systems 4 Qs.txt

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emm64
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163518
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systems 4 Qs.txt
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2012-07-22 16:40:18
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systems 4 Q
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  1. A man gets shot in his right spinal cord:
    • A) His right leg will be weak, his right leg will not be able to feel vibration/light touch, his left leg will not be able to feel temperature/pain.
    • B) His right leg will be weak, his left leg will not be able to feel vibration/light touch, his right leg will not be able to feel temperature/pain.
    • C) His left leg will be weak, his left leg will not be able to feel vibration/light touch, his right leg will not be able to feel temperature/pain.
    • D) His left leg will be weak, his right leg will not be able to feel vibration/light touch, his left Leg will not be able to feel temperature/pain.
  2. Correct Answer(s): A
  3. Neurofibirillary tangles are composed of:
    • A) A4-beta
    • B) SOD 1 proteins
    • C) Tau protein
    • D) GFAP
  4. Correct Answer(s): C
  5. The pathology seen in strokes in the U.S. are:
    • A) Infarcts and hemorrhages
    • B) Demyelinative plaques and Dawson fingers
    • C) Glioblastoma and meningioma
    • D) Plaques and tangles
  6. Correct Answer(s): A
  7. Your friend comes to you very worried about her roommate. She says her roommate has become "obsessed" with being thin. She goes to Taco Bell and eats 12 tacos and then runs 6 miles a day and then induces vomiting by sticking her toothbrush down her throat. You friend is worried because her roommate is 5'4'' and weighs 97 pounds. She has also stopped getting her period. You tell your friend that her roommate has:
    • A) Anorexia because she is binging on food and then inducing vomiting and exercising excessively.
    • B) Bulimia because she is binging on food and then inducing vomiting and exercising excessively.
    • C) Anorexia because she is severely underweight and not getting her period.
    • D) Bulimia because she is severely underweight and not getting her period.
  8. Correct Answer(s): C
  9. You hear a story in the news about 37 year old male accountant who breaks into a celebrity's home because "we love each other and have to be together." He is president of her fan club and believes they will be married and have 7 children together. The celebrity has never met this person. He is able to hold down a job and pay his rent, but spends all of his free time talking about the celebrity. He most likely has:
    • A) Schizophrenia
    • B) Delusional disorder
    • C) Bipolar disorder
    • D) Shared psychotic disorder
    • E) Depression
  10. Correct Answer(s): B
  11. Which of the following sympathetic nervous system stimulants acts primarily by blocking dopamine reuptake?
    • A) Amphetamine
    • B) Ephedrine
    • C) Epinephrine
    • D) Methylphenidate
    • E) Clonidine
  12. Correct Answer(s): D
  13. Which of the following drugs exhibit norepinephrine reuptake blockade as a component of its mechanism of action?
    • A) Amphetamine
    • B) Atomoxetine (Straterra)
    • C) Phentermine (Adipex)
    • D) Two of the above
    • E) All of the above
  14. Correct Answer(s): D
  15. Modafanil (Provigil) is not thought to have significant abuse potential because it is not a true sympathomimetic stimulant.
    • A) True
    • B) False
  16. Correct Answer(s): False
  17. The metabolism of currently used inhalation anesthetics plays a significant role in emergence from anesthesia.
    • A) True
    • B) False
  18. Correct Answer(s): False
  19. Which of the following inhalation agents does not possess an ether structure?
    • A) Desflurane
    • B) Halothane
    • C) Isoflurane
    • D) Sevoflurane
  20. Correct Answer(s): B
  21. Which of the following opioids can be administered in high doses for long periods and still have a rapid offset of action?
    • A) Fentanyl
    • B) Meperidine
    • C) Morphine
    • D) Remifentanil
    • E) Sufentanil
  22. Correct Answer(s): D
  23. Which of the following drug classes is currently the first line treatment for anxiety disorders in the United States?
    • A) Antihistamines
    • B) Barbiturates
    • C) Benzodiazepines
    • D) Atypical antipsychotics
    • E) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
  24. Correct Answer(s): E
  25. Which of the following statements about tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) is correct?
    • A) They produce antidepressant effects after 2-3 days of administration.
    • B) They selectively block re-uptake of serotonin.
    • C) They potentiate muscarinic and alpha1-adrenergic receptors.
    • D) They are potent D2 receptor blockers.
    • E) They have a low margin of safety in overdose.
  26. Correct Answer(s): E
  27. Which of the following statements about selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRIs) is correct?
    • A) They produce antidepressant effects after 2-4 weeks of administration.
    • B) They have a high margin of safety in overdose.
    • C) They should not be used together with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs).
    • D) They often produce headache and gastrointestinal discomfort during early therapy.
    • E) All of the above.
  28. Correct Answer(s): E
  29. Which of the following are negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
    • A) Auditory hallucinations.
