Anatomy And Physiology Exam 3 Senses, Endocrine system, Cardiovascular System, Endocrine System, Lym

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Bill.Ritchie
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Anatomy And Physiology Exam 3 Senses, Endocrine system, Cardiovascular System, Endocrine System, Lym
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2012-07-10 15:13:10
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Senses Cardiovascular System Endocrine Lymphatic system Immune
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Anatomy and Physiology Exam 3
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  1. What is meant by the term General Sense Organs?
    Often exists as individual cells or receptor units. (corpuscles)

    Widely distributed throughout the body
  2. What are special sense organs?
    large and complex sense organs such as eyes, ears nose, tastebuds.

    localized grouping of specialized receptors.
  3. 4 steps of converting a stimulus into a sensation.
    • 1.  Detect a particular stimulus.
    • 2.  Convert into nerve impulse
    • 3.  Perceived as a sensation in CNS
    • 4.  make sense out of the stimulus
  4. Name some general sense organs.
    • 1. Free nerve endings (pain, temp, crude touch, tickle)
    • 2. Meisner corpuscles (fine touch, vibration)
  5. Name five types of sensory receptors and how they are stimulated.
    1. Mechanoreceptors -stimulated by changes is pressure or body movement.

    2.  thermoreceptors - stimulated by changes in external or internal temperature.

    3.Pain receptors - stimulated by damage or oxygen deprivation of tissue.

    4. Chemoreceptors - stimulated by changes in chemical concentrations of substances

    5.  Photoreceptors - stimulated by light changes
  6. What are Propriorecptors?
    Mechanoreceptors involved in reflex actions.
  7. What do the Proprioreceptors do?
    maintain equilibrium and posture.

    Muscle spindles increase the degree of muscle contraction.

    Golgi tendon organs decrease the degree of muscle tendon contractions.
  8. What are cutaneous receptors and what do they do?
    located in the deepest layers of the epidermis and dermis.

    makes skin sensitive to touch, pressure, pain, and temperature.
  9. What three types of receptors are sensitive to fine touch?
    • Meissner corpuscles
    • Merkel discs
    • Root hair plexus
  10. What three types of receptors are senstive to pressure?
    • Pacinian corpuscles
    • Raffian endings
    • Krause end bulbs
  11. What are somatic nociceptors?  Where are they located? what do they do?
    • Somatic nociceptors are pain receptors.
    • located in skin and skeletal muscle
    • respond to mechanical, thermal, electrical, or
    • chemical damage.
  12. What are visceral nociceptors?  Where are they located? what do they do?
    • Visceral nociceptors are pain receptors.
    • Located in organs.
    • respond to excessive stretching, oxygen deprivation, or chemicals released by damaged tissues.
  13. What is meant by referred pain?
    brains inability to distinguish between pain from somatic pain nociceptors and visceral nociceptors.
  14. Where are taste chemoreceptors located?
    • Primarily on the tongue.
    • Also on the hard palate, pharynx, and epiglottis.
  15. What types of taste sensations do we perceive?
    • Sweet
    • Sour
    • bitter
    • salty
    • umami (meat)
  16. Where are the receptors for the sense of smell located?
    olfactory epithelium in roof of nasal cavity.
  17. What are the functions of the eyebrows?
    Shade the eyes from the sun and protect the eyes from perspiration and debris.
  18. What is the function of the eyelids
    protect the eye from debris.
  19. What are the functions of sebaceous glands around the eye.
    help keep the eye lubricated.
  20. The Superior rectus ______________.
    rolls the eye upward.
  21. the inferior rectus _____________.
    Rolls the eye downward.
  22. The Lateral rectus ______________
    turns the eye outward.
  23. The medial rectus ____________.
    turns the eye inward.
  24. The Superior rectus _____________--
    rotates the eye counterclockwise.
  25. The Inferior rectus _____________
    rotates the eye clockwise.
  26. What is the sclera?
    White outer layer of the eye. Becomes the cornea which is transparent.
  27. What is choroid layer.
    • vascular middle layer of the eye.
    • becomes the iris toward the front.
    • regulates the size of the pupil.
    • colored portion of the eye.
    • ciliary body behind the iris controls the shape of the lens.
  28. What is the fluid behind the lens?
    Aqueous humor
  29. What is the fluid in front of the lens
    vitreous humor
  30. What is the retina?
    contains photoreceptors.
  31. What are the two kinds of photoreceptors?
    Rods and cones
  32. what is the purpose of the rods
    see light and dark. Used in night vision and peripheral vision.
  33. What is the purpose of cones?
    distinguish colors.
  34. What is the fovea centralis?
    area of the retina where the cones are densely packed.
  35. What is the lens and what is its function.
    • focuses images on the retina.
    • the image produced is smaller than the object.
    • is inverted and reversed.
    • Accomodation. maintaing focus on distant and then near objects
  36. How does  the ciliary muscle control the shape of the lens.
    • relaxes for distant objects
    • contracts for near objects.
  37. Describe the function of photoreceptors
    Rods absorb light and rhodopsin splits into opsin and retinal (light and dark).  nerve impulses travel to the visual area of the cerebral cortex.

