ARMDS--500 questions

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ARMDS--500 questions
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2012-08-19 13:52:45
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  1. During a pulsed wave Doppler examination of the pulmonary veins the somographer notes giant atrila reveral waves. The most likely explanations is:

    mitral regurgitation
    aortic stenosis
    increased left ventricular end diastolic pressure
    hypovolomia
    increased left ventricular end diastolic pressure
  2. During a continuous wave Doppler examination of mitral regurgitation, the sonographer notes a peak velocity of 5.0 m/s. The pressure gradient between the left atrium and left ventricle during ventricular systole is:

    normal
    increased
    decreased
    cannot be predicted
    normal
  3. During a CW Dopploer examination of the aortic valve the sonographer notes a peak velocity of 4.0 m/s. The peak velocity across the left ventricle outflow tract is 2.0 m/s. The peak pressure gradient across the aortic valve is:

    4 mmHG
    16 mmHG
    48 mmHG
    64 mmHG
    48 mmHG
  4. During a CW Doppler exam of the tricuspid regurgitation the sonographer notes a peak velocity of 3.3 m/s. The pressure gradient between the LA and LV during ventricular systole is:


    increased
    decreased
    normal
    cannot be predicted
    increased
  5. Before beginning an EKG, the sonographer reviews a patient's cardial catheterization and finds the patient has giant right atrial A waves. The sonographer may find:

    tricuspid stenosis
    mitral stenosis
    left heart failure
    tricuspid regurgitation
    tricuspid stenois
  6. The sinoatrial node is located near the entrance of the:

    superior vena cava
    inferior vena cava
    pulmonary veins
    coronary sinus
    Superior vena cava
  7. The most developed of the internodal pathways which delivers the impulse from the sinoatrial node to the LA is called:

    Thorel's
    Wenchebach's
    Bachmann's
    Chiari's
    Bachmann's
  8. Which of the following components of the cardiac conduction system delays the impluse 1/10th of a second to allow the atria to deliver blood of the ventricles?

    sinoatrial node
    internodal pathways
    atrioventricular node
    His bundle
    atrioventricular node
  9. The portion of the cardiac conduction system that electricall connects the atria to the ventricles is called the:

    sinoatrial node
    atrioventricular node
    His bundle
    Purkinje fibers
    His bundle
  10. Which components of the cardiac conduction system delivers the electrical impulse form the bundle of His to the Purkinje fibers?

    sinoatrial node
    atrioventricular node
    Purkinje fibers
    bundle branches
    bundle branches
  11. Which portion of the elctrical conduction system delivers the electrical impulse to the ventricular heart walls?

    Purkinje fibers
    bundle branches
    atrioventricular node
    sinoatrial node
    Purkinje fibers
  12. Ventricular depolorization occurs from:

    endocardium to epicardium
    epicardium to endocardium
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    endocardium to epicardium
  13. The cardiac adipose tissue lies between which two layers of the heart?

    myocardium and endocardium
    epicardium and endocardium
    endocardium and myocardium
    epicardium and myocardium
    epicardium and myocardium
  14. The heart is placed in a protective sac called the:

    visceral pericardium
    parietal serous pericardium
    parietal pericardium
    oblique sinus
    parietal pericardium
  15. The pericardial space is located between the:

    parietal serous pericardium and epicardium
    fibrous pericardium and endocardium
    epicardium and myocardium
    visceral pericardium and myocardium
    parietal serous pericardium and epicardium
  16. The pericardial space normall contains up to ____cc of percardial fluid.

    0
    50
    100
    200
    50cc
  17. The free space created by the pericardial-pulmonary vein interface behind the left atrium is the:

    carotid sinus
    oblique sinus
    transverse sinus
    coronary sinus
    oblique sinus
  18. The free space created by the pericardial-great vessel interface is called the:

    carotid sinus
    oblique sinus
    transverse sinus
    coronary sinus
    transverse sinus
  19. The thin mois empbrane that lines the fibrous pericardium in the:

    visceral pericardium
    epicardiurm
    parietal serous
    parietal pericardium
    parietal serous
  20. The tip of the heart formed by the left ventricle is called the:

    base 
    apex
    sinus
    pericardium
    apex
  21. The widest portion of the heart is called the:

    apex
    base
    sinus
    percardium
    base
  22. The junction where the left heart border meets the pleura is called the:

    transverse sinus
    parietal serous
    oblique margin
    acute margin
    oblique margin
  23. Where the right heart border meets the diaphragm is the:

    transverse sinus
    oblique margin
    parietal serous
    acute margin
    acute margin
  24. In relation to the arota, the pulmonary artery lies:

    anterior and medial
    posterior and lateral
    anterior and leftward
    posterior and righward
    anterior and leftward
  25. Which of the following cardiac valves lies closest to the cardiac apex?

    mitral
    aortic
    tricuspid
    pulmonic
    tricuspid
  26. The heart tube appears by day:

    one
    ten
    twenty one
    forty three
    twenty one
  27. The heart tube loops:

    anterior and righward
    medially and laterally
    posterior and leftward
    caudad and coronal
    anterior and rightward
  28. The sinus venosus contributes to the formation of all of the following EXCEPT the:

    superior vena cava
    inferior vena cava
    coronary sinus
    pulmonary veins
    pulmonary veins
  29. All of the following are a part of the interatrial septum EXCEPT the:

    bulbus cordis
    septum primum
    septum secundum
    foramen ovale
    bulbus cordis
  30. The atrioventricular canal is divided by the:

    sinus venosus
    septum primum
    interventricular septum
    endocardial cushions
    endocardial cushions
  31. The endocardial cushions contribute to the formation of all the following EXCEPT the:

    semilunar valves
    atrioventricular valves
    atrial septum
    membranous septum
    semilunar valves
  32. The primitive ventricle is most often a morphologic:

    right ventricle
    left ventricle
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    left ventricle
  33. The bulbus cordis contributes to the formation of all of the following EXCEPT the:

    right ventricle
    left ventricle outflow tract
    right ventricle outflow tract
    ductus arteriosus
    ductus arteriosus
  34. Which of the following in considered a cono-truncal abnormality?

    bicuspid aortic valve
    patent ductus arteriosus
    tetralogy of Fallot
    univentricular heart
    tetralogy of Fallot
  35. The aortic sad contributes to the formation of all of the following EXCEPT the:

    bulboventricular foramen
    internal carotid artery
    aortic arch
    pulmonary artery branches
    bulboventricular foramen
  36. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the maternal:

    lungs
    placenta
    heart
    renals
    placenta
  37. Which of the following connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava?

    foramen ovale
    truncus arteriosus
    umbilical artery
    ductus venosus
    ductus venosus
  38. Which of the following permits the flow of blood from the RA to the LA during fetal circulation?

    ductus arteriosus
    ductus venosus
    umbilical artery
    foramen ovale
    foramen ovale
  39. In fetal circulation, which of the following allows blood to be shunted from the pulmonary artery to the aorta?

