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2012-08-16 22:40:58

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  1. Where do the 3 nerves of the trigeminal nerve exit?
    • Ophthalmic nerve - Superior orbital fissure
    • Maxillary nerve - Foramen rotundum
    • Mandibular nerve - foramen ovale
  2. What the CSF findings in meningitis?
    Acute pyogenic meningitis - neuttrophils are markedly increased

    Acute lymphocytic meningitis if only lymphocytes are markedly increased

    Chronic meningitis if lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages, and fibroblasts are increased. (usually Mycobacterium tuberculosis)
  3. What is the splanchnic nerve and what are the divisions?
    • Preganglionic Sympathetic chain
    • Greater splanchnic = T5-T9
    • Lesser splanchnic = T10-T11
    • Least splanchnic = T12
  4. What is the substance that strenghtens the inner membrane of the mitochondria for proton motive force?
  5. What disease is associated with lysosomal dysfunction and hexoaminidase A deficiency?
    • Tay Sachs -> increase glycolipids in neurons
    • - mental & physical abilities deteriorate
    • 6 mos- blind, death and unable to swallow.
    • Usually death at four years old.
  6. What are the functions of Peroxisomes?
    • Imports proteins
    • Detoxifies phenols, formic acid, formaldehyde, and alcoohol
    • beta oxidation of FA-> acetyl coA
    • bile acid synthesis
    • plasmalogens synthesis -> myelin
  7. What is a neurologial disease that is caused by a dysfunction in Peroxisomes
    • Adrenoleukodystrophy (x-linked recessive)
    • - brain damage, adrenal gland failure, seizures, ataxia, Addisons, visual and auditory functional degeneration.
  8. What are 2 exceptions to the sympathetic nervous system with regards to innervation?
    • Sweat glands are innvervated via M3 receptors
    • Adrenal medulla only has preganglionic innervation from the SNS
  9. Describe the 2 cholinergic receptors
    Nicotinic = SNS & PNS preganglionic

    Muscarinic = PNS target organs & sweat glands
  10. What is the receptor for bronchiole dilation and constriction?
    Dilation = B2

    Constriction = M3
  11. Describe meningiomas
    • Slow growing benign tumors
    • Originate from either dura mater or arachnoid
    • incite osteoblastic reactions
    • Form whorls and psammoma bodies
    • Superior parasaggital surface of the frontal lobes are common
    • produce leg weakness
  12. Autopsy shows bilateral, linear, parasagittal areas of necrosis in the juncitonal zone between the anterior and middle cerebral arterial territories.  What is most likely responsible for this?
    This is watershed infarct caused by ischemia.
  13. What is responsible for making CSF?
    In the ventricles the ependymal cells of choroid plexus.
  14. What type of injury is Wallerian degeneration?
  15. What does grey matter consist of?
    Neuronal cell bodies, dendrites, and interneurons
  16. What is a multipolar neuron transmit?
    Motor and CNS
  17. What is the cause of anencephaly and spina bifida?
    Anencephaly- no cranial closure by day 25-26

    Spina bifida- no caudal closure by day 27-28

    closure of neural tube is being referred here.
  18. What arises from the neural crest cells?
    • Arachnoid and pia mater
    • dorsal root ganglia
    • sympathetic ganglia
    • medulla of supraenal gland
    • enteric ganglia in gut tube
  19. What do the alar and basal plate of the spinal cord correspond to?
    • Alar = sensory
    • Basal = motor
  20. What differences are there between the meninges of the brain and the spinal cord?
    Cranial - Dura mater is double layered and attached to inner skull surface = potential epidural space

    Spinal - Dura mater is single layered and is suspended in the vertebral canal = real epidural space
  21. Describe the path of CSF from the beginning.
    Choroid plexus -> lateral ventricles -> foramen of monroe-> third ventricle -> sylvius aqueduct -> fourth ventricle -> magendie and luschka -> subarachnoid space -> arachnoid villi -> sinuses -> internal jugular vein
  22. What does the pterion consist of?
    Unites frontal, parietal, sphenoid(greater wing) and temporal bones
  23. Describe Lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg syndrome)
    Caused by posterior inferior cerebellar occlusion

    • Vertigo, nystagmus, nausea, vomiting (vestibular nuclei)
    • I/L cerebellar signs (inferior cerebellar peduncle)
    • Dysphagia and dysphonia (nucleus ambiguus)
    • Loss of pain and temperature in I/L face & C/L body (spinal tract and nucleus of trigeminal nerve)
    • Horner syndrome (descending hypothalamics)
  24. Which nerve is responsible for innervating the parotid gland?
    Cranial nerve IX
  25. What are the special visceral afferent nerves and what is their association?
    Associated with the GI tract

    CN I, CN VII, CN IX, and CN X
  26. Where is the section derived that contains the superior colliculus and the inferior colliculus?
    This is the mesencephalon which is derived from the mesencephalon.

    Also contains the cerebral aqueduct & tegmentum (substantia nigra and red nucleus)
  27. What nuclei are present in the mid pons?
    • Motor nucleus of V
    • Abducens nuclei
    • Superior salivatory nucleus
    • Main sensory nucleus of V
    • Motor nucleus of VII

    Large middle cerebellar peduncles
  28. Describe the path of the dorsal column
    Begins with gracilis fasiculus or cuneatus fasiculus to DRG to respective nucleus -> caudal medulla where crosses over at internal arcuate fibers then via medial leminiscus to VPL to the cortex.
  29. What does Wernicke's area compose of and what is the defect that occurs in this area?
    INCLUDES: superior temporal gyrus and temporal planum

    • Wernicke's Aphasia
    • - poor comprehension
    • - good grammar but vague and meaningless.
  30. Describe oligodendroglioma
    Occurs in cerebral hemispheres

    Fried egg cells- round nuclei with clear cytoplasm
  31. Describe the dural venous sinuses
    • Superior sagittal, straight and occipital sinuses drain into the confluence of sinuses -> two transverse sinuses extend laterally and drain into the sigmoid sinuses -> exit skull as the internal jugular veins
  32. Which area of the diencephalon is affected in a patient presenting with diabetes insipidous?
    Paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus
  33. What is the major output of the ventral lateral and ventral anterior nuclei of the thalamus?
    Primary motor cortex
  34. What is REM sleep and what is responsible for inducing it?
    • Beta state where muscles are paralyzed.
    • internal sensation
    • illogical

    Ach and GABA are the NT responsible for REM sleep
  35. Describe REM behavior disorder
    Loss of REM muscle atonia
  36. What is lamina VII on the spinal cord?
    • Clarks column- nucleus dorsalis & Clarks nucleus:
    • balance and proprioception

    • intermediolateral nuclei:
    • Sympathetic neurons (C8-L2)
  37. What is subacute combined degeneration
    • Deficiency of B12 that leads to:
    • bilateral spastic paralysis
    • bilateral loss of proprioception and touch
  38. What are the roles of the alpha motor neuron and the gamma motor neuron?
    • Alpha motor neuron:
    • They are responsible for extrafusal muscle fibers

    • Gamma motor neuron:
    • Responsible for the intrafusal muscle fibers by regulating sensitivity of muscle spindle(1 alpha sensory)
  39. What would damage to the superior colliculus/pretectal area lead to?
    Parinaud syndrome- paralysis of upward gaze, various pupillary abnormalities.