    • Color Vision
    • Depends on three kinds of cones.
  38. What are the functions of the ear.
    • hearing
    • equilibrium
    • balance
  39. The outer ear is also called the ______ and contains the _________
    auricle, external auditory canal
  40. The middle ear _______________.
    amplifies sound.
  41. The three bones of the middle ear are the _____, _____, and _____
    malleus, incus, stapes
  42. The auditory or _________ tube connects the middle ear to the _________
    eustachian, throat.
  43. the function of the inner ear is _______ and _________
    hearing and equilibrium
  44. The inner ear is made up of
    bony labyrinth filled perilymph subdivided into vestibule, semicircular canals, and cochlea.
  45. The receptors for balance in the semicircular canal are called
    cristae ampullaris
  46. What is the organ of corti and how does it work
    The organ of Corti is respnsible for the sense of hearing. In it are tiny hair cells which are vibrated as the sounds passes through the endolymph creating nerve impulses which are then passed to the brain.
  47. Mechanoreceptors in the semicircular canals are responsible for ____________ equilibrium
    rotational
  48. Mechanoreceptors located in the vestibule are responsible for __________ equilibrium.
    gravitational
  49. Motion sickness is caused by
    • continuous movement of fluid within the semicircular canals
    • sensory input from the inner ear is different from visual sensations.
  50. Vertigo is
    dizziness and sense of rotation
  51. The Gravitational Equilibrium Pathway is dependent on
    utricle and saccule located in the vestibule.
  52. The saccule is sensitive to
    vertical movements.
  53. The utricle is sensitive to
    horizontal movements
  54. What is a cataract?
    The lens of the eye gets milky or cloudy and becomes hard do to UV light exposure.
  55. Glaucoma is
    excessive intraocular pressure.
  56. An astigmatism is
    an irregularly shaped lens or cornea.
  57. Otitis media is
    ear inflammation caused by infection.
  58. Otosclerosis is
    genetic disorder where the stapes is irregularly shaped.
  59. anosmia is
    inability to smell odors.
  60. Endocrine glands are _________ glands.
    ductless
  61. Endocrine glands secrete ______ which are chemical signals that influence  ________, __________, and ___________.
    hormones, metabolism, growth and development, homeostasis.
  62. There are two categories of hormones, _________ and ________.
    • peptides
    • steroid hormones.
  63. the hypothalmus produces
    Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) which controls water absorption by the kidneys

    Oxytocin which stimulates uterine contractions and milk letdown.
  64. The pituitary gland releases
    • ADH and oxytocin produced by the hypothalmus
    • thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
    • Adrenocorticotropic hormone which stimulates the adrenal cortex
    • Gonadotropic hormones (FSH, LH) which stimulates  egg production in the female and sperm production in the male.

    Prolactin which stimulates milk production

    Growth hormone for bone growth, protein synthesis and cell division
  65. The thyroid gland releases
    Thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) which increase metabolic rate

    Calcitonin which decreases blood calcium levels.
  66. The parathyroid gland releases
    Parathyroid hormone which increases blood calcium levels.
  67. Thymus gland releases
    thymosin which stimulates production and maturation of T lymphocytes.
  68. The adrenal cortex of the adrenal glands secrete
    Glucocorticoids which raises glucose levels and stimulates breakdown of proteins.

    Mineralcorticoids (aldosterone) stimulates reabsorption of sodium and excretion of potassium

    sex hormones
  69. The adrenal medula of the adrenal glands secretes
    epinephrine and norepinephrine which are active in emergency situations (fight or flight) and raises blood glucose levels.
  70. The pancreas secretes
    insulin which lowers blood glucose levels and stimulates formation of glycogen.

