BIO 202 Exam 1 Study Guide

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BIO 202 Exam 1 Study Guide
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2012-09-09 00:32:32
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BIO 202 Endocrine System
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Endocrine System
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  1. What are the 2 things the concentration of a circulating hormone reflects?
    • Rate of release
    • Speed of inactivation and removal from the body
  2. What are the two kinds of local chemical messengers that are NOT considered part of the Endocrine System?
    • Autocrines
    • Paracrines
  3. What is the body's ssecond greatest controlling system which influences metabolic activities of cells by means of hormones?
    The Endocrine System
  4. Do hormones circulate all tissues?
    YES, but only activate target cells
  5. TRUE or FALSE
    The precise response of hormones depends on the type of the target cell.
    TRUE
  6. Some endocrine glands secrete thier hormones in direct response to changing blood levels of certain critical ions and nutients. What are these stimuli called?
    Humoral Stimuli
  7. What specific thing must target cells have that the hormone binds to?
    Receptors, certain hormones bind to those certain receptors. (Like a key lock)
  8. Prostaglandins released by smooth muscle cells that causesmooth muscle cells to contract is an example of which kind of chemical messenger of the endocrine system?
    Autocrines
  9. What are the 3 ways hormones are removed from the body?
    • Degrading enzymes
    • The kidneys
    • Liver enzyme systems
  10. Concentration of calcium ions in the blood is an example of which of the 3 major types of stimuli that trigger endocrine glands to manufacture and release thier hormones?
    Humoral stimuli
  11. What do hormones regulate?
    Metabolic function of other cells
  12. Hormone action on target cells alter plasma membrane permeability of membrane potential by doing what to the ion channels?
    Opening or closing ion channels
  13. The Endocrine Sys. influences metabolic activities of cells by means of _____?
    Hormones
  14. What are locally acting chemicals that affect cells other than those that secrete them?
    Paracrines
  15. What is known as the time required for a hormone's blood level to decrease by half?
    Half-life
  16. Hormone action on _____ stimulates synthesis of proteins or regulatory molecules.
    Target cells
  17. What binds to the receptors on target cells?
    The hormone
  18. Which 6 glands are included in the endocrine glands?
    Pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, pineal, and thymus
  19. Are target cell receptors intracellular or are they located in the plasma membrane?
    BOTH
  20. What are hormones classified as?
    Amino-acid based hormones OR steriods
  21. Somatostatin released by 1 population of pancreatic cells inhibits (affects) other insulin releasing pancreatic cells is an example of which kind of chemical messenger found in the endocrine sys.?
    Paracrines
  22. Which type of hormone interaction is it when one hormone cannot exert its effects without another hormone being present?
    Permissiveness
  23. Hormone action on target cells stimulate synthesis on what 2 things?
    • Proteins OR
    • Regulatory molecules
  24. What are the 4 main characteristics of hormones?
    • Regulate metabolic function of other cells.
    • Lag times range from seconds to hours.
    • Tend to have prolonged effects.
    • Classified as amino-acid based hormones or steroids.
  25. What are biologically active lipids with local hormone-like activity?
    Eicosanoids
  26. Where would you find ACTH receptors?
    Only on certain cells of the adrenal cortex.
  27. What product do the pancreas and gonads produce?
    • Hormones
    • Exocrine products
  28. Hormone action on target cells activate or deactive _____ systems.
    Enzyme
  29. What are the 3 main types of hormone interaction?
    • Permissiveness
    • Synergism
    • Antagonism
  30. Where would you find Thyroxin receptors?
    On nearly all cells of the body.
  31. Do the endocrine responses occur more slower or faster than those of the nervous system?
    Slower
  32. On what does hormone action induce secretory activity?
    Target cells
  33. Which type of hormone interaction is it when more than one hormone produces the same effects on a target cell?
    Synergism
  34. What are the 3 types of hormones?
    • Amino-acid based
    • Steriods
    • Eicosanoids
  35. What are the 3 factors that target cell activation depend on?
    • Blood levels of hormone.
    • Relative # of receptors on the target cell.
    • Affinity of those receptors for the hormone.
  36. Do the Endocrine Sys. responses tend to last shorter or longer than those of the nervouse system?
    Longer
  37. Hormone action on what activates or deactivates enzyme system?
    Target cells
  38. Which type of hormone interaction is it when one or more hormones opposes the action of another hormone?
    Antagonism
  39. Which type of hormones are amines, thyroxine, peptide, and protein hormones part of?
    Amino-acid based hormones
  40. Hormones influence the number of thier _____.
    Receptors
  41. Which type of hormone interaction is the thyroid hormone and reproductive system a part of?
    Permissiveness
  42. What in the endocrine system has both nuetral functions and releases hormones?
    Hypothalmus
  43. Do hormone action on target cells stimulate meiosis OR mitosis?
    Mitosis
  44. Which type of hormones are gonadal and adrenocortical hormones part of?
    Steroids
  45. What are some examples of tissues and organs in the endocrine system that produce hormones?
    • Adipose cells
    • Pockets of cells in walls of small intestine
    • Stomach
    • Kidneys
    • Heart
  46. Do target cells form more receptors to the hormone during up-regulation or down-regulation?
    Up-Regulation
  47. Which type of hormones are leukotrines and prostaglandins a part of?
    Eicosanoids
  48. Which type of hormone interaction is glucagon and epinephrine in release of live glucose and example of?
    Synergism
  49. Hormone action on what stimulates mitosis?
    Target cells
  50. What are long distance chemical signals that travel in the blood and lymph?
    Hormones
  51. Regulatory G proteins are part of which mechanism that hormones alter target cell activity by?
    Second Messengers
  52. Which type of hormone interaction is it between insulin and glucagon an example of?
    Antagonism
  53. Does insulin raise or lower blood sugar levels?
    Lowers
  54. Does glucagon raise or lower blood sugar levels?
    Raise
  55. The interaction between what promts DNA transcription to produce mRNA?
    Steriod hormones that bind to and activate an intracellular receptor
  56. Do target cells lose receptors in response to the hormone during up-regulation or down-regulation?
    Down regulation
  57. mRNA is translated into _____.
    Proteins
  58. Amino-acid based hormones are part of which mechanism that hormones alter target cell activity by?
    Second messengers
  59. When hormones circulate in the blood, are they free or bound?
    Both!
  60. What are blood levels of hormones controlled by?
    Negative Feedback System
  61. What kind of effect occurs when mRNA is translated into proteins?
    Cellular effect (direct gene activation)
  62. What are chemicals that exert effects on the same cells that secrete them?
    Autocrines
  63. Unlike all the others that circulate without carriers, which hormones are attached to plasma proteins?
    • Steriods
    • Thyroid Hormones
  64. Steriod hormones are part of which mechanism that hormones alter target cell activity by?
    Direct gene activation
  65. What are the 3 kinds of stimuli that hormones are synthesized and released in response to?
    • Humoral stimuli
    • Neutral stimuli
    • Hormonal stimuli
  66. Hormones circulate to all tissues by only activate cells known as what?
    Target cells
  67. Which kind of chemical messenger is part of the endocrine system?
    Hormones
  68. What kind of stimuli would the concentration of Ca2+ ions in the blood be an example of?
    Humoral stimuli
  69. Declining blood Ca2+ concentration stimulates the parathyroid glands to secrete _____.
    PTH (parathyroid hormone)
  70. The parathyroid glands secrete PTH when blood Ca2+ levels incline OR decline?
    Decline
  71. Does the release of PTH from the parathyroid glands cause Ca2+ concentrations to rise or decline?
    Rise; once it rises, the humoral stimulus is removed
  72. When blood sugar levels get too high, what puts Ca+ back into the bone?
    Calcitonin
  73. What removes Ca2+ out of the bone and is the antagonist to calcitonin?
    PTH (parathyroid hormone)
  74. In which stimuli that hormones are synthesized and released in response to do nerve fibers stimulate hormone release?