    foramen ovale
    ductus arteriosus
    ductus venosus
    ligamentum arteriosum
    ductus arteriosus
  40. During fetal circulation, deoxygenated blood is returned to the placenta via the:

    foramen ovale
    ductus arteriosus
    umbilical vein
    umbilical arteries
    umbilical arteries
  41. All of the following are true statments concerning postnatal circulationEXCEPT:

    pulmonary vascular resistance increases
    foramen ovale closed due to an increase in left heart pressures
    ductus arteriosus closes due to flow of oxygenated blood across the ductus aretriosus
    ductus venosus closes and becomes the ligamentum venosum
    pulmonary vascular resistance increases
  42. The atrial septal defect that involves the central portion of the atrial septum is the:

    ostium secundum
    ostium primum
    sinus venosus
    coronary sinus
    ostium secundum
  43. The atrial spetal defect that involves the uppper protion of the atrial septum is called the:

    ostium secundum
    ostium primum
    sinus venosus
    coronary sinus
    sinus venosus
  44. The ASD that involes the lower portion of the atrial septum is called the:

    ostium secundum
    ostium primum
    sinus venosus
    patent foramen ovale
    ostium primum
  45. Which ASD is associated with mitral valve prolapse?

    ostium secundum
    ostium primum
    sinus venosus
    coronary sinus
    ostium secundum
  46. Which ASD is associated partial anomalous pulmonary venous return?

    ostium secundum
    ostium primum
    sinus venosus
    coronary sinus
    sinus venosus
  47. Which ASD is associated with cleft atrioventricular valve?

    ostium secundum
    ostium primum
    sinus venosus
    coronary sinus
    ostium primum
  48. Which of the following ASD is associated with Down's syndrome?

    ostium secundum
    ostium primum
    sinus venosus
    coronary sinus
    ostium primum
  49. Which ASD is associated with Lutembacher's syndrome?

    ostium secundum
    ostium primum
    sinus venosus
    coronary sinus
    ostium secundum
  50. The VSD located beneath the aortic valve at the level of the left ventricular outflow tract is the:

    perimembranous
    muscular
    inlet
    outlet
    perimembranous
  51. The VSD which involves the muscular septum and may be multiple is the:

    perimembranous
    trabecular
    inlet
    outlet
    trabecular
  52. The VSD defect located posteriorly and inferiorly beneath the right heart atrioventricular valve is the:

    outlet
    trabecular
    inlet
    perimembranous
    inlet
  53. The VSD located beneath the pulmonic balve in the right ventricular outflow tract is the :

    outlet
    perimembranous
    inlet
    trabecular
    outlet
  54. The abnormal narrowing of the descending thoracic aorta is called:

    truncus
    coarctation
    Ebstein's
    Uhl's anomaly
    coarctation
  55. The congenital heart defect most often associated with aortic coarctation is the:

    cleft atrioventricular valve
    perimembrenous VSD
    ostium secundum ASD
    bicuspid aortic valve
    biscuspid aortic valve
  56. All of the following are considered components of tetralogy of Fallot EXCEPT:

    subpulmonic stenosis
    malalignment VSD
    ostium primum ASD
    overriding aorta
    ostium primum ASD
  57. The aorta arised from the RV and the pulmonary artery arises from the LV is called:

    normal
    D-Transposition of the great arteries
    Ebstein's anomaly
    L-Transposition of the great arteries
    D-transposition of the great arteries
  58. Ventricular inversion with the aorta orginationg from the RV and the pulmonary artery originationg from the LV is called:

    teralogy of Fallot
    Turner's syndrome
    d-transposition of the great arteries
    l-transposition of the great arteries
    l-transposition of the great arteries
  59. A single great vessel that gives rise to the pulmonary arteries, coronary arteries and arch vessels is called:

    truncus arteriosus
    tetralogy of Fallot
    l-transposition of the great arteries
    d-transposition of the great arteries
    truncus arteriosus
  60. The failure of the pulmonary vascular resistance to fall after birth thus resulting in right-to-left foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus shunts is called:

    tetralogy of Fallot
    d-transposition of the great arteries
    persistent fetal circulation
    patent foramen ovale
    persistent fetal circulation
  61. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with paradoxical embolism in the adult?

    bicuspid arotic valve
    patent foramen ovale
    cleft atrioventricular valve
    aortic coarctation
    patent foramen ovale
  62. All of the following are associated with persistent ductus arteriosus EXCEPT:

    permaturity
    maternal rubella
    maternal diabetes
    high altitude birth
    maternal diabetes
  63. The abnormal insetion of the tricuspid valve towards the cardiac apex is called:

    Ebstein's anomaly
    Turner's syndrome
    Down's syndrome
    Ehlers-Danlos
    Ebstein's anomaly
  64. All of the following are generally considered left-to-right shunts EXCEPT:

    ASD
    VSD
    persistent fetal circulation
    patent ductus arteriosus
    persistent fetal circulation
  65. According to EKG, ventricular diastole occurs between the:

    QRS and T wave
    P wave to the QRS complex
    end of the T wave to the onset of the QRS complex
    S wave to the P wave
    end of the T wave to the onse of the QRS complex
  66. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the cardiac valves during ventricular diastole?

    AV valves are open, semilunar valves are open
    AV valves are closed, semilunar valves are closed
    AV valves are open, semilunar valves are closed
    AV valves are closed, semilunar valves are open
    AV vales are open, semilunar valves are closed
  67. All of the following are considered components of ventricular diastole EXCEPT:

    atrial systole
    rapid early filling
    diastasis
    pre-ejection period
    pre-ejection period
  68. What % of filling normally occurs during early, rapid ventricular diastole?

    10%
    30%
    50%
    70%
    70%
  69. What % of filling normally occurs with atrial systole?

    10%
    30%
    50%
    70%
    30%
  70. In relation to the EKG, ventricular systole occurs during the:

    end of the T wave to the onset of the QRS complex
    peak of the R wave to the end of the S wave
    onset of the Q wave to the end of the T wave
    end of the P wave to the onset of QRS complex
    onset of the Q wave to the end of the T wave
  71. Which of the following is a true statement concerning the cardiac valves during ventricular systole?

    semilunar valves are open, AV valves are open
    semilunar vales are closed, AV valves are closed
    semilunar valves are open, AV valves are closed
    semilunar valves are closed, AV valves are open
    semilunar valves are open, AV valves are closed
  72. The time period between semilunar valve closure and AV valves opening is called:

    ventricular systole
    artial systole
    isovolumic contraction
    isovolumic relaxation
    isovloumic relaxation
  73. Which of the following is a true statment concerning isovolumic relaxation?

    ventricular pressure and volume are decreasing
    ventricular pressure and volume are increasing
    ventricular pressure is decreasing and ventricular volume is increasing
    ventricular pressure is decreasing and vetricular volume is unchanged
    ventricular pressure is decreasing and ventricular volume is unchanged
  74. Cardiac output adjusted for body surface area is called:

    stroke volume
    cardiac output
    cardiac index
    ejection fraction
    cardiac index
  75. All of the following may be calculated by cardiac Doppler EXCEPT:

    stroke volume
    cardiac output
    cardiac index
    ejection fraction
    ejection fraction
  76. All of the following are considered a part of the pulmonary circulation EXCEPT:

    right ventricle
    main pulmonary artery and branches
    pulmonary capillaries
    vena cava
    vena cava
  77. All of the following are considered a component of the systemic circulation EXCEPT:

    left ventricle
    aorta
    cerebral, peripheral and abdominal veins
    pulmonary veins
    pulmonary veins
  78. When comparing the systemic circulation to the pulmonary circulation all of the following are true EXCEPT:

    higher pressure
    higher resistance
    higher carbon dioxide content
    thicker vessel walls
    higher carbon dioxide content
  79. The central venous pressure is 4 mmHG. This pressure most likely represents which cardicad chamber pressure?

    right atrium
    left atrium
    left ventricle
    pulmonary artery
    right atrium
  80. A pulmonary wedge pressure tracing ready 14 mmHG. This represents the pressure in the:

    right atrium
    left atrium
    left ventricle
    pulmonary artery
    left atrium
  81. A normal pressure tracing reads 3 mmHG, this most likely represents the pressure in the:

    left atrium
    right atrium
    pulmonary artery
    aorta
    right atrium
  82. Which pressure will most likely be increased initially in a patient with valvular aortic stenosis?

    left ventricle
    aorta
    right atrium
    right ventricle
    left ventricle
  83. Which pressure will most likely be increased initially in a patient with mitral stenosis?

    left atrium
    left ventricle
    right atrium
    right ventricle
    left atrium
  84. Which of the followiong arial waves will most likely be increased in a patient with significant atrioventricular valve regurgitation?

