Volume 3 Section 2

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Volume 3 Section 2
2010-07-06 17:22:09
Volume Section

Volume 3 Section 2
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  1. What is total base stockage requirements?
    Is the quantity required to support both peacetime and wartime operations.
  2. Stock Control requirements element does what three things?
    • 1. Maintains the maximum number of items in warehouses to support mission requirements
    • 2. Provides just enough stock to meet normal demand rates, repair cycle times,and order shipping times.
    • 3. Provides for a quantity of safety stock to allow for variations in supply and demand.
  3. What are two of stock controls main responsibilities?
    Stockage policy and managing requisitions.
  4. What is Average Percent of Base Repair (PBR)?
    The repair rate of the current and past four quarters.
  5. What is Daily Demand Frequency Rate (DDFR)?
    Computed by ading [arts of the number of demands (current periodm first past 6 months, second past six months). Divide this total by the difference between the julian date and the DOFD.
  6. What is the demand level for nonexpendable equipment items always going to be?
    ZERO! Except for NF1 retail outlet items because of the high turnover rate and the fact that they are common use items for alot of bases.
  7. What are demand levels based on?
    Past demands from users.
  8. What two things give you control over stock levels that may be affected by emergencies or special circumstances?
    Non-demand based and/or adjusted stock levels
  9. When used wisely, what does adjusted stock levels provide?
    Effective support to operational units or activities.
  10. What are the three types of adjusted stock levels?
    • Minimum
    • Maximum
    • Fixed
  11. What does the minimum adjusted stock level mean?
    Represents the minimum quantity needed to support anticipated requirements.
  12. What do type level codes show?
    Shows when to reorder stock and determines whether to delete the minimum level automatically when the computed demand level equals or exceeds the minimum level quantity.
  13. What are the three minimum level type codes?
    • A
    • B
    • C
  14. Type level A is used...
    When the quantity of the minimum level is high enought that stock replenishment is not necessary until the on hand balance drops below one third the level quantity.
  15. How does type level A save transportation and handling costs?
    Because requisitions occur less frequently at a higher quantity. And this level is automatically deleted when the demand level equals or exceeds the adjusted level quantity.
  16. Type level B is used...
    when the quantity of the minimum level is small and you want one-for-one stock replenishment action for each item that is issued.
  17. When are the only two times that Type Level B should be assigned?
    • 1. When the level quantity is small or
    • 2. When the stock control personnel can justify why reordering at one-third the level quantity will not support anticipated requirements.

    **Also automatically deleted when the demand level equals or exceeds the level quantity.**
  18. Type level C...
    Works just like type level B. Only difference is that it isnt automatically deleted when the demand level equals or exceeds the level of quantity.
  19. When are the only two times that type level C should be assigned?
    • 1. When you expect the demand level for an item to fluctuate above and below the minimum level quantity or
    • 2. When you want a permanent minimum level on hand.
  20. What ERRCD do you use type C for?
  21. What is the purpose of a maximum adjusted stock level?
    To restrict stockage
  22. What type level flag identifies an adjusted maximum level?
  23. What is the purpose of a fixed adjusted stock level?
    Keep a constant quantity in stock.
  24. When do you assign a fixed adjusted level to an item?
    When you want the requisitioning objective to remain constant.
  25. What type of level flag identifies fixed levels?
  26. What form is used to request for an adjusted stock level?
    AF Form 1996 Adjusted Stock Level, in two copies
  27. When is it not practical to use the AF Form 1996?
    • 1. Large number of items require adjusted stock levels to support a specific project
    • 2. ERRCD XD* items used in support of non-airborne Communications-Electronics or Space and Missle System.

