Cardiac Evaluation Methods

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Vaishali71
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166329
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Cardiac Evaluation Methods
Updated:
2012-08-19 13:48:50
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  1. S1 is caused by:

    mitral and tricuspid valve opening
    mitral and tricuspid valve closing
    aortic and pulmonic valve opening
    aortic and pulmonic valve closing
    mital and tricuspid valve closing
  2. S2 is caused by:

    mitral and tricuspid valve opening
    mitral and tricuspid valve closing
    aortic and pulmonic valve opening
    aortic and pulmonic valve closing
    aortic and pulmonic valve closing
  3. For cardiac auscultation, the mitral area is considered to be the:

    lower left sternal border
    cardiac apex
    right upper sternal border
    left upper sternal border
    cardiac apex
  4. For cardiac auscultation, the tricuspid area is considered to be the:

    lower left sternal border
    cardiac apex
    right upper sternal border
    left upper sternal border
    lower left sternal border
  5. For cardiac auscultation, the aortic area is considered to be the:

    lower left sternal border
    cardiac apex
    right upper sternal border
    left upper sternal border
    right upper sternal border
  6. For cardiac auscultation, the pulmonic area is considered to be the:

    lower left sternal border
    cardiac apex
    right upper sternal border
    left upper sternal border
    left upper sternal border
  7. With inspiration, the interval between the two components of S2, aortic and pulmonic valve closure is:

    increased
    decreased
    unchange
    cannot be predicted
    increased
  8. The S3 occurs in:

    ventricular systole
    early ventricular diastole
    late ventricular diastole
    atrial systole
    early ventricular diastole
  9. Another term used ot describe the S3 is:

    presystolic gallop
    atrial gallop
    protodiastolic gallop
    summation gallop
    atrial gallop
  10. All of the following pathologies are assoicated with an S3 EXCEPT:

    aortic regurgitation
    mitral stenosis
    atrial septal defect
    anemia
    mitral stenosis
  11. The S4 occurs in response to:

    early ventricular diastole
    atrial systole
    ventricular diastasis
    ventricular systole
    atrial systole
  12. The S4 indicates:

    increased early diastolic filling
    increased ventricular contraction
    decreased ventricular compliance
    decreased atrial contraction
    decreased ventricular compliance
  13. A loud S1 may indicate the presence of:

    aortic regurgitation
    mitral stenosis
    decreased ventricular compliance
    increased early diastolic filling
    mitral stenosis
  14. An opening snap is associate with:

    atrioventricular valve stenosis
    pulmonary regurgitation
    decreased ventricular compliance
    increased early diastolic filling
    atrioventricular valve stenosis
  15. An ejection sound or click is associated with:

    mitral stenosis
    pulmonary regurgitation
    semilunar valve stenosis
    decreased ventricular compliance
    semilunar valve stenosis
  16. The midsystolic click may indicate the presense of mitral valve:

    stenosis
    prolapse
    flail
    endocarditis
    prolapse
  17. Fixed split S2 is associated with:

    atrial septal defect
    ventricular septal defect
    patent ductus arteriosus
    bicuspid aortic valve
    atrial septal defect
  18. Which of the following heard sounds is associated with pericarditis?

    loud S1
    soft S2
    pericardial friction rub
    pericardial knock
    pericardial friction rub
  19. Which of the following heart sounds is associated with constrictive pericarditis?

    ejection sound
    midsystolic click
    pericardial friction rub
    pericardial knock
    pericardial knock
  20. Which of the following is incorrect when decribing the auscultation areas for the cardiac valves?

    aortic: right upper sternal border
    pulmonic: left upper sternal border
    mitral: lower left sternal border
    tricuspid: xyphoic area
    mitral: lower left sternal border
  21. A grade I murmur is a murmur that is:

    loud
    moderately loud
    faintly heard
    barely heard
    barely heard
  22. A grade II murmur is a murmur that is:

    loud
    moderately loud
    faintly heard
    barely heard
    faintly heard
  23. A grade III murmur is a murmur that is:

    loud
    moderately loud
    faintly heard
    barely heard
    moderately loud
  24. A grade IV murmur is a murmur that is:

    loud
    moderately loud
    faintly heard
    barely heard
    loud
  25. A grade V murmur is a murmur that is:

    moderately loud
    loud
    very loud
    loud with a thrill
    very loud
  26. A grade VI murmur is a murmur that is:

    moderately loud
    loud
    very loud
    loud with a thrill
    loud with a thrill
  27. ____________ murmur is one that begins softly and becomes louder.