    Neural stimuli
  75. Sympathetic nervous system fibers stimulate the adrenal medulla to secrete _____.
    Catecholamines
  76. What are the 3 catecholamines?
    • Epinephrine
    • Norepinephrine
    • Dopamine
  77. The release of hormones in response to hormones produced by other endocrine organs is part of which stimuli?
    Hormonal stimuli
  78. The hypothalmus secretes hormones that stimulate the anterior pituitary gland to secrete hormones that stimulate other endocrine glands to secrete hormones. This is an ex. of which stimuli?
    Hormonal stimuli
  79. Which system in the body can overide normal endocrine controls?
    The nervous system
  80. Normally, which system in the body controls blood glucose?
    The Endocrine System
  81. Under stress, the body needs more _____.
    Glucose
  82. Under stress, the hypothamlus and sympathetic nervouse system are activated to supply ample glucose. What is this an example of?
    The nervouse sys. overriding normal endocrine controls, because normally, the endocrone sys. maintains blood glucose.
  83. What is the two-lobed organ that secretes 9 major hormones?
    Pituitary gland
  84. What is the infundibulum and the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland called?
    Neurohypophysis
  85. What kind of tissue is the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland made up of?
    Neural tissue (neurological tissue)
  86. Which lobe of the pituitary gland recieves, stores, and releases hormones from the hypothalamus?
    Neurohypophysis (posterior lobe)
  87. Can neurological tissue make hormones?
    No, it just recieves, stores and releases it, cuz its part of the posterior lobe (neurohypophysis) of the pituitary gland.
  88. What is the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland called?
    Adenohypophysis
  89. What kind of tissue is the anterior lobe (adenohypophysis) of the pituitary gland made up of?
    Glandular tissue
  90. Which lobe of the pituitary gland synthesizes and secretes a number of hormones?
    Anterior lobe (Adenohypophysis)
  91. Can glandular tissue make hormones?
    Yes, since the adenohypophysis (anterior lobe of pituitary gland) is made up of it.
  92. Which lobe of the pituitary gland is a downgrowth of hypothalmic neural tissue?
    Posterior lobe
  93. What kind of connection does the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland have with the hypothalmus that is also known as the hypothamlic-hypophyseal tract?
    Neural connection
  94. The nuclei of the hypothamus synthesize (make) which 2 hormones?
    • Oxytocin
    • Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
  95. Which lobe of the pituitary gland are the 2 hormones made by the hypothalmus transported to?
    Posterior lobe (Neurohypophysis)
  96. Which 2 hormones are transported from the hypothalmus to the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland?
    • Oxytocin
    • Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
  97. Which organ are ALL releasing and inhibiting hormones made by?
    Hypothalmus
  98. What are the 6 anterior pituitary hormones?
    • Human Growth Hormone (hGH)
    • Thyroid-stimulating Hormone (TSH) or thryotropin
    • Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)
    • Follicle-stimulating Hormone (FSH)
    • Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
    • Prolactin (PRL)
  99. Are all anterior pituitary hormones proteins?
    YES
  100. Which anterior pituitary hormone is the only ant. hormone that doesn NOT activate cyclic AMP (cAMP) second- messenger systems at thier targets?
    Human Growth Hormone (hGH)
  101. What kind of hormones regulate the secretory action of other endocrine glands?
    Tropic hormones
  102. Which anterior pituitary hormones are all tropic hormones (regulate the secretory action of other endocrine glands)?
    • Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
    • Adrenocoticotropic hormone (ACTH)
    • Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
    • Luteinizing hormone (LH)
  103. The hypothalmus sends a chemical stimulus to which pituitary lobe?
    Adenohypophysis (anterior lobe)
  104. What are the 2 kinds of chemical stimuli the hypothalamus sends to the anterior pituitary?
    • Releasing hormones
    • Inhibiting hormones
  105. Which chemical stimuli released by the hypothalmus to the anterior pituitary, stimulates the synthesis and release of hormones?
    Releasing hormones
  106. Which chemical stimuli released by the hypothalmus to the anterior pituitary, shut off the synthesis and release of hormones?
    Inhibiting hormones
  107. The human growth hormone (hGH) is produced by cells called _____.
    Somatotrophs
  108. The Human Growth Hormone stimulates most cells, but what two things does it target?
    Bone and skeletal muscle
  109. What does the Human Growth Hormone (hGH) promote?
    Protein synthesis
  110. The Human Growth Hormone (hGH) encourages the use of what for fuel?
    Fats
  111. Most effects of the Human Growth Hormone (hGH) are mediated indirectly by what?
    Insulin-like growth factors (IGFs)
  112. What does an Insulin-Like Growth Factor (IGF) Test test?
    Growth Hormone
  113. What hormones regulate the Human Growth Hormone (hGH)?
    Antagonistic hypothalmic hormones
  114. What are the 2 types of antagonistic hypothalmic hormones that regulate Human Growth Hormone (hGH)?
    • Growth hormone-realeasing hormone (GHRH)
    • Growth hormone-inhibiting hormone (GHIH)
  115. Does GHRH or GHIH timulate hHG release?
    GHRH
  116. Does GHRH or GHIH inhibits hGH release?
    GHIH
  117. Is somatostatin a part of GHRH or GHIH?
    Growth hormone inhibiting hormone
  118. GHRH and GHIH are made by which organ?
    The hypothalmus
  119. As a direct action, what 4 things does the Growth Hormone stimulate to produce insulin-like growth factors?
    • Liver
    • Skeletal Muscle
    • Bone
    • Cartilage
  120. As a direct action of the growth hormone, it stimulates the liver, skeletal muscle, bone and cartilage to produce what?
    Insulin-like growth factors
  121. T or F
    The growth hormone mobalizes fats.
    TRUE
  122. Explain the anti-insulin effect of growth hormone.
    Elevates blood glucose levels by decreasing glucose uptake and encouraging glycogen breakdown.
  123. What are the 2 homeostatic imbalances of Growth Hormone?
    • Hypersecretion
    • Hyposecretion
  124. What is the result of Hypersecretion in children?
    Gigantism
  125. What is the result of Hypersecretion in adults?
    Acromegaly (large body parts)
  126. What is the result of Hyposecretion in children?
    Pituitary dwarfism
  127. What is the Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (Thrytropin) produced by?
    Thyrotrophs of the anterior pituitary
  128. The Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (Thrytropin) stimulates normal development and secretory activity of which organ?
    Thyroid
  129. The Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH) is stimulated by which hormone?
    Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
  130. How is the release of the Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (Thrytropin) inhibited?
    By rising blood levels of thyroid hormones that act on the pituitary and hypothalmus
  131. Which antior pituitary hormone is secreted by corticotrophs of the anterior pituitary?
    Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH or Cortcotropin)
  132. Which anterior pituitary hormone stimulates the normal development and secretory activity of the thyroid?
    Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (Thyrotropin)
  133. Which anterior pituitary hormone stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteriods?
    Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH or Cortcotropin)
  134. The Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH or Cortcotropin) stimulates the adrenal cortex to release what?
