Terps Quiz

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chrisstewart360
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161156
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Terps Quiz
Updated:
2012-07-10 20:22:57
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Terps Terminal Instrument Procedures Aviation
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Terps Criteria July2012
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  1. Where is the desired point of intersection of the final approach course and the runway centerline, in a straight-in approach using an off-airport facility?

      A. Threshold
      B. 3000'
      C. 5200'
    A. Threshold
  2. If a proposed approach does not meet criteria for straight-in:

      A. No approach is developed
      B. A circling approach is developed
      C. A waiver must be requested
    B. A circling approach is developed
  3. What type of course reversal will be required for an on-airport No-FAF low altitude SIAP?

      A. Procedure Turn
      B. Teardrop
      C. Holding Pattern
    A. Procedure Turn 
  4. What is the category A and B maximum angle of divergence between the final approach course and the runway centerline extended for a straight-in SIAP?

      A.  20 degrees
      B.  30 degrees
      C.  40 degrees
    B.  30 degrees 

    FAAO 8260.3, C. 4/5/6/7, par. 413a
  5. What is the required obstacle clearance for the straight-in primary area for an NDB No-FAF SIAP?

      A.  250 FT
      B.  300 FT
      C.  350 FT
    C.  350 FT

    • FAAO 8260.3, C. 6, par. 613c
    •  
  6. Where is the missed approach point for a No-FAF SIAP?

      A.  Runway threshold
      B.  Facility
      C.  First usable landing surface
     B.  Facility 

    FAAO 8260.3, C. 4/6, par. 414
  7. Upon which facility is the national airspace
    system primarily based?

      A.  NDB
      B.  VORTAC
      C.  TACAN
    B.  VORTAC
  8. There is a frequency management officer in each region who has responsibility for all frequency management matters.

      A.  True
      B.  False
    A.  True
  9. Navigation facilities are classified according to their
    _____.

      A.  Geographical location
      B. Region assignment
      C.  Intended use
    C.  Intended use
  10. How are service volumes expressed?

      A. Distance from facility only
      B.  Altitude above facility and distance from facility
      C. Distance from facility and altitude above mean sea level
    B.  Altitude above facility and distance from facility
  11. What are the two types of monitoring systems used to
    monitor navigation aids?

          A. Internal and external
          B.  Internal and control point
          C.  Internal and remote status indicator
    C.  Internal and remote status indicator
  12. Navigation facilities that have an internal monitor and a
    status indicator installed at a control point is designated category ______.

      A.  1
      B.  2
      C.  3
    A.  1
  13. Which of the following charts is best suited for drawing the Final and Missed Approach segments?

      A.  Sectional Chart (1:500,000)
      B.  7.5 min. Quad Chart (1:24,000)
      C.  Topographic “ OC” Chart (1:100,000)
    B.  7.5 min. Quad Chart (1:24,000)
  14. Which of the following charts is best suited for determining terrain information?

      A.  Sectional Chart (1:500,000)
      B.  Airport Obstruction Chart (OC)
      C.  7.5 min. Quad (1:24,000)
    B.  7.5 min. Quad Chart (1:24,000)
  15. What is the minimum divergence angle for a VHF fix?

      A.  30°
      B.  45°
      C.  90°
    A.  30°
  16. What is the governing facility when two airways form a fix?

      A.  Nearest
      B.  Farthest
      C.  Off course
    B.  Farthest
  17. What is the minimum divergence angle for a VHF/LF integrated fix?

      A.  No minimum
      B.  30°
      C.  45°
    C.  45°
  18. MRA flags may be established at non-compulsory reporting points

      A.  True
      B.  False
    A.  True
  19. When establishing a MCA, the distance to climb is plotted from the obstruction to the intersection of the center line and the ____________ .

      A.  plotted radial of the fix.
      B.  nearest system accuracy line.
      C.  farthest system accuracy line.
    • B.  nearest system accuracy line.
  20. What rate of climb shall be used for climbing from 5100 feet to 12000 feet, when establishing a MCA?

      A. 120 ft/NM
      B. 100 ft/NM
      C.  Both 120 and 100 ft/NM
    C.  Both 120 and 100 ft/NM
  21. What rate of climb shall be used for climbing from sea level to 5,000 feet when establishing a MCA?

      A.  150 ft/NM
      B.  120 ft/NM
      C. Both A and B
    A.  150 ft/NM
  22. What is a reason for a circling only approach?

      A. Facility is located on the airport.
      B. Final does not meet alignment criteria.
      C. Runway does not meet length requirements.
    B. Final does not meet alignment criteria.
  23. What is the minimum obstruction clearance required in the secondary Circling Area?

      A.  300’
      B.  Not applicable
      C.  300’ tapering to 0’
    B.  Not applicable
  24. Which statement is true?

      A.  Off airport NAVAIDS do not require the approach course to pass through the landing surface.
      B.  All 360° radials may be used for the course if   the NAVAID is on the airport.
    B.  All 360° radials may be used for the course if   the NAVAID is on the airport.
  25. How is the size of the Circling Area
    determined?