    crescendo
    decresendo
    crescendo-decrescendo
    decrescendo-crescendo
    cresendo
  28. ____________ murmur is one that begins loud and becomes softer.

    crescendo
    decresendo
    crescendo-decrescendo
    decrescendo-crescendo
    decresendo
  29. ____________ murmur is one that begins softly, becomes louder and then decreases in loudness.

    crescendo
    decresendo
    crescendo-decrescendo
    decrescendo-crescendo
    crescendo-decrescendo
  30. ____________ murmur that begins loud, becomes softer and  the increases in loudness.

    crescendo
    decresendo
    crescendo-decrescendo
    decrescendo-crescendo
    decrescendo-crescendo
  31. A low pitched murmur is best heard with the stethescope's:

    bell
    diaphragm
    both bell and diaphragm
    varies
    bell
  32. A medium pitched murmur is best heard with the stethescope's:

    bell
    diaphragm
    both bell and diaphragm
    varies
    both bell and diaphragm
  33. A high pitched murmur is best heard with the stethescope's:

    bell
    diaphragm
    both bell and diaphragm
    varies
    diaphragm
  34. Which of the following murmurs begin with the first heart sound and end in midsystole?

    early systolic
    systolic ejection
    holosystolic
    late systolic
    early systolic
  35. Which of the following murmurs begin after the semilunar valves open?

    early systolic
    systolic ejection
    holosystolic
    late systolic
    systolic ejection
  36. Which of the following murmurs start well after ejection?

    early systolic
    systolic ejection
    holosystolic
    late systolic
    late systolic
  37. Which of the following murmurs is present when there is flow between two chambers that have widely different pressures throughout systole?

    early systolic
    systolic ejection
    pansystolic
    late systolic
    pansystolic
  38. All of the following are possible causes of early systolic murmurs except:

    valvular arotic stenosis
    small ventricular septal defect
    large ventricular septal defect with pulmonary hypertension
    severe acute mitral /tricuspid regurgitation
    valvular arotic stenosis
  39. All of the following are associated with a systolic ejection murmur EXCEPT:

    valvular aortic/pulmonic stenosis
    aortic/pulmonic dilatation
    anemia
    ventricular septal defect
    ventricular septal defect
  40. All of the following are considered to be associated with a pansystolic murmur EXCEPT:

    mitral/tricuspid regurgitation
    ventricular septal defect
    aortopulmonary shuts
    mitral valve prolapse
    mitral valve prolapse
  41. All of the following are associated with a late systolic murmur except:

    papillary muscle dysfunction
    myocardial ischemia/infraction
    valvular pulmonic stenosis
    mitral valve prolapse
    valvular pulmonic stenosis
  42. Which of the following murmurs begins immediately after the second heart sound?

    early diastolic
    mid-diastolic
    late diastolic
    continuous
    early diastolic
  43. Which of the following is mostl likely to cause an early diastolic murmur?

    aortic valve regurgitation
    mitral valve prolapse
    patent ductus arteriosus
    ventricular septal defect
    arotic valve regurgitation
  44. Which of the following murmurs is caused by foward flow across an atrioventriclar valve?

    early diastolic
    mid-diastolic
    continous
    early systolic
    mid-diastolic
  45. All of the following are assoicated with a mid-diastolic or late diastolic murmur EXCEPT:

    mitral/tricuspid stenosis
    left atrial myxoma
    mitral/tricuspid regurgitation
    aortic regurgitation
    aortic regurgitation
  46. Which of the following murmurs may result from blood flow constantly moving from a high pressure to a low pressure area?

    early diastolic
    mid-diastolic
    late diastolic
    continous
    continous
  47. All of the following are associated with a continuous murmur EXCEPT:

    patent ductus arteriosus
    systemic arteriovenous fistula
    severe mitral regurgitation
    coronary artery from the pulmonary artery
    severe mitral regurgitation
  48. Which effect will the strain phase of the Valsalva maneuver have on the venous return?

    increase
    decrease
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    decrease
  49. All of the following murmurs will decrease in intensity during the strain phase of the Valsalva of maneuver EXCEPT:

    valvular aortic stenosis
    mitral stenosis
    hypertrophic obsturctive cardiomyopathy
    tricuspid regurgitation
    hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
  50. What effect will the isometric handgrip have on mitral regurgitation?