    glucagon which raises blood glucose levels and stimulates breakdown of glycogen.
  71. Testes release
    androgens (testosterone) male sex characteristics
  72. Ovaries release
    estrogen and progesterone; female sex characteristics.
  73. How do peptide hormones work?
    • binds to receptor protein on plasma membrane.
    • activates second messenger (cyclic AMP and calcium)
    • second messenger sets in motion an enzyme cascade that leads to a cellular response.
  74. How do steroid hormones work?
    • steroid hormones diffuse accross the plasma membrane.
    • once inside the cells steroids bind to receptor proteins.
    • hormone-receptor complex binds to DNA particular genes
    • gene activation leads to production of cellular enzymes leading to cellular change.
  75. pituitary dwarfism happens
    when the pituitary gland does not produce enough growth hormone during childhood.
  76. gigantism happens when
    the pituitary gland produces too much growth hormone during childhood.
  77. Acromegaly happens when
    when too much GH is produced during adulthood.
  78. Simple goiter
    results from lack of iodine.
  79. Congenital hypothyroidism results
    • when thyroid does not develop properly
    • undersecretion of thyroid hormone
    • individuals are short and stocky.
  80. Myxedema is the result of
    hypothyroidism in adulthood.
  81. symptoms of hypothyroidism
    • lethargy
    • weight gain
    • loss of hair
    • slower pulse rate
    • lowered body temperature
    • thick, puffy skin
  82. Hyperthyroid (Grave's Disease) results when
    thyroid produces too much thyroid hormone.
  83. Signs and symptoms of graves disease
    • exopthalmic goiter (swelling of tissues of eye sockets) forms
    • swelling of muscles that move the eyes.
    • hyperactivity
    • insominia
    • irritability and nervousness
  84. Addison's disease is
    hyposecretion of cortisol by adrenal glands.
  85. Cushings Syndrome is
    hypersecretion of cortisol by adrenal glands.
  86. Diabetes Mellitus is
    insulin-sensitive body cells are unable to take up or metabolize glucose.

    results in hyperglycemia
  87. Symptoms of Diabetes Mellitus
    • Polyphagia - extreme hunger
    • glycosuria - glucose in urine
    • polyuria - excessive urination
    • polydipsia - extreme thirst
  88. The Pineal gland produces
    melatonin which regulates sleep cycle.
  89. Three functions of blood
    • transport
    • defense
    • regulation
  90. The blood transports
    • oxygen to the cells
    • carbon dioxide and other wastes away from the cells
    • hormones
  91. The blood acts as a defense by
    • defending the body against pathogens
    • removing dead and dying cells.
  92. The blood helps regulate
    • body temperature
    • water-salt balance
    • ph balance
  93. Plasma is composed of
    • 92% water
    • 8% various salts and organic molecules
  94. What proteins are present in plasma?
    • albumins which control osmotic pressure
    • Globulins- alpha and beta which are produced by the liver and gamma- antibodies

    fibrinogens functions in blood clotting
  95. What are the elements of a hematocrit
    • 55% plasma
    • 45% formed elements
    •        eurythrocytes (RBC)
    •        leukocytes (WBC)
    •        thrombocytes (platelets)
  96. Normal blood ph is
    7.35 - 7.45
  97. Hemopoesis is
    production of blood cells
  98. Myeloid homopoesis occurs in
    red bone marrow
  99. lymphoid hemopoesis occurs in
    lymphoid tissue
  100. Polycythemia is
    overproduction of red blood cells
  101. What are the effects of Polycyemia vera?
    • overburdens the heart
    • overwhelms the clotting system
    • causes beet-red hands and face.
  102. Two types of WBC
    granulocytes

    agranulocytes
  103. three types of granulocytes
    • Neutrophils - phagocytosis
    • eosinophils - response to parasitic infections and allergies
    • basophils - release of heparin (anticoagulant)
  104. Two types of agranulocytes
    • lymphocytes - immunity
    • Monocytes - phagocytosis
  105. Four steps to blood-clotting and hemostasis
    prothrombin activator is formed.

    prothrombin activator converts prothrombin to thrombin.

    thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin

    fibrin thread wraps around platelet plug and traps RBC's.
  106. Name three antiplatelet drugs
    aspirn, NSAIDS, clopidogrel
  107. name two anticoagulants
    • heparin (antithrombin)
    • coumadin (prevents formation of prothrombin)
  108. Name one fibrinolytic or clot busting drug
    tissue plasmonogen activator (TPA)
  109. 4 types of blood
    Type A - A antigen is on the RBC and Anti-B antibodies in plasma

    Type B - B antigen is on the RBC and Anti-A antibodies are in plasma

    Type AB- both A and B antigens are on RBC and noAnti-A or Anti-B antibodies are in plasma

    Type O - neither A nor B antigens is on RBC and both anti-A and Anti-B antibodies are in plasma
  110. What type is the universal blood donor
    Type O
  111. What blood type is the universal recipient?
    Type AB
  112. What is eurythroblastosis fatalis
    • Occurs when mother is Rh- and baby is Rh positive.
    • first baby is ok.  In subsequent pregnancies the mother develops Anti Rh antibodies which move into fetus causing
    • agglutination and hemolysis.
  113. Name and describe five disorders of hemostasis.
    thrombocytopenia- low platelet count

    hemophelias - clotting disorders caused by deficiencies of clotting factors.

