Condition Lever
  11. The starter converts to a generator at what Ng speed?
    60%
  12. What is indictated by the R ENG OIL PRESS annunciator light coming on?
    • Engine oil press dropped below 30psi
    • The right PGB oil pressure has dropped below 25psi with PL greater than FLT idle
    • Either A or B
  13. What will illuminate the CABIN PRESS annunciator light? 2-2
    • Cabin altitude exceeds 10,000’
    • Cabin pressure exceeds 7.5psi
    • Both A and C
  14. How many hydraulic accumulators are on the aircraft? 10-5
    4
  15. The flaps, landing gear, and nose wheel steering ARE operated by the hydraulicsystem? 10-1
    True
  16. When will the hydraulic system operate? 10-4
    • When the hydraulic press drops below 2100psi
    • When the hydraulic pump switch is placed in OVRD
    • Both A and C
  17. The HYDR annunciator light comes on to indicate? 10-5
    • Low pressure (<1850psi) in main
    • Low pressure in the emergency accumulator
    • High fluid temperature (116˚C) in main reservoir
    • All of the above
  18. What is the accumulator nitrogen pre-charge pressure? 10-5
    1650psi
  19. The hydraulic system has TWO pumps (main & standby) 10-3
    True
  20. What does pulling the fire handle do?
    • Silences fire bell
    • Arms squibs
    • Closes fuel shut-off valve
    • Resets fire warnings
    • Opens GEN relay
    • Closes bleed valve
    • All of the above
  21. Which area does not have smoke detection?
    Engine compartment
  22. The fire extinguishing system is powered by which electrical system?
    Hot battery bus
  23. If the TAIL PIPE HOT warning annunciator light remains on after reducing thepower, the fire bottle SHOULD be discharged
    False. It should not.
  24. Which of the following is pneumatics not used for?
    Engine start
  25. It IS acceptable to open the bleed air cross valve in flight
    False. It is not
  26. Power to the propeller blades in the NORM position is __ seconds on, __ secondsoff, and in MAX position it is __ seconds on, __ seconds off
    11,79,90,90
  27. What causes the L or R PROP caution light to come on? 11-16
    • Over current
    • AC or DC failure
    • Timer not cycling or on continuously
    • All of the above 
  28. The LP bleed air valve will close when:
    The compressor discharge temperature exceeds 225˚C
  29. The LEFT ACM pack normally supplies air to the cockpit and cabin 2-12
    False. Right
  30. The ram air scoop supplies ventilation to the cabin 2-15
    With one pack deferred and the other pack failed
  31. What minimum cruise airspeed is required when using ram air?
    210kts
  32. What will happen if a recirculation fan drops below 80%?
    The L/R RECIRC light will come on
  33. The primary & secondary outflow valves are of what type? 2-25
    Electropneumatic, Pneumatic
  34. **What is maximum differential pressure for the cabin?
    • 7.5psi
    • 7.1 AUTO 
  35. What is the blade angle at ground idle? 14-20
  36. What is the blade angle at flight idle? 14-20
    10˚ or greater
  37. At what speed will the DECU signal the ODV to cut fuel to the nozzles?
    1573 PRPM
  38. The fuel is heated by PGB oil
    True
  39. How many fire bottles are in the engine extinguishing system?
    2 (1 in each engine)