    A wave
    Y descent
    V wave
    X descent
    V wave
  85. Which of the following atrial waves will most likely be increased in a patient with AV valve stenosis?

    A wave
    Y descent
    V wave
    X descent
    A wave
  86. All of the following will increase ventricular systolic pressure EXCEPT:

    systemic hypertension
    pulmonary hypertension
    semilunar valve stenosis
    AV valve prolapse
    AV valve prolapse
  87. All of the following may increase ventricular end-diastolic pressure EXCEPT:

    sinus of valsalva aneurysm
    constrictive pericarditis
    congestive heart failure
    poor ventricular systolic function
    sinus of valsalve aneurysm
  88. All of the following may increase pulmonary artery pressure EXCEPT:

    left-to-right shunts
    tricuspid regurgitation
    left heart disease
    chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
    tricuspid regurgitation
  89. All of the following maneuvers will increase venous return EXCEPT:

    supine to standing
    standing to supine
    passive leg raising
    standing to squatting
    supine to standing
  90. Which of the following maneuvers will reduce venous return?

    standing to squatting
    passive leg raising
    standing to supine
    supine to standing
    supine to standing
  91. How will the strain phase of the valvalsa maneuver affect venous return?

    increase
    decrease
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    decrease
  92. All of the following will increase during the isometric handrip EXCEPT:

    peripheral vascular resistance
    blood pressure
    heart rate
    respiratory rate
    respiratory rate
  93. How will quite inspiration affect venous return?

    increase
    decrease
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    increase
  94. How will quite expiration affect venous return?

    increase
    decrease
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    decrease
  95. All of the following mumurs will increase in intensity during the maneuver supine to standing EXCEPT:

    semilumar valve stenosis
    hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
    semilumar valve regurgitation
    AV valve regurgitation
    hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
  96. Which of the following murmurs will decrease in intensity during the maneuver standing to supine?

    valvular arotic stenosis
    valvular pulmonic stenosis
    hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
    cannot be predicted
    hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
  97. How will the manuuver standing to squatting affect the murmur of hypertorphic cardiomyopathy?

    increase
    decrease
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    decrease
  98. All of the following murmurs will decrease in intensity during the strain phase of the valsalva maneuver EXCEPT:

    valvular arotic stenosis
    tricuspid regurgitation
    hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
    mitral valve stenosis
    hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
  99. Quiet inspiration will increase all of the following EXCEPT:

    tricuspid regurgitation
    mitral regurgitation
    S2 time interval
    pulmonary regurgitation
    mitral regurgitation
  100. All of the following will decrease during quiet expiration EXCEPT:

    tricuspid regurgitation
    pulmonary regurgitation
    S2 time interval
    mitral regurgitation
    mitral regurgitation
  101. The normal S1 heard sound is caused by:

    mitral & tricuspid opening
    mitral & tricuspid closing
    aortic & pulmonic valve opening
    aortic & pulmonic valve closing
    mitral & tricuspid closing
  102. In relation to the EKG, the S1 heart sound normally occurs at the:

    onset of the P wave
    onset of the QRS
    end of the T wave
    end of the S wave
    onset of the QRS
  103. Normally the loudes component of S1 heart sound is closure of the:

    mitral valve
    tricuspid valve
    aortic valve
    pulmonic valve
    mitral valve
  104. In relationship to tricuspid valve closue, normally mitral valve closure occurs:

    before
    after
    during
    varies
    before
  105. The normal S2 heart sound is caused by:

    mitral & tricuspid closure
    mitral & tricuspid opening
    aortic & pulmonic closure
    aortic & pulmonic opening
    aortic & pulmonic closure
  106. In relation to the EKG, S2 normally occurs at the :

    onset of QRS complex
    onset of the P wave
    end of the T wave
    end of the PR interval
    end of the T wave
  107. Which compoennt of S2 is normally the loudest?

    mitral valve opening
    tricuspid valve closure
    aortic valve closure
    pulmonic valve closure
    aortic valve closure
  108. Which of the following will increase the interval between arotic valve closure and pulmonic valve closure?

    inspiration
    expiration
    standing to supine
    strain phase of the valsalva
    inspiration
  109. Whick of the following component parts of the circulation is best capable of altering blood flow to the capillaries?

    arota
    peripheral arteries
    arterioles
    venules
    atrerioles
  110. Which of the following components of the circulation conducts blood from the peripheral tissues to the heart?

    aorta
    venules
    arterioles
    veins
    veins
  111. Which effect will an increase in preload normally have on cardiac contractility?

    increase
    decrease
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    increase
  112. Which of the following will most likely increase ventricular afterload?

    mitral & tricuspid regurgitation
    mitral & tricuspid stenosis
    aortic & pulmonic regurgitation
    aortic & pulmonic regurgitation
    aortic & pulmonic regurgitation
  113. Coronary artery blood occurs predominantly during:

    artial systole
    ventricular diastole
    ventricular systole
    isovolumic contraction
    ventricular diastole
  114. All of the following will affect coronary artery blood flow EXCEPT:

    aortic distolic blood pressure
    left ventricular end-diastolic pressure
    heart rate
    body surface area
    body surface area
  115. All of the following are considered the formed elements of   blood except:

    plasma
    red blood cells
    white blood cells
    platelets
    plasma
  116. Which component of blood carries hemoglobin?

    erythrocytes
    leukocytes
    plasma
    thrombocytes
    erythrocytes
  117. The term that refers to the % of red blood cells present is:

    leukopenia
    anemia
    polycthemia
    hematocrit
    hematocrit
  118. The term that mean there is an abnormal increase in the number of red blood cells is:

    hematocrit
    polycythemia
    anemia
    leukopenia
    polycythemia
  119. The term used ot describe an abnormal increase in the number of white blood cells is:

    polycythemia
    leukopenia
    hematocrit
    plasmacrit
    leukopenia
  120. What % of blood is made up of plasma?

    15%
    35%
    55%
    75%
    55%
  121. What % does red blood cells constitute the formed elements of blood?