    thrombus - stationary blood clot

    embolus - dislodged blood clot

    thromboembolism - dislodged blood clot blocks a blood vessel.
  114. What is leukemia?
    abnormal high production of immature leukocytes due to neoplasm formation in bone marrow, spleen, or lymph nodes.
  115. the heart is located in the
    thoracic cavity within the mediastinum
  116. What are the four functions of the heart
    • Keeps O2 poor blood separate from O2 rich blood
    • Keeps blood flowing in one direction
    • Creates blood pressure
    • Serves as an endocrine gland
  117. Blood returns from the body to the _____ right side of the heart and then is pumped to the _______
    right, lungs
  118. The _____ side of the heart receives blood from the lungs and pumps it to the body
    left
  119. Where is the Bicuspid (Mitrial) valve located
    between the left atrium and left ventricle.
  120. Where is the Triscuspid valve located?
    between the right atrium and the right ventricle
  121. What are the cordae tendoneae?
    attaches cusps to the ventricular wall
  122. Where is the pulmonic valve located?
    between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery
  123. Where is the aortic valve located
    between the left ventricle and the aorta
  124. What is ischemia
    diminished blood flow and lack of oxygen to heart
  125. Define angina
    chest pain
  126. What happens in a myocardial infarction
    plague ruptures then blocks blood flow to the heart
  127. What are four diagnostic tests used to diagnosis an MI
    • Creatinine phosphokinase (CPK)
    • aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
    • Lactic dehydrogenase (LDH)
    • troponin
  128. What is cardiac output?
    the amount of blood pumped by each ventricle in one minute.
  129. What is the formula for calculating CO?
    heart rate x stroke volume
  130. What is the CO of a normal adult?
    5L per minute
  131. What is stenosis
    narrowing of the heart valve
  132. What is atherosclerosis?
    hardening and narrowing of the arteries
  133. Another name for a mycardial infarction is
    heart attack
  134. What is pulmonary edema
    accumulation of fluid in the lungs
  135. What is carditis?
    general inflammation of the heart
  136. What is angina pectoris?
    chest pain caused by lack of oxygen to the myocardium
  137. The umbilical vein
    brings oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus
  138. What is the ductus venosus?
    bypasses the liver of the fetus and delivers blood to the inferior vena cava of the fetus
  139. what is the foramen ovale
    shunts blood from the right atrium to the left atrium of the fetus.
  140. What is the Ductus arteriosus?
    connection between the pulmonary artery and the descending aorta in the fetus.
  141. What is Patent Ductus arteriosus?
    failure of the ductus arteriosus to shut creating creating a right to left shunt
  142. What is an aneurysm?
    bulging of a weakened arterial wall
  143. What is phlebitis?
    inflammation of a vein
  144. What is shock?
    inadequate blood flow to tissues
  145. What are the functions of the lymphatic system?
    • lymph is clear fluid made up of mostly water, electrolytes, and waste.
    • returns interstitial fluid to blood
    • absorbs fats and fat soluble vitamins.
    • helps body defend against infection
  146. How do lymph vessels and lymph nodes work
    • lymph vessels travel with veins and help with drainage.
    • lymph travels through vessels to nodes
    • Nodes: site of phagocytosis and immune response
    • filters out pathogens and cancer cells.
  147. what makes lymph move?
    • milking action of skeletal muscles
    • movement of chest during respiration
    • rythmic contraction of lymphatic smooth muscle
  148. Name the lymphoid organs
    • Red bone marrow
    • lymph nodes
    • tonsils
    • thymus gland
    • spleen
    • MALT (mucosal associated lymph tissue)
  149. What are the two compartments of the lymph node and what do they do?
    lymph nodules - lymphocytes and macrophages responsible for phagocytosis and immunity