    Corticosteriods
  135. Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH or Cortcotropin) is triggered by which hormone in a daily rhythm?
    Hypothalmic corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
  136. The Corticotropic-releasing hormone is found in which organ?
    Hypothamlus (Hint: releasing)
  137. Internal and external factors such as fever, hypoglycermia, and stressors can alter the release of which hormone?
    corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
  138. Which 2 anterior pituitary hormoes are referred to as gonadotropins?
    • Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
    • Luteinizing hormone (LH)
  139. Which anterior pituitary hormones are secreted by gonadotrophs of the anterior pituitary?
    Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
  140. Which anterior pituitary hormone stimulates gamete (egg or sperm) production?
    Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
  141. Which anterior pituitary hormone promotes production of gonadal hormones?
    Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
  142. Which anterior pituitary hormones are absent in prepubertal boy and girls?
    FSH and LH (aka Gonadotropins)
  143. Which hormone are gonadotropins triggered by and when?
    Triggered by the gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) during and after puberty
  144. Gonadotropins are suppressed (stopped) by which hormones? (feedback)
    Gonadal hormones
  145. In females, which two anterior pituitary hormones work together to cause maturation of the ovarian follicle?
    Leuteinizing Hormone (LH) and Follicle-stimulating Hormone (FSH)
  146. In females, leutenizing hormone (LH) works with follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) to cause what?
    Maturation of the ovarian follicle
  147. In females, which anterior pituitary hormone works alone to trigger ovulation? (expulsion of the egg from the follicle)
    Leutenizing hormone (LH)
  148. In females, which anterior pituitary hormone promotes synthesis and release of estrogens and progesterone?
    Leuteinizing Hormone (LH)
  149. In males, which anterior pituitary hormone stimulates the interstitial cells of the testes to produce testosterone?
    Leuteinizing Hormone (LH)
  150. In males, the leutenizing hormone stimulates interstial cells of the testes to produce what?
    Testosterone
  151. Which anterior pituitary hormone is secreted by lactotrophs of the anterior pituitary?
    Prolactin (PRL)
  152. Which anterior pituitary hormone stimulates milk production?
    Prolactin (PRL)
  153. Prolactin (PRL) is primarily controlled by which hormone?
    Prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH) (dopamine)
  154. Do blood levels rise towards the beginning or end of preganacy?
    End
  155. After birth, an infant's suckling stimulates the release of which anterior pituitary hormone that will promote continued milk production?
    Prolactin (PRL)
  156. Is the anterior or posterior pituitary made up of axons of the hypothalmic neurons?
    Posterior
  157. Which 2 hormones does the posterior pituitary store?
    • Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
    • Oxytocin
  158. Does the posterior pituitary synthesize oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (AHD)?
    NO, it stores them. The hypothalamus makes them.
  159. Vasopressin also goes byt he name of which hormone?
    Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
  160. Which hormone that is stored in the posterior pituitary influences water balance?
    Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
  161. Which hormone that is stored in the posterior pituitary stimulates smooth muscle contraction in breasts and uterus?
    Oxytocin
  162. Does ADH or oxytocin use PIP-calium second-messenger mechanism?
    BOTH
  163. Which hormone that is found in the posterior pituitary is a strong stimulant of uterine contraction?
    Oxytocin
  164. Is ocytocin in the blood regulated by postive feedback mechanism or negative feedback mechanism?
    Positive feedback mechanism
  165. What happens in women when blood levels of oxytocin rise during labor?
    Leads to increase intensity of uterine contractions, ending in birth
  166. Which hormone of the posterior pituitary triggers milk ejection ("letdown" reflex) in women producing milk?
    Oxytocin
  167. Which hormone of the posterior pituitary plays a role in sexual arousal and orgasm in males and females?
    Oxytocin
  168. Which hormone of the posterior pituitary helps to avoid dehydration or water overload?
    Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
  169. Which hormone of the posterior pituitary prevents urine formation?
    Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
  170. What are hypothalamus neurons that monitor the solute concentration of the blood?
    Osmoreceptors
  171. Does ADH preserve water ith high or low solutes?
    High
  172. When ADH is not released, this causes water loss. Is this with high or low solutes?
    Low
  173. What inhibits ADH release and causes copious urine output?
    Alcohol
  174. Alcohol inbitbits the release of with posterior pituitary hormone, cauing copious urine output?
    ADH
  175. Which syndrome is one result of ADH deficiency and is marked by the output of huge amounts of urine and intense thirst?
    Diabetes Insipidus
  176. Which homeostatic imbalance of ADH occurs after neurosurgery, trauma, or secreted by cancer cells?
    ADH Hypersecretion
  177. Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) is caused by which homeostatic imbalance of ADH, ADH deficency or ADH hypersecretion?
    ADH hyersecretion
  178. Is Diabetes Insipidus caused by ADH deficency or ADH hypersecretion?
    ADH defiency
  179. Is a huge output of urine and intense thirst caused by ADH deficency or ADH hypersecretion?
    ADH deficency
  180. What is the largest endocrine gland?
    Thyroid gland
  181. What is the major metabolic hormone?
    Thyroid hormone
  182. What are the two related iodine-containing compounds the thryoid hormone consists of?
    • T4 Thyroxine (tetraiodothronine)
    • T3 Triiodothryonine
  183. Which iodine-containing compound of the thyroid hormone has 2 tryosine molecules plus 4 bound iodine atoms?
    T4
  184. Which iodine-containing compound of the thyroid hormone has 2 tryosine molecules plus 3bound iodine atoms?
    T3
  185. Which of the two related iodine-containing compounds of the thyroid hormone binds to target receptors? T4 OR T3?
    Both!
  186. Which of the two iodine-cintaining compounds is ten times more active?T4 OR T3?
    T3
  187. What tissues convert T4 to T3?
    Peripheral tissues
  188. Do peripheral tissues convert T3 to T4 OR T4 to T3?
    T4 to T3
  189. Which hormone increases metabolic rate and heat production (calorigenic effect)?
    Thyroid hormone
  190. What are the 4 main roles of the thyroid hormone?
    • Maintenence of blood pressure
    • Regulation of tissue growth
    • Development of skeletal and nervous systems
    • Reproductive capabilities
  191. Rising thyroid hormone level sprovide negative feedback inhibition on the release of which hormone?
    Thyroid stimulating hormone
  192. Does rising or declining thyroid hormone levels provide negative feedback inhibition on release of thyroid-stimulating hormone?
    Rising
  193. Rising thyroid hormone levels provide negative or positive feedback inhibition on the release of the thyroid-stimulating hormone?
    Negative feedback
  194. Which hormone can overcome the negative feedback during pregnancy or exposure to cold?
    Hypothalmic thyrotropin- releasing hormone (TRH)
  195. Hyposecretion of the thyroid hormone in adults can lead to which 3 diseases?
    • Myexedma
    • Hashimoto's Thyroiditis
    • Endemic Goiter
  196. Severe hypothyroidism is a cause of which hyposecretion disease of the thyroid hormone in adults?
    Myxedema
  197. What is an autoimmune disease and the most common cause of hypothyroidism?
    Hashimoto's Thyroiditis
  198. Which disease results in enlargement of the thyroid due to lack of iodine?
    Endemic Goiter
  199. Hyposecretion of the thyroid hormone in infants can lead to which disease?
    Cretinism
  200. What disease results in dwarfed stature and mental retardation?
    Cretinism
  201. Hypersecretion of the thyroid hormone results in which disease?
    Graves' Disease
  202. Which disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism, characterized by goiter (enlarged thyroid) and expothalamos (protuberance of one or both eyes)?