    15%
    35%
    55%
    75%
    35%
  122. Chest pain due to myocardial ischemia is called?

    nocturia
    clubbing
    hemoptysis
    angina pectoris
    angina pectoris
  123. ________ is a state of ill health, malnutrition and wasting.

    angina pectoris
    cachexia
    clubbing
    edema
    cachexia
  124. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with cyanotic congenital heart disease?

    cachexia
    cor pulmonale
    angina pectoris
    clubbing
    clubbin
  125. Right heart failure due to intrinsic pulmonary disease is called:

    clubbing
    cyanosis
    cor pulmonale
    angina pectoris
    cor pulmonale
  126. The bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes is called:

    clubbing
    cyanosis
    cachexia
    cor pulmonale
    cyanosis
  127. The abnormal uncomfortable awarness of breathing is called:

    hemoptysis
    hepatomegaly
    edema
    dyspnea
    dyspnea
  128. The accumulation of fluid in cells, tissues or cavaties is called:

    edema
    syncope
    hemoptysis
    nocturia
    edema
  129. A patient with fever of unknown origin, chills and a new murmur most likely has:

    valvular aortic stenosis
    mitral valve prolapse
    infective endocarditis
    cardiac myxoma
    infective endocarditis
  130. Which of the following most likely represents right hear failure?

    hemoptysis
    syncope
    hepatomegaly
    angina pectoris
    hepatomegaly
  131. Which of the following is most often associated with mitral valve stenosis?

    cor pulmonale
    angina pectoris
    hemoptysis
    nocturia
    hemoptysis
  132. Which of the following indicates increased right heart pressure?

    jugular venous distention
    hemoptysis
    syncope
    angina pectoris
    jugular venouse distention
  133. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with mitral valve prolapse?

    cachexia
    clubbing
    pectus excavatum
    angina pectoris
    pectus excavatum
  134. Which of the following is most likely to be assosicated with valvular aortic stenosis?

    hemoptysis
    syncope
    pectus carinatum
    nocturia
    syncope
  135. Which fo the following peulse is most likely to be present in a patient with severe left ventricular dysfunction?

    pulsus alternans
    pulsus bisfierens
    pulsus paradoxus
    pulsus parvus et tardus
    pulsus alternans
  136. Which of the following pulses is most likely to be present in a patient with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

    pulsus parvus et tardus
    pulsus paradoxus
    pulsus bisfierens
    pulsus alternans
    pulsus bisfierens
  137. Which of the following pulses is most likely to be present in a patient with cardiac tamponade?

    pulses bisfierens
    pulsus alternans
    pulsus paradoxus
    pulsus parvus et tardus
    pulsus paradoxus
  138. Which of the followiong pulses is most likely to be present in a patient with valvular aortic stenosis?

    pulsus paradoxus
    pulsus bisfierens
    pulsus parvus et tradus
    pulsus alternans
    pulsus parvus et tradus
  139. Which of the following sings is associated with an enlarged heart?

    thrill
    pectus excavatum
    displacement of the PMI
    left ventricular thrust
    displacement of the PMI
  140. Which of the following is associated with and enlarged left atrium?

    left parasternal lift
    left ventricular thrus
    left ventricular systolic bulge
    thrill
    left parasternal lift
  141. Whichof the following sings indicates left ventricular hypertrophy?

    left parasternal lift
    left ventricular thrust
    left ventricular systolic bulge
    thrill
    left ventricular thrust
  142. Which of the following signs is associated with left vetricular aneurysm?

    left ventricular thrust
    left ventricular systolic bulge
    thrill
    left parasternal lift
    left ventricular systolic bulge
  143. S1 is best auscultated at the 

    right uppper sternal border
    left uppper sternal border
    xyphoid area
    cardiac apex
    cardiac apex
  144. S2 is best auscultated at the

    upper left sternal border
    lower left sternal border
    xyphoid area
    cardiac apex
    upper left sternal border
  145. Which of the following are true statments concerning the effect of respiration on S2?

    S2 splits on inspiration, narrows on expiration
    S2 narrows on inspiration, splits on expiration
    S2 reverses on inspiration, normalizes on expiration
    cannot be precited
    S2 splits on inspiration, narrows on expiration
  146. Which heart sounds indicates an increase in early ventricular diastolic filling?

    S1
    S2
    S3
    S4
    S3
  147. All of the following pathologies are associated with S3 EXCEPT:

    mitral stenosis
    anemia
    significant mitral regurgitation
    significant pulmonary regurgitation
    mitral stenosis
  148. The S3 is best auscultated at the:

    right upper sternal border
    left upper sternal border
    xyphoid area
    cardiac apex
    cardiac apex
  149. Which of the following heart sounds is associated with decreased ventricular compliance?

    S1
    S2
    S3
    S4
    S4
  150. The S4 heart sound occurs in response to:

    early ventricular relaxation
    isovolumic contraction
    atrial systole
    ventricular diastasis
    atrial systole
  151. The S4 heart sound is best auscultated at the:

    right upper sternal border
    left upper sternal border
    xyphoid area
    cardiac apex
    cardiac apex
  152. All of the following pathologies are associated with an S4 EXCEPT:

    systemic hypertension
    acute myocardial infarction
    semilunar valve stenosis
    left to right shunt
    left to right shunt
  153. All of the following heart sounds are associated with rheumatic mitral stenois EXCEPT:

    loud S1
    fixed split S2
    opening snap
    presystolic diastolic rumble
    fixed split S2
  154. Which of the following heart sounds is associated with congenital semilunar valve stenosis?

    loud S2
    fixed split S2
    ejection click
    opening snap
    ejection click
  155. Which of the following heart sound is most commonly associated with mitral valve prolapse?

    loud S1
    opening snap
    midsystolic click
    fixed split S2
    midsystolid click
  156. Which of the following heart sounds is most often associated with atrial septal defect?

    loud S1
    fixed split S2
    midsystolic click
    ejection sound
    fixed split S2
  157. All of the following may cause a murmur EXCEPT:

    increased flow rate across a cardiac valve
    forward flow across a stenotic valve
    backward flow across a regurgitation valve
    cardiac valve opening and closure
    cardiac valve opening and closure
  158. For cardiac auscultation, the mitral valve area is considered to be the:

    right upper sternal border
    left upper sternal border
    xyphoid area
    cardiac apex
    cardiac apex
  159. For cardiac auscultation, the tricuspid valve area is considered to be the:

    right upper sternal border
    left upper sternal border
    xyphoid area
    cardiac apex
    xyphoid area
  160. For cardiac auscultation, the aortic valve ared is considered to be the:

    right upper sternal border
    left upper sternal border
    xyphoid area
    cardiac apex
    right upper sternal border
  161. For cardiac auscultation, the pulmonic valve area is considered to be the:

    right upper sternal border
    left upper sternal border
    xyphoid area
    cardiac apex
    left upper sternal border
  162. The description of the timing of a cardiac murmur may include all of the following except:

    diastolic
    diastasis
    systolic
    continuous
    diastasis
  163. A murmur that begins softly and becomes louder is called:

    crescendo
    decrescendo
    cresendo-decrescendo
    diamond shaped
    crescendo
  164. A murmur that begins loud and becomes softer is called:

    crescendo
    decrescendo
    cresendo-decrescendo
    diamond shaped
    decrescendo
  165. A murmur that begins softly, becomes louder, and then decreases in intensity is called:

    crescendo
    decrescendo
    cresendo-decrescendo
    continuous
    cresendo-decrescendo
  166. All of the folloowing are associated with an early systolic murmur EXCEPT:

    small ventricular septal defect
    valvular aortic stenosis
    large VSD with pulmonary hypertension
    severe acute atrioventricular regurgitation
    valvular aortic stenosis
  167. All of the following are assoicated with a systolic ejection murmur EXCEPT:

    valvular semilunar valve stenosis
    dilatation of the aorta or pulmonary artery
    increased heart rate
    atrioventricular valve regurgitation
    atrioventricular valve regurgitation
  168. All of the following are assoicated with a holosystolic murmur EXCEPT:

    mitral regurgitation
    semilunar valve stenosis
    VSD
    tricuspid regurgitation
    VSD
  169. The most likely cause of a late systolic mumur is:

    semilunar valve stenosis
    atrioventricular valve stenosis
    mitral valve prolapse
    patent ductus arteriosus
    mitral valve prolapse
  170. The most likely cause of an early diastolic murmur is:

    mitral & tricuspid stenosis
    mitral & tricuspid regurgitation
    aortic & pulmonic stenosis
    aortic & pulmonic regurgitation
    aortic & pulmonic regurgitation
  171. The most likely cause of a mid-diastolic murmur is:

    atrioventricular valve stenosis
    mitral valve prolapse
    semilunar valve stenosis
    semilunar valve regurgitation
    atrioventricular valve stenosis
  172. All of the following are likely causes of a continuous murmur EXCEPT:

    patent ductus arteriosus
    atrioventricular valve stenosis
    coronary artery from the pulmonary artery
    ruptured sinus of valsalva aneurysm
    atrioventricular valve stenosis
  173. All of the following murmurs will decrease in intensity during the strain phase of the valsalva maneuver EXCEPT:

    atrioventricular valve stenosis
    atrioventricular valve regurgitation
    semilunar valve stenosis
    hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
    hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
  174. All of the following are considered a component of a routine cardiac cath EXCEPT:

    right heart
    left heart
    coronary arteriogram
    transvalvular Doppler
    transvalvular Doppler
  175. All of the following information may be recored during a routine cardiac cath EXCEPT:

    intercardiac pressures
    oxygen saturations
    assessment of ventricular function
    transvalvular peak velocities
    transvalvular peak velocities
  176. All of the following information may be recored during a routine caridiac cath EXCEPT the evaluation of:

    valvular velocities
    valvular stenosis/regurgitation
    cardiac shunts
    congenital heart disease
    valvular velocities
  177. All of the following information may be recorded during a right heart cath EXCEPT:

    right atrial pressure
    right ventricular systolic/diastolic pressure
    left ventricular systolic/diastolic pressure
    systolic/mean/diastolic pulmonary artery pressure
    left ventricular systolic/diastolic pressure
  178. The pulmonary artery wedge pressure is obtained during a:

    right heart cath
    left heart cath
    coronary arteriogram
    pulmonary arteriogram
    right heart cath
  179. The pulmonary artery wedge pressure represent the pressure of the:

    left atrium
    right atrium
    right ventricl
    pulmonary artery
    left atrium
  180. Which of the following is the most common right heart cardiac cath methoud used for predicting cardiac output?

    Fick
    Gorlin
    thermodilution
    indicator dye
    thermodilution
  181. All of the following pressures may be obtained during a left heart cardiac cath EXCEPT:

    left ventricular systolic
    left ventricular end-diastolic
    pulmonary wedge pressure
    arotic systolic/diastolic
    pulmonary wedge pressure
  182. Which of the following cardiac cath techniques would be best used to evaluate the severity of aortic regurgitation?

    aortography
    left ventriculography
    coronary arteriography
    pulmonary wedge
    aortography
  183. All of the following may be evaluated during a cardiac cath left ventriculogram EXCEPT:

    mitral regurgitation
    left ventricular global function
    left ventricular segmental function
    left ventricular systolic/end-diastolic pressure
    left ventricular systolic/end-diastolic pressure
  184. The brachial approach that may be utilized during a cardiac cath is called the:

    Sone's
    Judkin's
    Gorlin
    Fick
    Sone's
  185. A coronary artriogram reveals a 75% stenosis of the right coronary artery. This is considered:

    normal
    mild
    moderate
    significant
    significant
  186. The cardiac cath technique that injects chilled saline into the right heart and measures the temperature change at a distal site to predict cardiac ouput is:

    thermodilution
    indicator dilution
    Fick method
    angiography
    thermodilution
  187. The cardiac cath techique which injects a dye into the right heart and measures the concentration of dye at an arterial site in order to predict cardiac output is called:

    thermodilution
    indicator dilution
    Fick method
    angiography
    indicator dilution
  188. The most accurate cardiac cath technique for predictiong cardiac output is:

    thermodilution
    indicator dilution
    Fick method
    angiography
    Fick method
  189. Which of the following cardiac cath techinques allows for th prediction of cardiac output by injecting a radiopaque dye into the ventricle?

    Fick
    thermodilution
    angiography
    indicator dilution
    angiography
  190. Which of the following cardiac cath techniques would be best to utilize in quantifying a left-to-right shunt?

    left ventriculography
    aortography
    oximetry
    arteriography
    oximetry
  191. A left ventriculogram will allow the evaluation of all of the following EXCEPT left ventricular:

    global function
    segmental function
    stroke volume
    systolic pressure
    systolic pressure
  192. Which cardiac valve regurgitation may a left ventriculogram best evaluate?

    aortic
    mitral
    pulmonic
    tricuspid
    mitral
  193. All of the following may be valuated during a right heart cath ventriculogram EXCEPT right ventricular:

    global systolic function
    segmental wall motion
    tricuspid regurgitation
    systolic/diastolic pressure
    systolic/diastolic pressure
  194. Which cardiac cath techinque is best used to evaluate aortic root dimension?

    coronary arteriogram
    left ventriculogram
    aortogram
    oximetry
    aortogram
  195. All of the following are likely causes of cardiomegaly as seen on chest x-ray EXCEPT:

    pleural effusion
    dilated cardiomyopathy
    ventricular hypertrophy
    ventricular dilatation
    pleural effusion
  196. All of the following are associated with an increase in pulmonary vascularity on chest x-ray EXCEPT:

    left heart failure
    aortic aneurysm
    left-to-right cardiac shunt
    left heart valvular disease
    aortic aneurysm
  197. A widened mediastinum as viewed on a chest x-ray suggests:

    infective enodcarditis
    mitral valve prolapse
    aortic dissection
    constrictive pericarditis
    aortic dissection
  198. Which of the following nuclear test utilizes Thallium-201 to evaluate coronary artery disease?

    myocardial perfusion
    infarct avid imaging
    radionuclide angiography
    MUGA
    myocardial perfusion
  199. Which of the following nucelar medicine test is utilized to evaluate acute myocardial infarction?

    myocardial perfusion
    infarct avid imaging
    radionuclide angiography
    MUGA
    infarct avid imaging
  200. Whichof the following nuclear medicine tests injests a radionuclide isotope is order to visualize the atria, ventricles and great vessels?

    myocardial perfusion
    radionuclide angiography
    infarct avid imaging
    sestamibi imaging
    radionuclide angiongraphy
  201. Which nuclear medicine test allows for the calculation of ejection fraction?

    myocardial perfusion
    Cardiolyte
    infarct avid imaging
    MUGA
    MUGA
  202. According to Poiseuille's law, as the diameter of a tube increases, flow rate will:

    increase
    decrease
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    increase
  203. According to Poiseuille's law, as the pressure gradient increases, flow rate will:

    increase
    decrease 
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    increase
  204. According to Poiseuille's law, as the lenth of a tube increases, flow rate:

    increases
    decreases
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    decreases
  205. According to Poiseuille's law as fluid viscoisty increases, flow rate:

    increases
    decreases
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    decreases
  206. According to Poiseuille's law, which of the following has the greates effect on flow through a tube?

    pressure gradient
    tube diameter
    tube length
    fluid vescosity
    tube diameter
  207. Disturbed flow occurs usually as an:

    inlet
    bifurcation
    outlet
    annulus
    bifurcation
  208. ___________ flow is present when fluid particles move in mutiple directions and different velocities.

    inlet 
    laminar
    disturbed
    turbulent
    turbulent
  209. The clinical use of the simplified Bernoulli equation usually ignores all of the following except:

    V1
    V2
    flow acceleration
    viscous friction
    V2
  210. The simplified Bernoulli equation of 4* (v2)2 may not be accurated in all of the following situations EXCEPT:

    V1 velocity greater than 1.0m/s
    tunnel stenosis
    discrete stenosis
    stenosis in series
    discrere stenosis
  211. All of the following are possible causes for congestive heart failure EXCEPT:

    myocardial dysfunction
    pressure overload
    volume overload
    pleural effusion
    pleural effusion
  212. A
  213. l of the following are possible etiologies for congestive heart failure EXCEPT:

    myocardial ischemia
    amyloidosis
    aortic aneurysm
    valvular aortic stenosis
    aortic aneurysm
  214. Semilumar valve stenosis is a ventricular

    pressure overload
    volume overload
    varies
    cannnot be predicted
    presseure overload
  215. Which effect does semilunar valve stenosis initially have on the ventricle?

    dilatation
    hypertrophy
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    hypertrophy
  216. Atrioventricular valves stenosis is initially an:

    atrial volume overload
    atrial pressure overload
    ventricular volume overload
    ventricular pressure overload
    atrial pressure overload
  217. Which effect does atrioventricular valve stenosis initioally have on the atria?

    dilatation
    hypertrophy
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    dilatation
  218. Significant chronic semilunar valve regurgitation is initially a ventricular"

    volume overload
    pressure overload
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    volume overload
  219. Significant severe acute semilunar valve regurgitation initially causes an increase in:

    ventricular diastolic pressure
    hypertrophy
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    ventricular diastolic pressure
  220. Significant chronic atrioventricular valve regurgitation initially is a:

    volume overload
    pressure overload
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    volume overload
  221. Acute mitral valve regurgitation initially results in:

    atrial/ventircular dilatation
    atrial/ventricular hypertrophy
    pulmonary edema
    cannot be predicted
    pulmonary edema
  222. An ASD initially results in a volume overload of all the following EXCEPT:

    right atrium
    left atrium
    right ventricle
    pulmonary veins
    left atrium
  223. A VSD initially resutls in a volume overload of all of the following EXCEPT:

    right ventricle
    left atrium
    left ventricle
    main pulmonary artery
    right ventricle
  224. A PDA initially resutls in a volume overload of all of the following EXCEPT:

    right ventricle
    left atrium
    left ventricle
    pulmonary veins
    right ventricle
  225. Intrinsic pulmonary diesease resutls initially in a :

    right atrial volume overload
    left atrial volume overload
    right ventricular pressure overload
    left ventricular volume overload
    right ventricular pressure overload
  226. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is initially a left ventricular:

    volume overload
    pressure overload
    volume/pressure overload
    cannot be predicted
    pressure overload
  227. Dilated cardiomyopathy initially results in an:

    atrial/ventricular volume overload
    atiral/ventrcular pressure overload
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    atrial/ventricular volume overload
  228. A restrictive cardiomyopathy initially results in an increse in atrial and ventricular:

    systolic pressure
    diastolic pressure
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    diastolic pressure
  229. An interatrial septal aneurysm usually afffects which portion of the interatrial septum?

    sinus venosus
    foramen ovale
    ostium primum
    coronary sinus
    foramen ovale
  230. The groove between the right atrium and right ventricle is called the:

    coronary sinus
    coronary sulcus
    crista terminalis
    supraventricular crest
    coronary sulcus
  231. The left atrium and left ventricle are anteriorly and posteriorly separated by the:

    pulmonary veins
    coronary artery
    atrioventricular groove
    posterior descending artery
    atrioventricular groove
  232. The chordae tendineae may be catergorized by all of the following terms EXCEPT:

    primary
    secondary
    tertiary
    quarterly
    quarterly
  233. The position of the heart in a tall, thin patient may be more:

    horizontal
    vertical
    lateral
    cephalad
    vertical
  234. The long axis of the heart is parallel to a line drawn from the:

    right shoulder to left hip
    left shoulder to right hip
    sternum to xyphoid process
    right shoulder to left shoulder
    right shoulder to left hip
  235. The descending thoracic aorta begins just beyond the:

    coronary arteries
    innonimate artery
    left common carotid artery
    left subclavian artery
    left subclavian artery
  236. In relation to the spine, the aorta normally lies:

    to the right
    to the left
    cephalad
    inferior
    to the left
  237. The weakest area of the aorta is considered to be the aortic:

    annulus
    arch
    isthmus
    transverse
    isthmus
  238. The left anterior descending coronary artery follows the:

    coronary sulcus
    interventricular groove
    atrioventricular groove
    coronary sinus
    interventricular groove
  239. The left circumflex coronary artery follows the:

    coronary sulcus
    interventricular groove
    artioventricular groove
    coronary sinus
    atrioventricular groove
  240. The veins that join to form the superior vena cave are the:

    innominate
    corotid
    internal 
    external
    innominate
  241. As compared to intrathoracic pressure, intrapericardial pressure is:

    greater than
    equal to
    less than
    cannot be predicted
    equal to
  242. All of the following are considered conotruncal abnormalities EXCEPT:

    truncus arteriosus
    ventricular septal defect
    tetralogy of Fallot
    D-Transposition of the great arteries
    ventricular septal defect
  243. Depolarization of the ventricles occurs with the onset of the:

    QRS complex
    P wave
    T wave
    S wave
    QRS complex
  244. As compared to the beginning of left ventricular contraction, right ventricular contraction begins:

    before
    at the same time
    after
    varies
    after
  245. The period of time where the cardiac cell will not respond to another stimulus no matter how strong is called:

    absolute refractory period
    relative refractory period
    rapid repolarization
    partial repolorization
    abolute refractory period
  246. Whichof the following state that the greater the stretch of the cardiac muscle cell, the greater the force of contraction:

    Bernoulli
    Doppler
    Gorlin
    Starling
    Starling
  247. The length to which a cardiac myofibril is stretched prior to the next contraction is called:

    afterload
    preload
    diastasis
    systole
    preload
  248. Within limits, what effect will an increase in preload have on contraction:

    increase 
    decrease
    varied
    cannot be predicted
    increase
  249. All of the following will increase preload EXCEPT:

    atrioventricular valve regurgitation
    atrioventricular valve stenosis
    semilunar valve regurgitation
    septal defect
    atrioventricular valve stenosis
  250. ____________ is the resistance the ventricles faces as it ejects blood.

    afterload
    preload
    diastole
    systole
    afterload
  251. Normally an increase in afterload will have what effect on the rate of ventricular fiber shortening?

    increase
    decrease
    no change
    cannot be predicted
    decrease
  252. All of the following patholoiges will increase afterload EXCEPT:

    semilunar valve stenosis
    semilunar valve regurgitation
    supravalvular stenosis
    systemic/pulmonary hypertension
    semilunar valve regurgitation
  253. According to the interval-strength relationship, sinus bracycardia may have which effect on venticular contractions?

    increase
    decrease 
    no change
    cannot be predicted
    increase
  254. What effect will the compensatory pause following a premature ventricular contractions have on an aortic stenosis peak velocity?