    lymph sinuses - lymph filled spaces that bathe lymph nodes.
  150. What is the function of red bone marrow?
    site where stem cells are made
  151. Where is red bone marrow found in an adult?
    • sternum
    • vertebrae
    • ribs
    • skull
    • part of pelvic girdle
    • proximal head of humerus and femur
  152. What are two types of lymphocytes and where do they mature?
    • B lymphocytes mature in red bone marrow
    • T lymphocytes mature in thymus gland.
  153. What is the function of the spleen?
    • filters blood, not lymph
    • red pulp: venous sinuses filled with blood and phagocytes
    • white pulp:  contains lymphocytes
    • stores RBC's and platelets
    • removes old RBC's and platelets
  154. What is meant by inate immunity?
    general defense against invasions in a nonspecific manner
  155. What is the first line of defense against initial infection?
    skin, mucosal membranes, tears, stomach acid
  156. What is the second line of defense against initial infection?
    • macrophages, dendritic cells
    • fever and inflammation
    • interferons which are secreted by infected cells and prevent neighboring cells from being infected.
  157. What is adaptive immunity?
    • 3rd line of defense.
    • cellular immunity (t cells and b cells)
    • generates memory against repeat and future infections, vaccines.
  158. What are natural killer cells?
    • kill virus infected cells and tumor cells
    • large granular lymphocytes
    • no specificity or memory
  159. What is interferon?
    • produced by virus infected cells.
    • produces substances that interfere with viral replication.
  160. What is an antigen?
    a substance that causes the body to produce specific antibodies or specialized T cells.
  161. What do antibodies do?
    cause the body to recognize and interact with specific epitopes or antigens.
  162. What are IgG antibodies
    • respond to infections
    • able to cross the placenta
    • enhances phagocytosis; neutralizes toxins and viruses; protects fetus and newborn.
  163. What are IgM antibodies.
    • Pentamer structure.
    • responds to infections.
    • found in blood, in lymph and on B cells
    • agglutinates microbes, first antibody produced in response to infetion
    • half-life of 5 days, presence can be used to determine recent immune response.
  164. What are IgA antibodies?
    • found in secretions, mucous tears, breast milk.
    • prevents bacterial attachment on mucosal surfaces
  165. What are IgD antibodies?
    • found in blood, in lymph, and on B cells
    • On B cells they initiate immune response
    • Half-life 3 days
    • no well defined function.
  166. What are IgE antibodies?
    • found on mast cells, basophils, and in blood
    • Allergic reactions; lysis of parasitic worms
    • half-life 2 days
  167. What are antigen presenting cells (APC)
    • digest the antigen and present it on the cell surface
    • Ag fragments on APC surface with MHC (major histocompatibility complex)
    • found on B cells
    • dendritic cells
    • activated macrophages
  168. How are T cells activated?
    • Macrophage ingest antigen
    • Antigen presentation activates T cell
    • clones produced:  Killer T cells, helper T cells, Suppressor T cells, and Memory T cells
  169. What do the killer T cells do?
    destroys antigen
  170. What do helper T cells do?
    secrete chemicals to help immune system. response
  171. What do supressor T cells do?
    dampen response when antigen is cleared.
  172. What do memory T cells do?
    remember the antigen and have a faster more robust response later.
  173. Sensory receptors for sensing pain are called.

    A. proprioreceptors
    B. photoreceptors
    C.  thermoreceptors
    D.  nocireceptors
    D.  nocireceptors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  174. Which of the following is a receptor for fine touch?

    A. Meisner corpuscles
    B.  Ruffini endings
    C. Krause end bulbs
    D. Pacian corpuscles
    A. Meisner corpuscles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  175. Follwing are pairs of sensory receptors and stimuli to which they responde.  Choose the correct pair(s).

    A. a and b
    B. Merkel disks - pressure
    C. Golgi tendon organs - excessive muscle contraction
    D.  visceral nociceptors - oxygen deprivation to an organ
    e. all of the above
    A. a & b
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  176. Which of the following statements about the sensation of taste is correct?

    a.  taste buds are located in the back of the throat
    b.  taste buds respond to five primary taste sensations
    c.  taste buds are a type of chemoreceptor
    d. a & b
    e. all of the above
    e. all of the above
  177. Select a correct statement about the sense of smell

     a. Taste and smell sensations travel through some of the
    same brain areas

    b.  Olfactory epithelium is located right at the entrance to to the nasal cavity

    c.  An order is made by a single type of odor molecule

    d. a and c

    e. all of the above
    a.  taste and smell sensations travel though some of the same areas of the brain.
  178. Complte this statement correctly: The gustatory (taste) control center is located in the ______ lobe, and the olfactory (smell) area is located in the _______ lobe of the brain
    .a. insula, temporal
    b.  temporal, parietal
    c.  frontal, temporal
    d.  occipital, frontal
    a. insula, temporal
  179. Which of the following structures is a part of the choroid layer of the eye?

    A. retina
    B. iris
    C. vitreous humor
    D. cornea
    B. iris
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  180. The posterior compartment of the eye is filled with

    A. tears
    B. vitreous humor
    C. aqueous humor
    D. blood
    B. vitreous humor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  181. Which statement is true?