    Graves' disease
  203. What is the peptide hormone produced by the parafollicular cells of the thryoid?
    Calcitonin
  204. Does calcitonin raise or lowers blood calcium levels in children?
    Lowers
  205. What is the antagonist to the parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
    Calcitonin
  206. What targets the skeleton, where it inhibits osteoclast activity (& thus bone resorption) and release of calcium from the bone matrix?
    Calcitonin
  207. What targets the skeleton and stimulates calcium uptake and incorporation into the bone matrix?
    Calcitonin
  208. What is calcitonin regulated by?
    Negative feedback mechanism (calcium ion concentration in the blood)
  209. What are tiny glands (usually 4) embedded in the posterior aspect of the thryoid?
    Parathyroid glands
  210. What hormone do the chief cells of the parathyroid glands secrete?
    Parathyroid hormone
  211. What is the most important hormone in calcium homeostasis?
    Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
  212. Rising calcium in the blood inhibits the release of which hormone?
    Paraythyroid Hormone (PTH)
  213. Which homeostatic imbalance of the PTH results due to a tumor?
    Hyperparathyroidism
  214. Bones soften and deform in hyperparathyroidism or hypoparathyroidism?
    Hyperparathyroidism
  215. Elevated calcium depresses the nervous sys. and contributes to formation of kidney stones in hyperparathyroidism or hypoparathyroidism?
    Hyperparathyroidism
  216. Which homeostatic imbalance of the PTH results following gland trauma or removal?
    Hypoparathyroidism
  217. Does hyperparathyroidism or hypoparathyroidism result in tetany, respiratory paralysis, and death?
    Hypoparathyroidism
  218. What are the paired, pyramid shaped organs atop the kidneys?
    Adrenal (Suprarenal) Glands
  219. Structurally and funtionally, the adrenal glands are 2 glands in one. What are the names of the 2 glands?
    • Adrenal medulla
    • Adrenal cortex
  220. Which gland of the adrenal glands is made up of nervous tissue?
    Adrenal medulla
  221. Which gland of the adrenal glands is part of the sympathetic nervous sys.?
    adrenal medulla
  222. Which gland of the adrenal glands has 3 layers of glandular tissue that synthesize and secrete corticosteroids?
    Adrenal cortex
  223. Which adrenal gland synthesizes and releases steriod hormones called corticosteriods?
    Adrenal cortex
  224. What kind of corticosteriods are produced in the zona glomerulosa (superficial layer of the adrenal cortex)?
    mineralcorticoids
  225. Which corticosteriod in the adrenal cortex is chiefly aldosterone?
    Mineralcorticoids
  226. What kind of corticosteriods are produced in the zona fasciculata (middle later of the adrenal cortex)?
    Glucocorticoids
  227. Which corticosteriod in the adrenal cortex is chiefly cortisol?
    Glucocorticoids
  228. What kind of corticosteriods are produced in the zona reticularis (innermost layer of the adrenal cortex)?
    Gonadocorticoids
  229. Which corticosteriod in the adrenal cortex is chiefly androgens?
    Gonadocorticoids
  230. Which corticosteriod in the adrenal cortex regulate elecrolytes in extracellular fluids?
    Mineralocorticoids
  231. What is the most important mineralocorticoid?
    Aldosterone
  232. What maintains sodium balance by reducing excretion of the sodium from the body?
    Aldosterone
  233. What stimulates reabsorption of sodium by the kidneys?
    Aldosterone
  234. Which homeostatic imbalance involves hypersecretion due to adrenal tumors?
    Aldosteronism
  235. What are two major problems that result from aldosteronism?
    • Hypertension and edema due to excessive Na+
    • Excretion of K+ leading to abnormal funtion of neurons and muscle
  236. How do glucocorticoids help the body resist stress?
    • Keeping blood sugar levelsrelatively constant
    • Maintainging blood volume and preventing water shift into tissue
  237. What is the formation of glucose from noncarbohydrates called?
    Gluconeogenisis
  238. What are the 2 things cortisol provokes?
    • Gluconeogenesis (formation of glucose from noncarbohydrates)
    • Rise in blood glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids
  239. What are the 2 homeostatic imbalances of glucocorticoids?
    • Cushing's syndrome
    • Addison's disease
  240. Which homeostatic imbalances of glucocorticoids is hypersecretory?
    Cushing's syndrome
  241. Which homeostatic imbalances of glucocorticoids is hyposecretory?
    Addison's disease
  242. Which homeostatic imbalances of glucocorticoids depresses cartilage and bone formation?
    Cushing's syndrome
  243. Which homeostatic imbalances of glucocorticoids inhibits inflammation (slowing tissue repair)?
    Cushing's syndrome
  244. Which homeostatic imbalances of glucocorticoids depresses the immune system?
    Cushing's syndrome
  245. Which homeostatic imbalances of glucocorticoids promotes changes in cardiovasular, neural, and gastrointestinal funtion?
    Cushing's syndrome
  246. Which homeostatic imbalances of glucocorticoids also involves deficits in mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)?
    Addison's disease
  247. Which homeostatic imbalances of glucocorticoids results in a decrease in glucose and sodium levels?
    Addison's disease
  248. Which homeostatic imbalances of glucocorticoids results in weight loss, severe dehydration, and hypotension?
    Addison's disease
  249. PTH release increases Ca2+ in the blood as it gives what 3 effects?
    • Stimulates osteoclaststo digest bone matrix
    • Enahances the reabsorption of Ca2+ & secretion of phosphate by the kidneys
    • Increases absorption of Ca2+ by intestinal mucosal
  250. Is the adrenal medulla the inside or the outside of the adrenal glands?
    Inside
  251. Is the adrenal cortex the outer (superficial) or inside of the adrenal glands?
    outside
  252. Is Addison's disease hypersecretion or hyposecretion?
    Hyposecretion
  253. Is Cushing's Syndrome disease hypersecretion or hyposecretion?
    Hypersecretion
  254. In response to stress, the hypothalmus releases which hormone?
    Corticotropin releasing-hormone (or adrenocorticotropic-releasing hormone since they both mean the same thing)
  255. In response to stress the hypothalamus releases corticotropin releasing-hormone (CRH), which causes the anterior pituitary to release which hormone?
    ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone OR corticotropin)
  256. In response to stress the hypothalamus releases corticotropin releasing-hormone (CRH), which causes the anterior pituitary to release ACTH (corticotropin), which causes the release of _____ from the adrenal cortex.
    Cortisol
  257. What are 5 things that prolonged exposure to excess cortisol causes?
    • Reduces inflammation-slowing tissue repair
    • Increases catabolism of proteins- muscle wasting
    • Suppression of the immune system
    • Ulceration of the GI tract
    • Failure of pancreactic beta cells- decrease insulin
  258. What are male sex hormones called?
    Androgens
  259. What are sex hormones called?
    Gonadocorticoids
  260. Most gonadocorticoids are androgens (male sex hormones) that are converted to __1__ in tissue cells or __2__ in females.