    increase
    decrease
    no effect
    cannot be predicted
    increase
  255. The atrioventricular valves close when:

    atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure
    ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure
    arterial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure
    ventricular pressure exceeds arterial pressure
    ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure
  256. The atrioventricular valves open when:

    atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure
    arterial pressure exeeds ventricular pressure
    ventricular pressure exceeds arterial pressure
    ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure
    atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure
  257. Semilunar valves closure occurs when

    arterial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure
    ventricular pressure exceeds arterial pressure
    atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure
    ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure
    atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure
  258. Semilunar valves opening occurs when:

    arterial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure
    ventricular pressure exceeds arterial pressure
    atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure
    ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure
    ventricular pressure exceeds  arterial pressure
  259. The pre-ejection period refers to:

    ventricular diastole
    diastasis
    isovolumic contraction
    active relaxation
    isovolumic contraction
  260. What effect will valvular aortic stenosis have an ventricular ejection time?

    increase
    decrease
    no change
    cannot be predicted
    increase
  261. Stenotic valve gradients may increase due to an increase in:

    flow volume
    valve area
    respiration
    trubulence
    flow volume
  262. Chest pain is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

    coronary artery disease
    pericarditis
    musculoskeletal
    ascities
    ascities
  263. Peripheral edmea may be associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

    right heart failure
    mitral valve prolapse
    peripheral venous insufficiency
    liver failure
    mitral valve prolapse
  264. The pericardial friciton rub may indicate:

    cardiac tumor
    hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
    rheumatic fever
    pericarditis
    pericarditis
  265. The auscultatory finding for constrictive pericarditis is:

    loud S1
    opening snap
    pericardial knock
    S4
    pericardial knoce
  266. A cardiac cell is able to transfer an electrical impulse to a neighboring cardiac cell. This is called:

    excitability
    contractlity
    automaticity
    conductivity
    conductivity
  267. All of the following maneuvers increase cardiac output except:

    passive leg raising
    supine to standing
    squatting
    standing to walking
    passive leg raising
  268. All of the following will cause a systolic murmur EXCEPT:

    atrioventricular valve regurgitation
    atriventricualr valve stenosis
    semilunar valve stenosis
    hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
    atrioventricular valve stenosis
  269. All of the following will casue a diastolic mumur EXCEPT:

    aortic regurgitation
    mitral stenosis
    aortic stenosis
    pulmonary regurgitation
    aortic stenosis
  270. Ventricular systolic contraction begins at the:

    cardiac base
    cardiac apex
    lateral walls of the ventricles
    medial wall of the ventricles
    cardiac apex
  271. Ventricular depolarization marks the beginning of ventricular:

    diastole
    diastasis
    systole
    relaxation
    diastasis
  272. Ventricular repolarization marks the beginning of vetricular:

    diastole
    systole
    diastasis
    contraction
    diastole
  273. According to the action potential curve for cardiac cell, actual cardiac contractions occurs during the EKG:

    P wave
    onset of the QRS complex
    ST segment
    PR interval
    ST segment
  274. For valvular aortic stenosis which of the following is a true statement?

    increase in LV systolic pressure, increase in aortic systolic pressure
    decrease in LV systolic pressure, decrease in systolic aortic pressure
    increase in LV systolic pressure, decrease in aortic systolic pressure
    decrease in LV systolic pressure, increase in aortic systolic pressure
    increase in LV systolic pressure, decrease in aortic systolic pressure
  275. Which of the following is true statment concerning mitral valve stenosis?

    increase in LA pressure, decrease in LV diastolic pressure
    increase in LA pressure, increase in LV diastolic pressure
    decrease in LA pressure, increase in LV diastolic pressure
    decrease in LA paressure, decrease in LV diastolic pressure
    increase in LA pressure, decrease in LV diastolic pressure
  276. Which of the following pressures will most likely be increased in a patient with significant chronic aortic regurgitation?

    left atrial
    left ventricular end diastolic
    aortic diastolic
    pulmonary artery wedge
    left ventricular end diastolic
  277. The PR interval is deternimed to be 223m/s. The diagnosis is:

    1st degree AV Block
    Mobitz I
    Wenckebach
    comlete heart block
    1st degree AV block
  278. While performining an echo the sonographer notes a structure in the right atrium.  All of the following are possible explanations EXCEPT:

    thebesian valve
    eustachian valve
    trabeculae carneae
    Chiari network
    trabeculae carneae
  279. While observing a TEE the sonographer notes a structure in the left artial appendage. The most likely anatomic explanation is that it is:

    trabeculae carneae
    pectinate muscle
    chordal web
    eustachian valve
    pectinate muscle
  280. During a venus saline contrast injection the patient performs a valsalva maneuver and contrast crosses into the LA. The most likely explanation is:

    perimembramous VSD
    left ventricle to right atrial communication
    patent foramen ovale
    partioal anomalous pulmonary venous return
    patent foramen ovale
  281. While performing an echo the sonographer notesa structure near the apex of the right ventricle. The most likely explanation:

    chordal web
    moderator band
    pectinate muscle
    Chiari network
    moderator band
  282. During a pediatric echo the sonographer is questioned on how to identify a right ventricle. All of the following are anatomical features of the right ventricle EXCEPT:

    moderator band
    three papillary muscle group
    smooth ventricular walls
    three leaflet atrioventricular valve
    smooth ventricular walls
  283. An echo request reads "Rule out infundibular stenosis". The sonographer should carefully evaluate the:

    left ventricular outflow tract
    right ventricular outflow tract
    left atrial appendage
    cardiax apex
    right ventricular outflow tract
  284. An echo request reads "Rule out supracristal ventricular septal defect". The sonographer should carefully evaluate the:

    left ventricular outflow tract
    right ventricle outlflow tract
    left atrial appendage
    cardiac apex
    right ventricle outflow tract
  285. An echo request reads "Rule out left ventricular infow tract obstruction." The sonographer should carefull evaluate all of the following EXCEPT:

    valve annulus
    valve leaflets
    choardae tendineae
    trabeculae carneae
    trabeculae carneae
  286. During an echo examination of a patient with long-standing severe pulmonary hypertension the sonographer notes that the right ventricle forms the cardiac apex. This finding in anatomically:

    normal
    abnormal
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    abnorma
  287. An echo request reads "Rule out perimembranous ventricle septal defect". The sonographer should carefully evaluate the:

    left ventricular outflow tract
    right ventricular outflow tract
    left atrial appendage
    cardiac apex
    left ventricular outflow tract
  288. During an echo examincation a patient with long standing sever pulmonary hypertension the sonographer notes the IVS is concave to the right ventricle. This finding is anatomically:

    normal
    abnormal
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    abnormal
  289. During an echo the sonographer is questioned on which tricuspid valve leaflet is the larger. The correct answer in the:

    anterior
    posterior
    medial
    septal
    anterior
  290. During an echo examination the sonographer is quesitoned on which tricuspid valve leaflet is inserte closer to the cardiac apex. The correct response is:

    anterior
    posterior
    septal
    medial
    septal
  291. During a color flow Doppler examination the sonographer notes a moderate size mosaic backflow of blood into the RA during ventricular systole. This finding is called atrioventricular valve:

    stenosis
    regurgitation
    obstruction
    dissection
    regurgitation
  292. In teh PSAX view of the mitral valve the sonographer may be able to evaluate all of the following EXCEPT:

    anterior leaflet
    medial commissure
    lateral commissure
    septal leaflet
    septal leaflet
  293. During a TEE examination the sonographer notes prominent echoes at the edges of each aortic valve cusp. A possible anotomic explanantion would be:

    vestigial of Arantii
    nodules of Arantii
    nodules of Atlantii
    ectopic chordae
    nodules of Arantii
  294. In the standard PLAX the sonographer may be able to evaluate  all of the following sections of the aorta EXCEPT the:

    aortic annulus
    transverse aorta
    sinotubular junction
    descending thorocic aorta
    transverse aorta
  295. In the suprasternal long axis view the sonographer may be able to evaluate all of the following arteries EXCEPT the:

    innominate
    left common carotid
    left subclavian
    superior mesenteric
    superior mesenteric
  296. An echo request reads "Rule out type III aortic dissection: question intimal tear at the aortic isthmus." The best 2D view the sonographer may use to evaluate the aortic isthmus is the:

    parasternal long axis
    parasternal short axis @ the aortic level
    apical four chamber
    suprasternal long axis
    suprasternal long axis
  297. An echo examination is ordered for a patient with known left anterior descending coronary artery diasease. The sonographer should expect to see wall motion abnormalities in all of the following left ventricular wall segments EXCEPT:

    anterior septum
    anterior
    anterolateral
    cardiac apex
    anterolateral
  298. An echo examination is ordered for a patient with known left circumflex coronary artery disease. The sonographer should expect to see wall motion abnormalities in all of the following left ventricular wall segments EXCEPT:

    anterior septum
    anterolateral
    inferolateral
    lateral
    anterior septum
  299. During an echo examination the sonographer notes a segmental wall motion abnormalities in the inferior IVS. The coronary artery most likely causing this abnormality is the:

    left main
    left anterior descending
    left circumflex
    posterior descending
    posterior descending
  300. During an echo examination the sonographer notes a wall motion abnormality of the lateral wall of the right ventricle. The coronary artery most likely diseased is the:

    left main
    oblique margin
    diagonal
    acute margin
    acute margin
  301. In the PLAX the sonographer notes an echo free space at the roof of the left atrium. The most likely anatomic explanation is that is the:

    aortic sinotubular junction
    atrial appendage
    oblique sinus
    left pulmonary artery
    left pulmonary artery
  302. During a color flow Doppler examination the sonographer notes flow into the right atrium.  All of the following are possible explanations EXCEPT:

    superior vena cava flow
    inferior vena cava flow
    coronory sinus flow
    ductus venosus flow
    ductus venosus flow
  303. During a left heart contrast echo examination, flow is noted in the left ventricle during ventricular diastole. All of the following are possible explanations EXCEPT:

    mitral valve inflow
    aortic regurgiation
    thebesian venous flow
    atrial septal defect flow
    atrial septal defect flow
  304. During an echo examination the sonographer notes an anterior clear space located between the epicardium and myocardium. The most likely explanation is:

    pericardial effusion
    adipose tissue
    pleural effusion
    dilated coronary sinus
    adipose tissue
  305. During an echo exam the sonographer notes pericardial effusion behind the left atrium. This effusion is contained in the:

    transverse sinus
    oblique sinus
    coronary sinus
    sinus of valsalva
    oblique sinus
  306. During a TEE examination, the sonographer notes a clear space between the pulmonary artery and the aorta. This is most likely the:

    transverse sinus
    oblique sinus
    coronary sinus
    carotid sinus
    transverse sinus
  307. While evaluating left ventricular systolic function in the apical four chamber veiw, the sonographer should expect the base of the heart to move:

    posteriorly
    laterally
    downward
    caudad
    downward
  308. In the PSAX view of the cardiac apex, the sonographer should normall expect to visualize the heart to twist:

    clockwise
    counter clockwise
    posteriorly
    laterally
    counter clockwise
  309. During an echo evaluation of the patient with severe, acute aortic regurgitation the sonographer notes premature closure of the mitral valve. The most likely explanantion is that there is an increase in:

    left atrial pressure
    left ventricular end diastolic pressure
    aortic pressure
    heart rate
    left ventricular end diastolic pressure
  310. During an echo examination of a patient with constrictive pericarditis the sonographer notes premature opening of the pulmonic valve. The most likely explanation is that there is an increase in:

    right atrial pressure
    right ventricular end-diastolic pressure
    pulmonary artery pressure
    heart rate
    right ventricular end-diastolic pressure
  311. During an echo examination of a patient with a history of systemic hypertension the sonographer measures and notes an abnormal increase in the time interval between aortic valve closure and mitral valve opening. This represents an abnormality during:

    early ventricular systole
    early ventricular diastole
    diastasis
    pre-ejection period
    early ventricular diastole
  312. During an echo examination of a patient with dilated cardiomypothy the songrapher notes an abnormal increase in the time period between mirtal valve closure and aortic valve opening. This represent an abnormality during:

    early ventricular distole
    late ventricular systole
    diastasis
    pre-ejection period
    pre-ejection period
  313. The sonographer measures a left ventricualr end diastolic volume of 120cc and an left ventricular end systolic volume of 90cc. The heart rate is 80 beat per minute. The body surface area is 2.0 m2. The stroke volume in this case is.

    increased
    normal
    abnormal
    cannot be predicted


    abnormal
  314. The sonographer measure a left ventricular end diastolic volume of 100cc and a left ventricular systolic volume of 30cc. The heart rate is 50 beats per minute. The body surface area is 2.0m2. The cardiac output is:

    30cc
    130cc
    3500cc
    6500cc
    3500cc
  315. The sonographer measures a left ventricular end diastolic volume of 120cc and a left ventricular end systolic volume of 60cc. The heart rate is 70 BPM. The body surface area is 2.0m2. The cardiac index is:

    30cc
    1.1 lpm/m2
    2.1 lpm/m2
    4.2 lpm/m2
    2.1 lpm/m2
  316. The sonographer measures an end systolic volume of 40cc and an end diastolic volume of 80cc. The rate is 110 beats per minute.  The body surface area is1.8m2. The ejection fraction is:

    40cc
    120cc
    33%
    50%
    50%
  317. A 22 year old femail persents with a diagnosis of univentricular heart. The echo demonstrates a smooth walled ventricle. The ventricle is most likely a morphologic:

    right ventricle
    left ventricle
    combination right and left ventricle
    cannot be predicted
    left ventricle
  318. By evaluating the inferior vena cava the sonographer predicts the right atrial pressure to be 10 mmHG. In the absence of right ventricular inflow tract obstruction, which other cardiac pressure is equal to 10 mmHG?

    right ventricle diastolic
    right ventricular systolic
    pulmonary artery systolic
    pulmonary artery diastolic
    right ventricular diastolic
  319. Utilizing the tricupsid regurgitation method the sonographer predicts the right ventricular systolic pressue to be 65 mmHG. In the absence of right ventricular outflow tract obstruction which other cardiac pressure would be 65 mmHG?

    pulmonary artery diastolic
    pulmonary artery systolic
    pulmonary artery mean
    left atrial mean
    pulmonary artery systolic
  320. Utilizing the pulmonary regurgitation method the sonographer predicts the pulmonaly end diastolic pressure to be 19 mmHG. What other cardiac pressures would be equal to 19 mmHG?

    pulmonary artery systolic and mean
    right atrial and right ventricular end diastolic
    left atrial and left ventricular diastolic
    aortic systolic and diastolic
    left atrial and left ventricular end distolic
  321. The sonographer determines a patient's blood pressure to be 133/76 mmHg. In the absence of left ventricular outflow tract obstruction, which other cardiac chamber would have a systolic pressure of 133 mmHg.

    pulmonary systolic
    left ventricle
    left atrial
    mean aortic
    left ventricle
  322. While reviewing a patient's cardiac cath report before performing an echo examination the sonographer notes the right atrial V wave was measured to be 18 mmHg. The expected cardiac Doppler finding would be significant:

    aortic regurgitation
    mitral regurgitation
    tricuspid regurgitation
    pulmonic regurgitation
    tricuspid regurgitation

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