    A.  cone cells provide peripheral vision
    B. Rod cells can be found in the fovea
    C.  light stimulus to rod cells stop the release of neurotransmitters from the rods
    D.  cone cells are spread evenly throughout the retina
    C. light stimulus to rod cells stop the release of neurotransmitters from the rods.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  182. Choose the pathway for a sound wave to travel to the inner ear.

    a. auditory canal; oval window; malleus, stapes, incus, tympanic membrane

    b.  auditory canal; tympanic membrane; stapes, incus, malleus; auditory tube

    c. auditory canal; tympanic membrane; malleus, incus, stapes, oval window

    d.  auditory canal, tympanic membrane,incus, stapes, malleus, oval window
  183. c. auditory canal; tympanic membrane; malleus, incus, stapes, oval window
  184. Which structure allows aire pressure to equalize in the middle ear?

    A.  semicircular canal
    B. chochlear canal
    C. auditory canal
    D.  auditory tube
    D. auditory tube
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  185. Which of the following are found in the semicircular canals, utricle, and saccule?

    A.  pressure receptors
    B. mechanoreceptors
    C. nociceptors
    D.  chemoreceptors
    B. mechanoreceptors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  186. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), a peptide works by

    a. binding to a receptor outside the cell and activating a second messenger

    b.  diffusing into the cell, binding to a receptor inside the celll and activating a second messenger.

    c.  diffusing into the cell, binding to a receptor inside the cell and activating genes in DNA
    a. binding to a receptor outside the cell and activating a second messenger
  187. Testosterone, a steroid hormone, works by

    a. binding to a receptor outside the cell and activating a second messenger

    b.  diffusing into the cell, binding to a receptor inside the cell and activating a second messenger

    c.  diffusing into the cell, binding to a receptor inside the cell and activating genes in DNA
    c.  diffusing into the cell, binding to a receptor inside the cell and activating genes in DNA
  188. Antidiuretic hormone stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb water and return it to the blood plasma. ADH release is controlled by a negative feedback system.  Which action causes ADH to be released?

    a. drinking a big bottle of water
    b.  finishing a marathon race and becoming dehydrated.
    b. finishing a marathon race and becoming dehydrated.
  189. Name three anterior pituitary hormones that cause the release of another hormone.
    FSH, LH, and/or TH, and or ACTH
  190. Oxytocin release from the hypothalmus during labor and delivery is a mechanism that works by
    a. positive feedback
    b.  negative feedback
    a. positive feedback
  191. Which of the following is an effect of growth hormone?

    a.  promotes fat metabolism
    b.  it stimulates protein synthesis in bond and cartilage
    c.  it causes a person to grow taller
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  192. Which of the following conditions is caused by excessive thyroid homrone.

    A.  Graves disease
    B.  cretinism (congenital hypothyroidism)
    C.  myxedema
    D.  simple goiter
    A. Graves disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  193. Which mineral is necessary to manufacture thyroid hormone.

    A. iodine
    B. calcium
    C. sodium
    D.  iron
    A. iodine.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  194. The target organs for parathyroid hormone are

    A.  bone, liver, small intestine.
    B.  kidney, bone, small intestine
    C.  kidney, bone, liver
    D. kidney, liver, stomach
    B. kidney, bone, small intestine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  195. From the following list of hormones of the adrendal cortex and their corresponding effects, choose the pair, or pairs, that are correct.

    A. male hormones -- stimulate sex drive
    B. female hormones -- promote long bone growth in adolescents
    C. all are correct
    D.  aldosterone - increases sodium concentration in blood
    E. pairs b & c are correct
    C. all are correct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  196. Which hormone opposes the effect of aldosterone in the body?

    A. cortisol
    B. angiotensin I
    C. atrial natriuretic hormone
    D. renin
    C. atrial natriuretic hormone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  197. Aldosterone returns blood pressure to normal by causing the kidneys to reabsorb water and sodium.  Because it works by negative feedback mechanism, which of the following actions could cause aldosterone to be released.

    A. both a and c.
    B.  drinking a big bottle of a sports drink
    C.  running a marathon and becoming dehydrated
    D. giving a unit of blood
    A. both a and c
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  198. Insulin-sensitive cells in the human body include

    A.  brain and nerve cells
    B. a & b
    C. muscle cells
    D. adipose tissue cells
    e.  all of the above
    B.  a & b
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  199. Which of the following is the effect of glucagon?

    A.  lowers blood glucose level
    B. stimulates the liver to store glucose as glycogen
    C.  causes adipose tissue to store fat
    D. causes the liver to break down glycogen
    D.  causes the liver to break down glycogen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  200. Glucagon release is controlled by a negative feedback system.  Which action causes glucagon to be released?

    a. skipping breakfast and going to morning classes without an empty stomach

    b.  eating a big holiday meal

    c.  running a marathon race for seveal hours without pausing for food.

    d. a and c

    e. b and c
    d. a and c
  201. From the following list of endocrine glands and hormones choose the pair that is correct

    A.  thymus -- insulin
    B.  adipose tissue -- leptin
    C.  ovaries -- androgens
    D.  kidney -- aldosterone
    B.  adipose tissue -- leptin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  202. Which of the following is a local tissue messenger that stimulates nearby cells?