      A. By category of aircraft.
      B.  By type of approach.
      C.  Both A and B.
    A. By category of aircraft
  26. How are sectors identified in which circling is not permitted?

      A.  Identified with the facility the approach is made from.
      B.  Identified with the runway centerlines.
      C.  Both A and B.
    B.  Identified with the runway centerlines.
  27. What is the ROC within the circling area?

      A. 300’
      B. 350.
      C. Depends on category of aircraft.
    A. 300’
  28. Circling Descent Gradient is computed using the distance from the FAF to the first usable landing surface.

       A.  True
       B.  False
    A.  True
  29. The missed approach procedure shall be designed to permit holding or en route flight.

      A.  True
      B.   False
    A.  True
  30. Only the primary missed approach procedure should be documented on the 8260 forms.

      A.  True
      B.  False
    B.  False
  31. When are alternate missed approach procedures required to be specified in a procedure?

      A.  In all procedures
      B.  When the procedures specialist thinks it is required
      C.  When requested by air traffic
    • C.  When requested by air traffic
    • FAAO 8260.19, Chap 8, Para 8-56g

  32. What is the desired missed approach Alignment?

      A.  No desired alignment
      B.  Straight
      C.  Turning
    B.  Straight
  33. Where does the missed approach area start?

      A. Airport boundary
      B.  MAP
      C. Runway Threshold
    B.  MAP
  34. The straight missed approach area starts at the MAP.  The area has a width equal to that of the Final Approach area at the MAP and expands uniformly to the width of the Initial Approach segment at a point ___ miles from the MAP.

      A.  8
      B.  12
      C.  15
    C.  15
  35. What is the maximum number of degrees of turn for a missed approach to be considered straight?

      A.  At or less than 15°
      B.  Less than 15°
      C.  23°
    A.  At or less than 15°
  36. What is the slope of the missed approach primary surface?

      A.  12 to 1
      B.  40 to 1
      C.  50 to 1
    B.  40 to 1
  37. How far from the MAP is the missed approach 40:1 surface evaluated?

      A.  15 NM from the MAP
      B.  Not required if positive course guidance is available
      C.  Until the surface reaches the clearance limit
    C.  Until the surface reaches the clearance limit
  38. What is the slope of the missed approach secondary surface if no positive course guidance is provided?

      A.  12 to 1
      B.  40 to 1
      C.  Not applicable
    C.  Not applicable
  39. How many obstacle zones are there in a missed approach segment with turns of more than 90°?

      A.  2
      B.  3
      C.  4
    B.  3
  40. Apply AAO to missed approach areas outside a 20,000 feet radius of all runway ends.

      A.  True
      B.  False
    B.  False
  41. If you have a fix at the end of section 1 but do not have course guidance in section 2 of a combination missed approach, can secondary area obstacle reductions be taken?

      A.  Yes
      B.  No
    B.  No
  42. When is it most necessary to construct a combination straight and turning missed approach area?

      A. For turns of 15 degrees or more
      B. To miss an obstruction in the missed approach area
      C. When necessary to climb to a specific altitude prior to commencing a turning missed approach
    C. When necessary to climb to a specific altitude prior to commencing a turning missed approach
  43. Only apply accuracy code to an obstacle in the  40:1 surface area if it penetrates the 40:1 surface.

      A.  True
      B.  False
    A.  True
  44. What information is used to determine holding pattern size?

      A. Aircraft speed category, fix to facility distance, and altitude.
      B.  Aircraft speed category, facility type, and fix to facility distance.
      C.  Fix to governing facility distance, aircraft type, and altitude.
    A. Aircraft speed category, fix to facility distance, and altitude.
  45. What is  the  minimum  divergence angle of  the  intersecting  courses or radials  for a  Fix  which  is  to be used  for  holding?

      A.  30 degrees for LF, 45° for VHF
      B.  45 degrees for LF, 30° for VHF
      C.  45 degrees for both LF and VHF
    C.  45 degrees for both LF and VHF
  46. In terminal applications the use of TACAN station passage as a holding Fix is considered acceptable.

      A. True
      B.  False
    B.  False
  47. When the DME holding course is toward the navaid, the Fix end of the holding area, but not the Fix, may lie within the no-course-signal zone.

      A. TRUE
      B.  FALSE
    A. TRUE
  48. How many corners of the Fix dis-placement area must be contained within the primary area of the holding pattern?

      A.  2
      B.  3
      C.  4
    B.  3
  49. DETERMINE THE MINIMUM HOLDING ALTITUDE
    1.  Non-mountainous area; Trees  50’
    2.  Floor of controlled airspace  1200’
    3.  Highest terrain in primary area  2420’
    4.  Tower in primary area  3179’
    5. Minimum NAVAID reception   4100’ and communications.

      A.  4100’
      B.  4200’
      C.  4300’
    B.  4200'

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