    increase
    decrease
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    increase
  51. What effect will the isometric handgrip have on valvualr arotic stenosis?

    increase
    decrease
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    decrease
  52. What effect will the inhalation of amly nitrite have on a ventricular septal defect murmur?

    increase
    decrease
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    decrease
  53. What effect will the inhalation of amyl nitrite have on left heart regurgitation murmurs?

    increase
    decrease
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    decrease
  54. What effect will the inhalation of amyl nitrite have on the murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy?

    increase
    decrease
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    increase
  55. What effect will the inhalation of amyl nitrite have on mitral valve prolapse?

    increase
    decrease
    varies
    cannot be predicted
    increase
  56. Which of the following is used to eveluate the cardiovascular response to excercise?

    exercise stress test
    EKG
    Echo
    auscultation
    exercise stress test
  57. All of the following are indications for an exercise stress test EXCEPT:

    chest pain
    arryhthmias
    valvular aortic stenosis
    assessment of cardiovascular fitness
    valvular aortic stenosis
  58. Which of the following is the most reliable indicater of myocardial ischemia during a exercise stress test examination?

    ST segment depression
    hypotension
    decrease in R wave voltage
    arryhthmias
    ST segment depression
  59. Which of the following is a postitive inotrope and postive chronotrope?

    dipyridamole
    Persantine
    adenosine
    dobutamine
    dobutamine
  60. All ofo the following may induce myocardial ischemia via dilatation of the coronary arteries EXCEPT:

    dipyridamole
    Persantine
    adenosine
    dobutamine
    dobutamine
  61. Which of the following examinations is an invasive procedure used to vizualize cardiac chambers and the coronary arterial system?

    echocardiography
    electrocardiography
    electroencephalogram
    cardiac catheterization
    cardiac catheterization
  62. All of the following may be assessed during a cardiac catheterization EXCEPT:

    intracardiac pressures
    oxygen saturation
    ventricular function
    pericardial thickness
    pericardial thickness
  63. All ofo the following may be catheterized during a right heart catheterization EXCEPT:

    vena cava
    pulmonary veins
    right atrium
    pulmonary artery
    pulmonary veins
  64. All of the following pressures may be measured during a right heart catheterization EXCEPT:

    right atrium
    right ventricle
    main pulmonary artery
    mean aortic
    mean aortic
  65. During a right heart catheterization, oxygen saturations may be obtained in each of the following except:

    vena cava
    pulmonary veins
    right atrium
    right ventricle
    pulmonary veins
  66. The most commom method of determining cardiac output during a right heart cardiac catheterization procedure is the:

    Fick
    thermodilution
    indicator dye
    angiography
    thermodilution
  67. The cardiac catheterization procedure that allows calculation of pressures on either side of the arotic valve is the:

    right heart catheterization
    left heart catheterization
    pulmonary artery wedge
    coronary arteriogram
    left heart catheterization
  68. All of the following pressures may be measured during a left heart catheterization EXCEPT:

    left ventricular systolic/diastolic
    arotic systolic/diastolic
    arotic mean
    pulmonary artery wedge
    pulmonary artery wedge
  69. The left heart cardiac procedure that allows the evaluation of aortic regurgitation is:

    ventriculogram
    arteriogram
    aortogram
    venogram
    aortogram
  70. The left heart cardiac cath procedure that allows for the evaluation of mitral regurgitation is:

    ventriculogram
    arteriogram
    aortogram
    venogram
    ventriculogram
  71. The cardiac cath procedure that allows for the evaluation of the coronary arterial system is:

    ventriculogram
    arteriogram
    aortogram
    venogram
    arteriogram
  72. Which of the following cardiac cath procedure is used to determine the percent stenosis of a coronary artery?

    ventriculogram
    arteriogram
    aortogram
    venogram
    arteriogram
  73. Which of the following coronary arteries provides blood flow to the anterior interventricular septum and anterior wall of the left ventricle?

    left main
    left anterior descending
    left circumflex
    posterior descending
    left circumflex
  74. Which of the following coronary arteries provides blood flow to  the right ventricle?

    left main
    anterior descending
    circumflex
    right coronary
    right coronary
  75. Which of the following coronary arteries provides blood flow to the inferior walls of the ventricles and the inferior IVS in a right dominant systems?

    left main
    anterior descending 
    circumflex
    posterior descending
    posterior descending
  76. In a left dominant coronary artery system, which of the following coronary arteries provides the posterior descending coronary artery?

    left main
    left anterior descending
    left circumflex
    right coronary artery
    left circumflex
  77. The most common invasive method of determining cardiac output is:

    Fick
    thermodilution
    indicator dilution
    angiography
    thermodilution
  78. Which invasive method to determine cardiac output measures the concentration of dye that has been injected into the heart and measured at a distal arterial site?