    • 1. testosterone
    • 2. estrogens
  261. Which hormones may contribute to the onset of puberty, the appearance of secondary sex characteristics, or sex drive?
    Gonadocorticoids (sex hormones)
  262. In the adrenal medulla, chromaffin cells secrete 80% __1__ and 20% __2__.
    • 1. epinephrine
    • 2. norepinephrine
  263. What are the 4 causes of the hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine secreted by the chromatin cells of the adrenal medulla?
    • Blood glucose levels to rise.
    • Blood vessels to constrict.
    • The heart to beat faster.
    • Blood to be diverted to the brain, heart, and skeletal muscle.
  264. What hormone that is secreted in the adrenal medulla stimulates metabolic activities, bronchial dilation, and blood flow to skeletal muscles and the heart?
    Epinephrine
  265. What hormone that is secreted in the adrenal medulla influences peripheral vasconstriction and blood pressure?
    Norepinephrine
  266. What is the triangluar gland behind the stomach?
    Pancreas
  267. Does the pancreas have exocrine or endocrine cells?
    BOTH
  268. Are the aciner cells in the pancreas exocrine OR endocrine cells?
    exocrine
  269. Which cells in the pancreas produce an enzyme-rich juice for digestion?
    Acinar cells
  270. T or F:
    Roughly 99% of cells produce digestive enzymes
    True
  271. What in the pancrease contain endocrine cells?
    Pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans)
  272. What are the 2 kinds of cells in the pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans)?
    • Alpha cells
    • Beta cells
  273. Which kind of cell in the pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans) produce glucagon (a hyperglycemic hormone)?
    Alpha
  274. Which kind of cell in the pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans) produce insulin (a hypoglycemic hormone)
  275. Is glucagon a hyperglycemic or hypoglycemic hormone?
    hyperglycemic
  276. Is insulin a hyperglycemic or hypoglycemic hormone?
    hypoglycemic
  277. What organ is glucagon's major target?
    Liver
  278. Glucagon promotes what 4 things in the liver?
    • Glycogenolysis
    • Gluconeogenesis
    • Realease of glucose to the blood from liver cells
    • Normal blood levels of glucose (70-100mh/dl)
  279. What is glycogenolysis?
    The breakdown of glycogen to glucose
  280. What is the synthesis of glucose from lactic acid and noncarbohydrates called?
    Gluconeogenesis
  281. What would be considered a normal blood level(s) of glucose?
    70-100 mg/dl
  282. Does insulin raise or lower blood glucose levels?
    lowers
  283. What 2 things does insulin enhance membrane transport of glucose into?
    • fat
    • muscle cells
  284. Which hormone participates in neuronal development, learning, and memory?
    Insulin
  285. Does insulin release or inhibit glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis?
    Inhibits
  286. What are 2 homeostatic imbalances of insulin?
    • Diabetes mellitus (DM)
    • Hyperinsulinism
  287. Which homeostatic imbalance of insulin occurs due to hypersecretion or hyposecretion of insulin?
    Diabetes mellitus (DM)
  288. What are the 3 cardinal signs of Diabetes mellitus (DM)?
    • Polyuria
    • Polydipsia
    • Polyphagia
  289. What is Polyuria and what homeostatic imbalance of insulin is it a part of?
    • huge urine output
    • Diabetes mellitus
  290. What is Polydipsia and what homeostatic imbalance of insulin is it a part of?
    • Excessive thirst
    • Diabetes mellitus
  291. What is Polyphagia and what homeostatic imbalance of insulin is it a part of?
    • Excessive hunger and food consumption.
    • Diabetes mellitus
  292. Which homeostatic imbalance of insulin is due to excessive insulin secretion and results in hypoglycemia, disorientation, and unconsciousness?
    Hyperinsulinism
  293. What are the female gonads?
    Paired overies that produce estrogens and progesterone
  294. What are the 3 things that the female gonads are responsible for?
    • Maturation of the reproductive organs.
    • Appearance of secondary sexual characteristics.
    • Breast development & cyclic changes in the uterine mucosa.
  295. What are the male gonads?
    Testes located in an extra-abdominal sac (scrotum) that produce testosterone
  296. What initiates maturation of male reporductive organs?
    testosterone
  297. What causes appearance of secondary sexual characteristics and sex drive in males?
    testosterone
  298. Is testosterone nercessary for sperm production?
    Yes
  299. What maintains sex organs in thier functional states?
    testosterone
  300. What is the small gland hanging from the roof of the 3rd ventricle of the brain?
    Pineal gland
  301. Pinealocytes are cells found in which gland?
    Pineal gland
  302. Pinealocytes secrete _____, which is derived from serotinin.
    melatonin
  303. What are 3 things melatonin may affect?
    • Timing of sexual maturation and puberty.
    • Day/night cycles (circadian rhythm).
    • Physiological processes that show rhythmic variations (body temp, sleep, appetite).
  304. What is the lobulated gland located deep to the sternum?
    Thymus
  305. What are the 2 major hormonal products of the thymus?
    • Thymopoietins
    • Thymosins
  306. Thymopoietins and thymosins are essential for the developement (maturation) of which cells of the immune system?
    T lymphocytes (T cells)
  307. Which organ produces atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), which reduces blood pressure, blood volume, and blood sodium concentration?
    Heart
  308. What reduces blood pressure, blood volume, and blood sodium and is produced in the heart?
    Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
  309. In which organ do enteroendocrine cells release local-acting digestive hormones?
    Gastrointestinal tract
  310. Which organ releases hormones that influence the course of preganancy?
    Placenta
  311. Which organs secretes erythropoietin, which signals the production of red blood cells?
    Kidneys
  312. What is secreted by the kidneys and signals the production of red blood cells?
    Erythropoietin
  313. Which organ produces cholecalciferol, the precursor of vitamin D?
    Skin
  314. What is produced by the skin and is the precursor of vitamin D?
    Cholecalciferol
  315. What releases leptin, which is involved in the sensation of satiety, and stimulates increased energy expenditure?
    Adipose tissue
  316. What is released by adipose tissue and is involved in the sensation of satiety?
    Leptin
  317. What are some things that can disrupt hormone function?
    Exposure to pesticides, industriaol chemicals, arsenic, dioxin, and soil & water pollutants.
  318. Do growth hormones incline or decline with age?
    decline
  319. Does the thyroid hormone incline or decline with age?
    decline
  320. As the thyroid hormone declines with age, what does this contribute to?
    Lower metabolic rates
  321. Do the parathyroid hormone levels change or are they constant with age?
    Constant
  322. What makes older women more vulnerable to bone-demineralizing effects of the PTH?
    lack of estrogen
  323. What is a fluid connective tissue?
    Blood
  324. What is blood composed of?
    • Plasma
    • Erythocytes
    • Leukocytes
    • Platelets
  325. What are red blood cells called?
    Erythrocytes
  326. What are white blood cells called?
    Leukocytes
  327. What is the percent of blood volume of RBCs for males?
    47% +/- 5%
  328. What is the percent of blood volume of RBCs for females?
    45% +/- 5%
  329. The color of blood varies to which colors?
    Scarlet to dark red
  330. What is the pH of blood?
    7.35-7.45
  331. What is the termperature of blood?
    100.4 F (38 C)
  332. Blood accounts for approx. what % of the body's weight?
    8%
  333. What is the average volume of blood for a male?
    5-6 L (10.6-12.7 pints)
  334. What is the average volume of blood for a female?
    4-5 L (8.5-10.6 pints)
  335. What are the 3 distributive functions of the blood?
    • Distribution to:
    • Oxygen and nutrients to body cells.