    A.  melatonin
    B. leptin
    C.  thymosin
    D.  prostaglandin
    D. prostaglandin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  203. Which of the following are defense mechanisms of the blood?

    a. Blood cells can engulf and destroy bacteria and viruses
    b.  Antibodies target pathogens for destruction
    c.  the blood clotting mechanism prevents blood loss
    d.  All of the above are defense mechanisms of the blood.
    d. all of the above are defense mechanisms of the blood.
  204. Which of the following might stimulate the release of erythropoietin (EPO)

    A.  blood loss
    B. living at high altitude
    C. both b & c can be stimuli
    D. hyperventilation
    C.  both b & c can be stimuli
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  205. Which of the following
  206. Which of the following is/are bile pigments?

    A. hemoglobin
    B. bilirubin
    C. b and c
    D.  biliverdin
    e. all of the above
    C. b and c
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  207. Granular white blood cells include all of the following except

    A.  basophils
    B.  macrophages
    C.  neutrophils
    D.  eosinophils
    B. macrophages
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  208. The parent cell that fragments to form thrombocytes is called a

    A.  megalocyte
    B. megakaryocyte
    C. stem cell
    D.  monocyte
    B. megakaryocyte
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  209. Choose the correct sequence for hemostasis (first to last)

    a.  coagulation -- vascular spasm --platelet plug formation

    b.  vascular spasm -- coagulation, platelet plug formation

    c.  vascular spasm == platelet plug formation -- coagulation

    d.  coagulation -- platelet plug formation --vascular spasm
    c.  vascular spasm == platelet plug formation -- coagulation
  210. Which vitamin is necessary to form prothrombin?

    A. folic acid
    B.  K
    C. B12
    D.  C
    B. K
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  211. Which of the following correctly describes type AB blood?

    a. A antigen and B antigen are on the red cell membrane, anti-A and anti-B antibodies in plasma

    b.  A antigen and B antigen on the red cell membrane, no antibodies in plasma

    c.  A antigen on the red cell membrane, anti-B antibodies in plasma

    d.  B antigen on the red cell membrane, anti-A antibodies in plasma
    b.  A antigen and B antigen on the red cell membrane, no antibodies in plasma
  212. Which of the following transfusions would most likely be safe to  adminster?

    A.  type AB blood to a type B blood recipient
    B.  type AB blood to a type O recipient
    C. type A blood to a type B blood recipient
    D.  type B blood to a type AB blood recipient
    D.  type B blood to a type AB blood recipient
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  213. Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs in which situation

    A.  Rh- mother, Rh+ father, + fetus
    B. Rh- mother, Rh-father, Rh+ fetus
    C.  Rh+ mother, Rh- father, - fetus
    D. Rh+ mother, Rh- father, Rh+ fetus
    A.  Rh- mother, Rh+ father, + fetus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  214. Which of the following is located between the right atrium and right ventricle?

    A. biscupid (mitrial)
    B.  tricuspid
    C.  aortic semiluner
    D.  pulmonary semilunar
    B. tricuspid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  215. The first heart sound is caused by the closure of the

    a. Av valves (tricuspid and bicuspid)
    b.  semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary)
    a. Av valves (tricuspid and bicuspid)
  216. Conical estensions of the mycardium are called the

    A. chordae teninae
    B.  cusps
    C. valve leaflets
    D.  papillary muscles
    D. papillary muscles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  217. The SA node is the pacemaker of the heart and controls the heart rate because

    A.  it has the largest myocardial cells
    B.  it has the fastest instrinsic rate
    C.  it has the slowest instrinsic rate
    D. it sits at the top of the heart
    B. it has the fastest intrinsic rate.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  218. The semilunar valves are open during which phase of the cardiac cycle

    A.  ventricular systole
    B. atrial and ventricular systole
    C. atrial systole
    A. ventricular systole
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  219. Cardiac output is equal to

    A. heart rate plus stroke volume
    B. heart rate times stroke volume
    C.  stroke volume divided by heart rate
    D. heart rate divided by stroke volume
    B. heart rate times stroke volume
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  220. The order for the three layers of a blood vessel superficial to deep is

    A.  tunica media, tunica externa, tunica intima
    B. tunica externa, tunica media, tunica intima
    C. tunica externa, tunica intima, tunica media
    B. tunica externa, tunica media, tunica intima
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  221. If you described the differences between arteris and veins you could say
    A.  all of these statements are true
    B. veings have valves but arteries do not
    C.  Arteries have thicker walls than veins
    D.  veins return blood to the heart; arteries carry blood away from the heart
    A. all of these statements are true.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  222. Bloood pressure is greatest at