    Fick
    thermodilution
    indicator dilution
    angiography
    indicator dilution
  79. Which of the following invasive methods used to determine cardiac output is considered to be the most accurate?

    Fick
    thermodilution
    indicator dilution
    angiography
    Fick
  80. Which of the following invasive techiniques determine cardiac output by injectiong dye into the left ventricle and measuring ventricular volumes?

    Fick
    thermodilution
    indicator dilution
    angiography
    angiography
  81. Which of the following procedures during a cardiac cath allows for the detection of an intracardiac shunt?

    aortography
    arteriography
    oximetry
    pressure waveforms
    oximetery
  82. The following oxygen saturation have been recorded: SVC 72%, IVC 78%, RA 87%, RV 87% and main PA 87%. What is the diagnosis?

    normal
    atrial septal defect
    ventricular septal defect
    patent ductus arteriosus
    atrial septal defect
  83. The following oxygen saturation have been recorded: SVC 72%, IVC 78%, RA 75%, RV 85% and main PA 85%. What is the diagnosis?

    normal
    atrial septal defect
    ventricular defect
    patent ductus arteriosus
    ventricular defect
  84. The following oxygen saturation have been recorded: SVC 72%, IVC 78%, RA 75%, RV 75% and main PA 89%. What is the diagnosis?

    normal
    atrial septal defect
    ventricular septal defect
    patent ductus arteriosus
    patent ductus arteriosus
  85. The forward flow across a normal valve is determined to be 60 cc. The total stroke volume across a regurgitation valve is 120 cc. The regurgitatant volume is:

    0 cc
    60 cc
    120 cc
    180 cc
    60 cc
  86. The forward flow across a normal valve is determined to be 60 cc. The total stroke volume across a regurgitation valve is 120 cc. What is the regurgitation fraction?

    0%
    50%
    60%
    90%
    50%
  87. The cardiac cathetherization examination that injects a radioapaque dye into cardiac chambers/great vessels and is recorded on cine film is:

    angiography
    contrast study
    hemodynamic recording
    ejection fraction
    angiography
  88. Which of the following cardicac cath exmas allows for the evaluation of ventricular function parameters (i.e..ejection fraction, stroke volume, cardiac output, cardiac index), regional wall motion abnormalities and atrioventricualar regurgitation?

    arteriography
    angiography
    radiography
    Doppler
    angiography
  89. Which of the following cardiac catheterization exams allows for the evaluation of aortic regurgitation?

    angiography
    arteriography
    aortography
    ventriculogram
    aortography
  90. Which of the following cardiac cath exams allows for the evaluation of pulmonary artery stenosis and pulmonary thrombosis?

    cardiac Doppler
    aortography
    ventriculography
    angiography
    angiography
  91. The difference in pressures between two cardiac chambers is called a pressure:

    velocity
    gradient
    area
    increase
    gradient
  92. The cardiac cath laboratory may express a pressure gradient all of the following ways EXCEPT:

    peak to peak
    peak to mean
    peak instantaneous
    mean
    peak to mean
  93. The pressure gradient measurement that expresses the difference between the peak systolic pressure of a ventricle and great artery is all:

    peak to peak
    mean
    peak
    peak instantaneous
    peak to peak
  94. The pressure gradient that expresses the average pressure gradient between two chambers is the:

    peak to peak
    peak
    peak instantaneous
    mean
    mean
  95. The pressure gradient that express the maximum gradient between two chambers is:

    mean
    peak to mean
    peak to peak
    peak instantaneous
    peak instantaneous
  96. Which of the following cardiac Doppler measurements would correlate best with the cardiac cath gradient measurement?

    peak velocity
    peak instantaneous
    mean
    peak to peak
    mean
  97. A patient with valvular aortic stenosis has a peak instantaneous gradient of 100 mmHG. The cardiac cath peak to peak gradient is 60 mmHG. The reason for the difference in the gradient is:

    cardiac Doppler is unreliable
    cardiac cath is a tarnished gold standard
    Doppler peak instantaneous gradient will always be greater than the cath peak to peak
    the difference cannot be predicted
    Doppler peak instantaneous gradient will always be greater than the cath peak to peak
  98. Which of the fofllowing chest x-ray projections is useful in evaluating the heart?