    These may use a electronic data bases to forward requirements for depot support.
    TRIC 1F3
  29. Foe each adjusted stock level established, what does SBSS do?
    Creates a type L adjusted stock level detail record.
  30. What is the L detail record used for?
    To control and manage the adjusted stock level.
  31. How often must you validat adjusted stock levels?
    Every 2 years to the least
  32. What program do you use to validate the adjusted stock levels?
    R35 Adjusted Stock Level Review
  33. When does the computer adjust the EOQ demand levels?
    Quarterly or when their totals fall below the reorder point and the amount of change in the demand level equals or exceeds the square root of the existing level.
  34. What is RBL?
    Readiness Based Leveling...distributes worldwide requirement amoung the AF bases and depot to reduce the number of expected backorders at each base.
  35. How often is the RBL system ran?
  36. When are RBL's "pushed"?
    During the third week of the first month of each quarter.
  37. In what format will the base receive RBL's from the d035 SYSTEM?
  38. RBL details are identified by type detail __, type adjusted level flag ___, activity code ___, and organization/shop code 007PL.
    L, F, A
  39. What are the two times when the RBL can be less than an approved minimum or fixed level?
    • 1. Not enough worldwide requirement to allocate to the minimum or fixed level.
    • 2. The bases minimum/fixed level is not registered in AFMS's D035
  40. What is the R47 used for?
    Identify situations where an RBL may be misallocated.
  41. When should the R47 be run?
    ASAP after the quarterly RBL allocation takes place.
  42. How are shipments categorized?
    • Directed
    • Nondirected
    • Transfer
  43. What do directed shipments result from?
    • Redistribution orders
    • Referall orders
    • Excess
  44. How may Item Mangagers send directives?
    • Phone
    • letter
    • Message Comm
    • DIC A2* or A4*
  45. What are DIC A2*?
    Redistribution orders that are demands placed on supply by the AFMC item managers to satisfy other AF base requirements or to direct property disposition in reply to reports of excess.
  46. What is a BLO?
    Notification to the originator of the RDO that the RDO has been accepted and the requested property is being processed for shipment.
  47. If RDOs are not accepted or denied within a specified time, the directing authority may follow up with a...
    DIC BF7
  48. What si the M22?
    RDO Metrics Report that ensures excessive amounts of denials and reverse- posts on A2*/A4* are not occuring.
  49. What does part 13 of the D20 show?
    Ensures that suspended transactions are being reprocessed in a timely manner.
  50. What are DIC A4*?
    Referral orders.

    Same as RDO's except that they may come from outside the AF, so it has to be accepted or denied using DOD standard transactions.
  51. How is a DIC A4* accepted or denied?
    Sent in AE* format with the status code showing which action was taken.
  52. What is the status code for acceptance when talking about the DIC A4*?
  53. What is the status code for denial when talking about DIC A4*?
  54. What are the two types of nondirected redistribuitions?
    Automatic and Special
  55. What do automatic redistributions result from?
    A turn-in of unserviceable recoverable (XD2)
  56. Why do we get special redistributions?
    When local management wants to move stock from base to base for lateral support
  57. When lateral base to base support shipment is authorized, what is the routing identifier code?
    JLS or D** to ensure the correct Financial Inventory Accounting (FIA) code to transaction history.
  58. What TEX code is ussed when bad receipts come to supply?
    P, R, or Z which creates a SHIP-NOT-CREDITED (SNC) Detail
  59. What does TEX code P mean?
    • -Item damaged in shipment
    • -Return of LP item in error
    • -Other discrepant shipment
    • -Receipt of an unacceptable substitute
  60. What does TEX code R mean?
    For MDR/QDR (Material Deficiency Report/Quantity Deficiency Report)
  61. What does TEX code Z mean?
    Latent defects
  62. What does TEX code Q mean?
    Item was received misidentified
  63. Shipment Exception Codes are used for what?
    to identify item records that require special shipping action or to notify local management when shipping action has been taken.
  64. For each item assigned a Shipment Exception Code, what document needs to be maintained?
    Exception Control document (ECC)
  65. How often are shipments with an exception code validated?
    at least once every 6 months
  66. SEX code 1 means what?
    do not ship- assets frozen
  67. SEX code 2 means what?
    Request Disposition from IM
  68. SEX code 4 means what?
    AFTO Form 375 required
  69. SEX code A-Z means?
    Assigned locally