    • Metabolic wastes to the lungs and kidneys for elimination.
    • Hormones from endocrine organs to target organs.
  336. What are the 3 regulation functions of the blood?
    • Regulation of:
    • Body temp. by absorbing and distributing heat.
    • Normal pH using buffers.
    • Adequate fluid volume in the circ. sys.
  337. What are the 2 protective functions of the blood?
    • Blood loss
    • Infection
  338. When a blood vessel is damaged, what initiate the clot formation?
    Plasma proteins and platelets
  339. To prevent infections, what 3 things are drifting along in the blood to defend the body against foreign invaders?
    • Antibodies
    • Complement proteins
    • WBCs
  340. What % of blood plasma is water?
    90%
  341. Excluding water, what are the 7 other components of blood plasma?
    • Proteins
    • Nitrogenous bi-products of metabolism (lactic acid, urea, creatinine)
    • Nutrients (glucose, carbohydrates, amino acids).
    • Electrolytes- Na+, K+, Ca2+, Cl-, HCO3_,
    • Respiratory gases- O2, CO2
    • Hormones
  342. What make up the formed elements of the blood?
    • Erythrocytes (RBCs)
    • Leukocytes (WBCs)
    • Platelets
  343. Which of the formed elements of blood are the only ones that are considered to be complete cells?
    Leukocytes (WBCs)
  344. Which of the formed elements of blood do not have a nucleus or organelles?
    Erythrocytes (RBCs)
  345. Which of the formed elements of blood are just cell fragments?
    Platelets
  346. Do most cells of the blood divide?
    NO, most are renewed by cells in bone marrow
  347. Are most blood cells renewed by cells in bone marrow?
    YES
  348. Which of the formed elements of blood are biconcave discs?
    Erythrocytes (RBCs)
  349. Which of the formed elements of blood are anucleuate?
    Erythrocytes (RBCs)
  350. Which of the formed elements of blood do not have organelles?
    Erythrocytes (RBCs)
  351. Which of the formed elements of blood is filled with hemoglobin (Hb)?
    Erythrocytes (RBCs)
  352. What is a protein that functions in gas transport?
    Hemoglobin (Hb)
  353. Which of the formed elements of blood is a perfect example of complementarity of structure and function?
    Erythrocyte (WBCs)
  354. Not counting water, erythrocytes are more than 97% ____.
    Hemogloblin
  355. Do erythrocytes consume the gas they transport?
    No, because ATP is generated anaerobically.
  356. What function/job are RBC dedicated to (main goal)?
    Respiratory gas transport
  357. What protein in the RBCs reversibly binds with oxygen?
    Hemoglobin (Hb)
  358. Most oxygen in the blood is bound to _____.
    Hemoglobin
  359. Hemoglobin is made up of the protein __1__ bound to the red __2__ pigment
    • 1. globin
    • 2. heme
  360. Each heme group bears an atom of __1__, which can bind to one __2__ molecule.
    • 1. iron
    • 2. oxygen
  361. Each heme group bears an atom of iron, which can bind to how many oxygen molecules?
    One
  362. Each hemoglobin molecule can transport how many molecules of oxygen?
    Four
  363. Each hemoglobin molecule can transport 4 molecules of what?
    Oxygen
  364. What is hemoglobin bound to oxygen called?
    Oxyhemoglobin
  365. Where does oxygen loading take place?
    In the lungs
  366. What is the result of hemoglobin after ocygen diffuses into tissues?
    Deoxyhemoglobin
  367. What is also known as reduced hemoglobin?
    Deoxyhemoglobin
  368. What is called/ result of hemoglobin bound to carbon dioxide?
    Carbaminohemoglobin
  369. Where does carbon dioxide loading take place in?
    In the tissues
  370. What is known as blood cell formation?
    Hematopoiesis
  371. Where does hematopoiesis occur?
    • In the red bone marrow of the:
    • Axial skeleton girdles
    • Proximal epiphyses of the humerus and femur
  372. What give rise to all formed elements of the blood?
    Hemocytoblasts (Hematopoietic stem cell)
  373. What is also known as a hematopoietic stem cell?
    Hemocytoblasts
  374. What is red blood cell production called?
    Erythropoiesis
  375. During Erythropoiesis, does the number of red blood cell formation remain constant?
    YES
  376. Erythropoiesis (red blood cell production) reflects a balance between what 2 things?
    RBC production and destruction
  377. What does too few RBCs lead to?
    Tissue hypoxia
  378. What does the formation of too many RBCs cause?
    Undesirable blood viscosity
  379. How is Erythropoiesis (red blood cell production) controlled?
    Hormonally
  380. Erythropoiesis depends on adequate supplies of what 3 things?
    • Iron
    • Amino acids
    • B vitamins
  381. Which hormone direct stimulus for Erythropoiesis?
    Erythropoietin (EPO)
  382. Which hormone is released by the kidneys in response to hypoxia?
    Erythropoietin (EPO)
  383. Erythropoietin is released by the __1__ in response to __2__.
    • 1. kidneys
    • 2. hypoxia
  384. Whhat are the 3 causes of hypoxia?
    • 1. Hemorrhage/ increased RBC destruction reduces RBC #'s.
    • 2. Insufficient hemoglobin (ex: iron deficiency).
    • 3. Reduced availability of Oxygen (ex: high altitudes)
  385. Enhanced erythropoiesis increases what 2 things?
    • RBC count in circulating blood.
    • Oxygen carrying ability of the blood.
  386. What could enhance EPO production, resulting higher RBC counts in males?
    Testosterone
  387. What 6 raw materials are required for erythropoiesis dietary requirements?
    • Proteins, lipds, and carbohydrates.
    • Iron, vitamin B12, folic acid
  388. Which 4 places is iron stored? Which one of these is 65% of it stored in?
    • HB (65%)
    • Liver
    • Spleen
    • Bone marrow
  389. Iron is stored in cells as what 2 things?
    Ferritin and hemosiderin
  390. Iron is transported loosely bound to the protein _____.
    transferrin
  391. What are normal ferratin levels in males?
    24-366 ug/L
  392. What are normal ferratin levels in females?
    11-307 ug/L
  393. What is the life span of an erythrocyte?
    100-120 days
  394. What happens to olf RBCs and thier hemoblobin?
    Old RBCs become rigid and fragil and thier hemoglobin begins to degenerate.
  395. What are dying RBCs engulfed by?
    Macrophages
  396. What happens to the iron when RBCs become old?
    The iron is salvaged for reuse
  397. Which disorder does blood have abnormally low oxygen carrying capacity?
    Anemia
  398. T or F:
    Anemia is a sympton rather than a disease itself.