    posterior-anterior
    lateral
    anterior oblique
    right lateral
    posterior-anterior
  99. Cardiomegaly on chest x-ray is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

    pericardial effusion
    ventricular hypertrophy/dilatation
    acute myocardial infarction
    dilated cardiomyopathy
    acute myocardial infarction
  100. All of the following are types of increased pulmonary vascularity as seen on chest x-ray EXCEPT:

    pulmonary artery hypertension
    shunt vascularity
    pulmonary venous hypertension
    pulmonary embolism
    pulmonary embolism
  101. The chest x-ray findings for coronary artery disease is/are:

    left atrial enlargement
    right ventricular enlargment
    figure 3 sign
    nonspecfic
    nonspecific
  102. A left ventricular bulge on chest x-ray may indicate the presence of a left ventricular:

    thrombus
    aneurysm
    infarction
    normal ventricle
    aneurysm
  103. All of the following chambers may appers enlarged on a chest x-ray of a patient with mitral valve stenosis EXCEPT:

    left atrium
    left ventricle
    right ventricle
    right atrium
    left ventricle
  104. Which of the following cardiac chambers would most likely appear enlarged on chest x-ray in a patient with mitral regurgitation?

    left atrium, right atrium
    left ventricle, right ventricle
    left atrium, left ventricle
    right atrium, right ventricle
    left atrium, left ventricle
  105. The most likely chest x-ray finding in a patinet with significant chronic aortic regurgitation is:

    left atrium
    left ventricle
    right atrium
    right ventricle
  106. The chest x-ray finding of left ventricular enlargement due to concentric left ventricular hypertrophy, blunting of the cardiac apex and post stenotic dilatation of the ascending aorta most likely indicates:

    mitral vavle stenosis
    significant, chronic mitral regurgitation
    valvular aortic stenosis
    significant, chronic aortic regurgitation
    valvular aortic stenosis
  107. All of the following are possible chest x-ray findings for atrial septal defect EXCEPT:

    right ventricular enlargement
    main pulmonary artery enlargement
    figure 3 sign
    increased pulmonary vascularity
    figure 3 sign
  108. All of the following are possible chest x-ray findings for patent ductus arteriosus EXCEPT:

    increased pulmonary vascularity
    left atrial enlargement
    left ventricular enlargement
    rib notching
    rib notching
  109. Right ventricular enlargement due to right ventricular hypertrophy and post stenotic dilatation of the main pulmonary artery on chect x-ray is most likely associated with:

    valvular aortic stenosis
    valvular pulmonic stenosis
    mitral valve stenosis
    mitral regurgitation
    valvular pulmonic stenosis
  110. All of the following chest x-ray findings are associated with coarctation of the aorta EXCEPT;

    left ventricular enlargement
    right ventricular enlargement
    figure 3 sign
    rib notching
    right ventricular enlargement
  111. Which of the following is associated with an increase of the cardiac silhouette as seen on chest x-ray?

    pleural effusion
    constrictivev pericarditis
    pericardial effusion
    aortic aneurysm
    pericardial effusion
  112. A
  113. All of the following may be diagnosed by chest x-ray EXCEPT:

    aortic dilatation/aortic dissection
    pleural effusion
    myocardial ischemia
    calcified pericardium
    myocardial ischemia
  114. Which of the following nuclear cardiology isotopes would be best to use to rule out a decrease in myocardial perfusion?

    Thallium-201
    technetium-99
    pyrophosphate
    Albunex
    Thallium-201
  115. Which of the following nuclear cardiology isotopes would be best to use to evaluate ejection fraction?

    Thallium-201
    technetium-99
    Cardiolyte
    Albunex
    technetium-99
  116. Which of the following nuclear cardiology isotopes would be best to use to image infarcted myocardium?

    Thallium-201
    technetium-99
    Cardiolyte
    pyrophosphate
    pyrophosphate
  117. Which of the following noninvasive examination is also called cold spot scanning?

    myocardial perfusion
    infarct avid imaging
    radionuclide angiography
    MUGA
    myocardial perfusion
  118. Which of the following nuclear studies is also referred to as hot spot scanning?

    myocardial perfusion
    infarct avid imaging
    radionuclide angiography
    MUGA
    infarct avid imaging

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