    A.  the center of the capillary bed
    B. the venous end of the capillary bed
    C. the arterial end of the capillary bed
    D.  no single area; it is equal throughout the capillary bed.
    C. the arterial end of the capillary bed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  223. Blood flow is slowest through which blood vessels

    a. arterioles
    b.  veins
    c. capillaries
    d. venules
    capillaries
  224. Mean arterial blood pressue is equal to

    A.  cardiac output/peripheral resistance
    B.  cardiac output plus peripheral resistance
    C. cardiac output minus peripheral resistance
    D. cardiac output times peripheral resistance
    D. cardiac output times peripheral resistance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  225. Which of the following would increase mean arterial blood pressure?

    A.  release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla
    B. Any of these would increase mean arterial resistance
    C. incrased constriction of the arteries and arterioles throughout the body
    D. increased venous return to the heart
    B. Any of these would increase mean arterial resistance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  226. The superior and inferior venae cavae return their blood to the

    A.  pulmonary artery
    B. right atrium
    C.  pulmonary veins
    D.  left atrium
    B. right atrium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  227. In the adult heart, the oxygen content is highest in blood found in
  228. a. pulmonary arteries
    b. pumonary trunk
    c.  pulmonary veins
    d right ventricle
    c. pulmonary veins
  229. From the follwing list of pairs of major arteries and the smaller arteries that branch from them, choose the correct pairs

    A. all are correct
    B. aortic arch -- left subclavian
    C.  abdominal aorta - intercostal artery
    D. a and c are correct
    E. brachiocephalic -- right common carotid
    D. a and c are correct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  230. If you wanted to describe the lymphatic system, which statements would you use.

    a. it takes up excess fluid and returns it to the circulation.
    b.  it houses white blood cells
    c.  Lacteals in the intestines absorb dietary lipids
    d.  All of these statements are correct.
    d all of these statements are correct.
  231. Imagine that lymph is draining from your right arm to return to the heart.  What is the correct pathway for it to take?

    a.  lymphatic capillaries-larger lymphatic vessels-- right lymphatic duct- right subclavian vein - superior vena cava

    b.  lymphatic capillaries -- larger lymphatic vessels -- thoracic duct-- right subclavian vein-- superior vena cava

    c.  lymphatic capillaries--larger lymphatic vessels-- thoracic duct-- left subclavian vein-- superior vena cava

    d.  lymphatic capillaries-- larger lymphatic vessels--cervical duct--left subclavian vein--superior vena cava
    a.  lymphatic capillaries-larger lymphatic vessels-- right lymphatic duct- right subclavian vein - superior vena cava
  232. Large lymphatic vessels are similar in structure to:

    A. capillaries in the cardiovascular system
    B.  arteries in the cardiovascular system
    C.  veins in the cardiovascular system
    C. veins inthe cardiovascular system
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  233. Which of the following has a connective tissue capsule?

    A. axillary lumph nodes
    B. adenoids (pharyngeal tonsils)
    C.  Peyer patches
    D.  palantine tonsils
    A. axillary lymph nodes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  234. Which type of cell produces the chemical mediators that cause the four outward signs of inflammatory response?

    A.  neutrophil
    B.  mast cell
    C. natural killer cells
    D. macrophage
    B. mast cell
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  235. Which sign of inflammation occurs when tissue capillaries become more permeable and leak protein and tissue fluid into the tissue spaces.

    A. formation of pus
    B. redness
    C. swelling
    D. heat
    C. swelling
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  236. Which protein produced by virus infected cells prevents othe cells from being infected?

    A. complement
    B.  cytokine
    C.  immunoglobulin
    D.  interferon
    D. interferon
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  237. Which of the following is form of active immunity?

    a. transfer of antibodies from mother to fetus across the placenta

    b.  transfer of antibodies from mother to baby in breast milk.

    c.  immunization for hepatitis B virus

    d. gamma globulin injection for hepatitis B virus
    c immunization for hepatitis B virus
  238. Which of the following statements about passive immunity is true.

    A.  Antibody molecules giving passive immunity can't be passed from a pregnant woman to the fetus.
    B.  It requires activated T cells to produce antibodies
    C.  Plasma cells produce antibodies, which are transferred from one person to another
    D. Passive immunity's effects are permanent
    C.  Plasma cells produce antibodies, which are transferred from one person to another
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  239. Which term describes the amount of antibody present in a blood plasma sample?

    A. booster
    B. titer
    C. hematocrit
    D. vaccine
    B. titer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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