    True
  399. For someone who is anemic, can thier blood oxygen levels support normal metabolism?
    NO
  400. What are some signs/ symptoms of Anemia?
    fatigue, paleness, shortness of breathe, chills
  401. What are the 3 main causes of Anemia?
    • Insuffienct erythrocytes
    • Low hemoglobin content
    • Abnormal hemoglobin
  402. What are the 3 Anemic disorders that are caused by insufficient erythrocytes?
    • Hemorragic anemia
    • Hemolytic anemia
    • Aplastic anemia
  403. Which anemic disorder that is caused by insufficient eyrthocytes results from acute or chronic loss of blood?
    Hemorragic anemia
  404. Which anemic disorder that is caused by insufficient eyrthocytes occurs when RBCs rupture prematurely?
    Hemolytic anemia
  405. Which anemic disorder that is caused by insufficient eyrthocytes results from the destruction or inhibition of red bone marrow?
    Aplastic anemia
  406. What are the 2 anemic disorders that are caused by low hemoglobin content?
    • Iron-deficiency anemia
    • Pernicious anemia
  407. Which anemic disorder that is caused by low hemoglobin content is a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia?
    Iron-deficiency anemia
  408. Which anemic disorder that is caused by low hemoglobin content results in inadequate intake of iron-containing foods?
    Iron-deficiency anemia
  409. Which anemic disorder that is caused by low hemoglobin content results from impaired iron absorption?
    Iron-deficiency anemia
  410. Which anemic disorder that is caused by low hemoglobin content results from deficiency of vitamin B12?
    Pernicious anemia
  411. Which anemic disorder that is caused by low hemoglobin content results from lack of intristic factor needed for absorption of B12?
    Pernicious anemia
  412. Which anemic disorder that is caused by low hemoglobin content is treated by intramuscular injection of B12 or application of Nascobal (B12 nasal spray) or sublingual B12?
    Pernicious anemia
  413. Which anemic disorder that is caused by abnormal hemoglobin results from an absent or faulty globin chain?
    Thalassemias
  414. Which anemic disorder that is caused by abnormal hemoglobin occurs when RBCs are thin, delicate, and deficient in hemoglobin?
    Thalassemias
  415. Which anemic disorder that is caused by abnormal hemoglobin is most common in people of Mediterranean decent?
    Thalassemias
  416. Which anemic disorder that is caused by abnormal hemoglobin is the most common genetic disorder worldwide?
    Thalassemias
  417. Which anemic disorder that is caused by abnormal hemoglobin has defectiv gene codes for abnormal hemoglobin (HBS)?
    Sickle-cell anemia
  418. How many defective genes does sickle-cell anemia have?
    2
  419. Which anemic disorder that is caused by abnormal hemoglobin causes RBCs to become sickle shaped in low oxygen situiations?
    Sickle-cell anemia
  420. Do sickle cells rupture easily?
    YES
  421. What is one defective gene of sickle cell anemia?
    Sickle cell trait
  422. T or F:
    The sickle cell trait usually does not have any symptoms but can pass it to their children.
    True
  423. The sickle cell trait usually does not have symptoms, but could be passed on to their children. What disease does this trait increase immunity to?
    Malaria
  424. How often does sickle cell anemia occur in African American births?
    1 out of every 500
  425. How often does sickle cell anemia occur in in Hispanic American births?
    1 out of 36,000
  426. What disease results from an abnormal excess of RBCs that increase blood viscosity?
    Polycythemia
  427. What are the 3 main polycythemias?
    • Polycythemia vera
    • Secondary polycythemia
    • Blood doping
  428. Which of the 3 main polycythemias is a bone marrow cancer?
    Polycythemia vera
  429. Which of the 3 main polycythemias results when less oxygen is available or EPOproduction increases?
    Secondary polycythemia
  430. Which of the 3 main polycythemias is normal in individuals living in high altitudes?
    Secondary polycythemia
  431. Which of the 3 main polycythemias is practiced by some athletes competing in aerobic events?
    Blood doping
  432. Which of the 3 main polycythemias results in greater endurance and speed?
    Blood doping
  433. What are the only blood components that are complete cells?
    Leukocytes (WBCs)
  434. What percent of the total blood volume are WBCs?
    1%
  435. Which are more numerous? RBCs or WBCs?
    RBCs
  436. Which kind of blood cells can leave capillaries via diapedesis and move through tissue space?
    WBCs
  437. WBCs can leave capillaries via _____ and move through tissue spaces.
    diapedesis
  438. With the exception of lympocytes, about how long do WBCs live?
    A few days
  439. How long can lymphocytes live?
    Months or years
  440. Does leukopenia increase or decrease in WBCs?
    decrease
  441. A WBC count of over 11,000/ mm3 is made up of what?
    Leukocytosis
  442. What condition is a normal response to bacterial or viral invasion, strenuous excerise, anesthesia, and surgery?
    Leukocytosis (WBC count over 11,000/ mm3)
  443. What are the 3 things granulocytes include?
    • Neutrophils
    • Eosinophils
    • Basophils
  444. Are granulocytes smaller or larger than RBCs?
    larger
  445. Are granulocytes usually shorter or longer-lived than RBCs?
    shorter-lived
  446. Besides being WBCs, what kind of cells are granulocytes?
    Phagocytic cells
  447. What kind of nuclei do granulocytes have?
    Lobed nuclei
  448. Which are the most numerous of the WBCs and are a part of granulocytes?
    Neutrophils
  449. Besides being WBCs and granulocytes, what kind of cells are neutrophils?
    Phagocytic
  450. What do neutrophils respond most quickly to?
    Tissue damage by bacteria
  451. Neutrophils respond most quickly to tissue damage by bacteria by using what 3 things?
    Lysozymes, strong oxidants and definsins
  452. Which WBCs that are a part of granulocytes, lead the body's counterattack against parasitic worms?
    Eosinophils
  453. Which WBCs, that are a part of granulocytes, lessen the severity of allergies by phagocytizing immune complexes?
    Eosinophils
  454. What are the rarest WBCs?
    Basophils
  455. Which WBCs, that are a part of granulocytes, are functionally similar to mast cells?
    Basophils
  456. Which WBCs that are a part of granulocytes, have large, purplish-black granules that contain histamine?
    Basophils
  457. What is an inflammitary chemical that acts as a vasodilator and attracts other WBCs?
    Histamines
  458. What counter the effects of histamines?
    Antihistamines
  459. What are the 2 kinds of agranulocytes?
    • Lymphocytes
    • Monocytes
  460. Which WBCs lack visible cytoplasmic granules?
    Agranulocytes
  461. Which WBCs have spherical or kidney-shaped nuclei?
    Agranulocytes
  462. Where would you find MOST lymphocytes and where would you find a few?
    MOST in lymphoid tissue and a few circulating in the blood.
  463. What are the 2 types of lymphocytes?
    • T cells
    • B cells
  464. Which type of lymphocytes act against virus-infected cells and tumor cells?
    T cells
  465. Which type of lymphocytes give rise to plasma cells, which produce antibodies?
    B cells
  466. Which WBCs are the largest leukocytes?
    Monocytes
  467. Which WBCs leave the circulation, enter tissue, and differentiate into macrophages?
    Monocytes
  468. Are macrophages highly mobile and avtively phagocytic?
    YES
  469. What activate lymphocytes to mount an immune response?
    Macrophages
  470. What is known as the production of WBCs?
    Leukopoiesis
  471. What is referred to as a cancerous condition involving WBCs?
    Leukemia
  472. Leukemias are named according to the abnormal WBCs involved. What are the 2 different kinds of these abnormal WBCs?
    • Myelocytic leukemia
    • Lumphocytic leukemia
  473. Which of the 2 different kinds of leukemia involve myeloblasts?
    Myelocytic leukemia
  474. Which of the 2 different kinds of leukemia involve lymphocytes?
    Lymphocytic leukemia
  475. Does chronic or acute leukemia involve blast-type cells?
    Acute
  476. Does chronic or acute leukemia primarily affect children?
    Acute
  477. Is chronic or acute leukemia more prevalent in older people?
    Chronic
  478. What is found in the blood stream of all leukemias?
    Immature WBCs
  479. In leukemia, bone marrow becomes totally occupied with cancerous _____.
    leukocytes
  480. Are the numerous of WBCs produced in leukemia functional?
    NO, they are not functional
  481. What causes death in leukemia?
    Internal hemmorrhage or overwhelming infections.