  40. What causes the engine fire handle to illuminate? 6-2
    A gradual change in resistance in the fire detection loop circuit
  41. The landing gear retracts forward
    True
  42. Normally, the landing gear is
    Held up by mechanical uplocks
  43. During emergency gear extension
    Explosive bolts disconnect the gear doors from the gear
  44. The Anti-skid is OPERATIVE below 20 kts
    False. INOPERATIVE
  45. The gust lock system locks
    The elevator mechanically
  46. The standby pitch trim on the center console actuates the LEFT elevator trimtab
    False. Right
  47. Which of the following will not give a CONFIG warning on takeoff?
    Weight on wheels switch compressed
  48. The approximate fuel capacity in each wing is 2845lbs
    True
  49. When does the L LOW LEVEL fuel caution annunciator light come on? 9-16
    When fuel in the tank reaches 300 lbs (±70lbs)
  50. The MAIN engine driven fuel pump is normally used alone for engine starts
    False. STBY
  51. Why does the L VALVE CLOSED annunciator light come on?
    The left fuel (fire) shutoff valve has closed
  52. The Pilot CANNOT read the fuel temperature directly from the cockpit
    False. Can
  53. Where is the high pressure fuel pump located?
    In the HMU
  54. Illumination of the BETA light indicates that
    The propeller blade angle is less than +8 degrees
  55. The door indicating system will alert the pilot by a caution light if:
    Either the main entrance door, the cargo door, or the cockpit hatch is unlocked
  56. The engine fire sensor:
    Will give no indication if broken in flight
  57. Maximum propeller RPM during takeoff is
    1396 PRPM
  58. Lights that will illuminate initially with a bleed air over-temp or over-pressure are:
    • Master Cautionon
    • Air COND ↑
    • BLD FAULT
    • All of the above
  59. The constant speed governor has a speed range of 14-25
    1150 – 1396 PRPM
  60. The BUS TIE will connect in the auto position
    If one DC generator is lost in flight
  61. What temperature will a battery relay open if the battery switch is not in override?
    71ºC
  62. What is the Wild AC generator used for?
    To power the ice protection system
  63. The generator WILL trip off line if the GEN OVERTEMP light comes on
    False. It will not
  64. How is the Emergency bus powered?
    From the emergency battery if the left battery bus is below 24V
  65. The main batteries are lead acid
    False. They are Nickel Cadium
  66. How much voltage is available for a battery start
    48 Volts
  67. With a dual DC generator failure, the electric hydraulic pump will not work
    False. It will
  68. The maximum certified ceiling (for airline use) for the SF-340 is?
    FL250
  69. The right emergency door and emergency window exits are plug type
    True.
  70. What is the normal propeller tip to ground clearance
    20 inches
  71. What is maneuvering speed
    180 kts
  72. What is normal engine oil pressure range
    30-100 psi
  73. When the HP lead is in auto position, the HP will automatically close at what psi
    76 psi
  74. With the anti-skid failed, what is the maximum speeds for the use of the brakes
    40 kts
  75. When will the bus tie relay open (in auto position)
    When the current across it exceeds 800 amps
  76. What causes the L MAIN BUS annunciator light to come on
    The left main bus is not powered
  77. What lights operate with the battery swithces OFF
    Dome, enterance and cargo lights
  78. What is the power source of the fueling panel in the right wing
    The right hot battery bus
  79. What is the maximum fuel imbalance
    200 lbs
  80. What prevents flap asymmetry
    The left and right flaps are mechanically interconnected
  81. The LP bleed air is tapped off of the
    5th stage compressor
  82. What is the purpose of the precooler
    To lower the temperature of the LP bleed air
  83. The HP valve is pneumatically operated and fails to the closed position
    True
  84. The LP valve is pneumatically operated and fails to the closed position
    False
  85. Which of the following are not automatically powered by the 115 VAC wild frequency generators
    Standby pitot tube
  86. The L/R PROP DE-ICE lights are illuminated on the flight status panel. This indicates that the system is on and functioning normally
    True
  87. The L/R ENG ANTI-ICE lights are illuminated on the flight status panel. This indicates that the system is on and functioning normally
    False
  88. What happens to propeller de-ice if one of the AC generators fails
    Automatic transfer to the opposite AC generator
  89. The BLD leak light illuminates. What other action occurs automatically
    • LP valve closes, but HP valve remains open
    • Both LP and HP valves close
    • The LP valve remains closed, and a DUCT OVERTEMP light illuminates
    • None of the above

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