    • B) Blunted affect.
    • C) Social withdrawal.
    • D) B and C
    • E) All of the above
  30. Correct Answer(s): D
  31. Antiemetics can mask lithium toxicity.
    • A) True
    • B) False
  32. Correct Answer(s): True
  33. A conscious patient who you suspect of suffering a stroke in your dental office should be placed in what position?
    • A) Head elevated above feet.
    • B) Feet elevated above head
    • C) Left lateral decubitus position (left side down)
    • D) Right lateral decubitus position (right side down)
    • E) None of the above
  34. Correct Answer(s): A
  35. 1. It is recommended that you wait 6 months before performing elective dental care after a patient has suffered a seizure.
    • A) True
    • B) False
  36. Correct Answer(s): False
  37. In skeletal muscle excitation-contraction coupling (EC Coupling), calcium is the key regulatory ion that binds to the troponin C on the thin filament allowing crossbridge cycling and force development. True or False: 100% of the calcium that binds to troponin C to elicit a contraction in skeletal muscle is derived from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR), not the extracellular space.
    • A) True
    • B) False
  38. Explanation: See EC-Coupling Sections of the text and lecture slides for details.
    Correct Answer(s): True
  39. In mammalian skeletal muscle, the amount of force developed during a contraction is determined by all of the following except: [select the only factor that does NOT regulate skeletal muscle force]
    • A) Number of active motor units.
    • B) Level of muscle fatigue.
    • C) Level of circulating hormones and inotropic agents in the blood stream.
    • D) Fiber diameter.
    • E) Action potential frequency (frequency-tension relation).
  40. Explanation: See tables 9-4 & 9-6 in text and last topic in lectures.
    Correct Answer(s): C
  41. In normal skeletal muscle myofibers are:
    • A) Mononuclear with a centrally located nucleus
    • B) Mononuclear with a peripherally located nucleus
    • C) Multinucleated with peripherally located nuclei
    • D) Multinucleated with centrally located nuclei
    • E) Not nucleated
  42. Correct Answer(s): C
  43. Perifascicular atrophy is a hallmark of dermatomyositis:
    • A) True
    • B) False
  44. Correct Answer(s): True
  45. Pruritis is the medical term for:
    • A) Blistering
    • B) Rash of poison ivy
    • C) Itching
    • D) Inflamed lump less than 0.5 cm diameter
    • E) Open comedone
  46. Correct Answer(s): C
  47. The matrix for woven bone is secreted by osteoclasts.
    • A) True
    • B) False
  48. Correct Answer(s): False
  49. Identify the layer of cells at the tip of the arrow.
    • A) Osteoblasts
    • B) Osteoclasts
    • C) Chondroblasts
    • D) Bone Collar Cells
  50. Correct Answer(s): A
  51. Fibrocartilage tends to be highly eosinophilic due to a high ratio of type I collagen and relatively low concentration of glycosaminoglycans.
    • A) True
    • B) False
  52. Correct Answer(s): True
  53. In this image of developing bone, which of the following statements is true?
    • A) This is an example of intramembranous ossification.
    • B) The whitish cells in the center of the bone are osteocytes.
    • C) Only a single primary ossification center is present in the image.
    • D) Osteoclasts arrive early in the development of bone in order to degrade matrix components and make way for osteoblasts.
  54. Correct Answer(s): C
  55. Which of the following statements is true regarding the tissue in the image?
    • A) The matrix contains 95% collagen and 5% organic minerals.
    • B) It is rich in type I collagen, which provides rigidity for the tissue.
    • C) This tissue is richly vascularized.
    • D) This type of tissue is found in the epiglottis.
  56. Correct Answer(s): A
  57. Which of the following statements is not true?
    • A) Most cases of osteogenesis imperfecta are caused by mutations in type I collagen.
    • B) Patients with osteopetrosis are prone to fractures.
    • C) C. Decreased bone remodeling is the major cause of Paget disease of bone.
    • D) Kidney failure is a common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism.
  58. Correct Answer(s): C
  59. Which of the following drugs can cause osteonecrosis of the jaw?
    • A) Aspirin
    • B) Bisphosphonates
    • C) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
    • D) Fluoxetine (Prozac)
  60. Correct Answer(s): B
  61. Which of the following conditions can be caused by vitamin D deficiency?
    • A) Hyperparathyroidism
    • B) Fibrous dysplasia
    • C) Ollier disease
    • D) Rickets
  62. Correct Answer(s): D
  63. Increasing the peak bone mass before the age of 30 is the most important factor in delay/prevention of senile osteoporosis.
    • A) True
    • B) False
  64. Correct Answer(s): True
  65. Secretion of parathyroid hormone is controlled chiefly by serum calcium through negative feedback regulation.
    • A) True
    • B) False
  66. Correct Answer(s): True

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