  482. What are some treatments for leukemia?
    • Irradiation
    • Antileukemic drugs
    • Bone marrow transplants
  483. What is another word for platelets?
    thrombocytes
  484. What are platelets fragments of?
    megakaryocytes
  485. What are fragments of megakaryocytes?
    Platelets
  486. Platelets funtion in the _____ mechanism by forming a temporary plug that helps seal breaks in blood vessels.
    clotting
  487. Whats the life-span of a platelet?
    5-9 days
  488. What are 2 kinds of stem cell transplants?
    • Bone marrow transplant
    • Cord-blood transplant
  489. In a bone marrow transplant, a recipient's red bone marrow is replaced entirely by healthy, noncancerous cells to establish what?
    normal blood cell counts
  490. In a bone marrow transplant, how long does it take to begin producing enough WBCs to fight off infections?
    2-3 weeks
  491. Which disease is caused by transplanted bone marrow that may produce T cells that attack host tissue?
    Graft-verses-host-disease
  492. Which of the 2 Stem cell transplants is more likely to cause Graft-versus-host-disease?
    Bone marrow transplant
  493. Ina  cord-blood transplant, where are stem cells obtained from and when?
    From the umbilical cord shortly before birth.
  494. Are stem cells for a cord-blood transplant easily obtained and can be stored indefinitely?
    YES
  495. Which of the 2 Stem cell transplants is more less to cause Graft-versus-host-disease?
    Cord-blood transplant
  496. What is a series of reactions for stoppage of bleeding?
    Hemostasis
  497. During hemostasis, what are the 3 phases that occur in rapid sequence?
    • 1. Vascular spasm (immediate vasconstriction in response to injury)
    • 2. Platelet plug formation
    • 3. Coagulation (blood clotting)
  498. During hemostasis, do platelets stick to eachother?
    NO, they stick to collagen
  499. During hemostasis, do platelets stick to blood vessels?
    NO, they stick to collagen
  500. The platelet plug is limited to the immediate area of injury by _____.
    prostacyclin (a prostaglandin)
  501. What are the 3 phases of coagulation?
    • 1. Prothombin activator is formed (intristic and intristic pathways)
    • 2. Prothombin is converted into thrombin.
    • 3. Thrombin catalyzes the joining of fibrinogen to form a fibrin mesh.
  502. What are the 2 steps after hemostasis occurs?
    • 1. Clot retraction- stabalization of the clot by platelet contraction-squeezing serum from the fibrin strands, compacting the clot.
    • 2. Repair
  503. Which hemostasis disorder results from a clot that develops and persists in an unbroken blood vessel?
    Thrombus
  504. In Thrombus, thrombi can block circulation, resulting in what?
    Thrombus
  505. What disease results from thrombus in the blood vessel of the heart?
    Coronary thrombosis
  506. Which hemostasis disorder results from a thrombus freely floating in the blood stream?
    Embolus
  507. Which kind of Embolus can impair the ability of the body to obtain oxygen? Pulmonary or cerebral?
    Pulmonary emboli
  508. Which kind of Embolus can cause strokes? Pulmonary or cerebral?
    Cerebral
  509. What kind of substance that is used to prevent undesirable clots is an anticoagulant that is used clinically for pre and postoperative cardiac care?
    Heparin
  510. What kind of substance that is used to prevent undesirable clots is used for those prone to atrial fibrillation?
    Warfarin
  511. What are 3 substances used to prevent undesirable clots?
    • Aspirin
    • Heparin
    • Warfarin
  512. Which hemostasis disorder results in widespread clotting in intact blood vessels?
    Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
  513. In the hemostasis disorder, Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC), can residual blood clot?
    NO
  514. In the hemostasis disorder, Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC), what follows after when residual blood cannot clot?
    Blockage of blood flow and severe bleeding.
  515. What are 2 things Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is most common as?
    • A complication of pregancy.
    • A result of septicemia or incompatible blood transfusion.
  516. What hemostasis disorder (bleeding disorder) is a condition where the number of circulating platelets is deficient?
    Thrombocytopenia
  517. Do to spontaneous, widespread hemorrage, what do patients with Thrombocytopenia show?
    Petechia (small purple blotches on skin)
  518. Which hemostasis disorder (bleeding disorder) is caused by suppression or destruction of bone marrow (malignancy, radiation)?
    Thrombocytopenia
  519. In the diagnosis for Thrombocytopenia, what is the number of platelet counts?
    less than 50,000/ mm3
  520. Which hemostasis disorder is treated with transfusion of concentrated platelets?
    Thrombocytopenia
  521. Which kind of bleeding disorder has an inability to synthesize procoagulants?
    Impaired liver function
  522. Which bleeding disorder causes include vitamin K deficiency, hepatitis, and cirrhosis?
    Impaired liver function
  523. Which bleeding disorder can prevent the liver from producing bile, impairing fat and vitamin K absorption?
    Impaired liver function
  524. Hemophilias include several similar hereditary bleeding disorders. Which one is the most common type (77% of all cases)?
    Hemophilia A
  525. Hemophilias include several similar hereditary bleeding disorders. Which one is due to a deficiency of factor VIII?
    Hemophilia A
  526. Hemophilias include several similar hereditary bleeding disorders. Which one is due to defienciency of factor IX?
    Hemophilia B
  527. Hemophilias include several similar hereditary bleeding disorders. Which is the mild type?
    Hemophilia C
  528. Hemophilias include several similar hereditary bleeding disorders. Which one is due to deficiency of factor XI?
    Hemophilia C
  529. Which bleeding disorder has symptoms that include prolonged bleeding, especially into joint cavities?
    Hemophilias
  530. Which bleeding disorder is treated with plasma transfusions and injection of missing factors?
    Hemophilias
  531. When are whole-blood transfusions used?
    When blood loss is substantial
  532. What are packed red cells (plasma removed) in blood transfusions used to do?
    Restore oxygen-carrying capacity
  533. Can a blood transfusion of incompatible blood be fatal?
    YES
  534. What do RBC membranes have on thier external surfaces?
    glycoprotein antigens
  535. What is the presence or absence of the glycoprotein antigens used to classify?
    blood groups
  536. Are glycoprotein antigens unique to the individual?
    YES
  537. Are glycoprotein antigens recognized as foreign if transfused into another individual?
    YES
  538. What are promoters of agglutination (clumping of cells) referred to as?
    Agglutinogens
  539. Which blood group consists of 2 antigens on the surface of the RBCs and 2 antibodies in the plasma?
    ABO blood groups
  540. What are the 2 antigens in the ABO blood groups?
    A and B
  541. What are the 2 antibodies in the plasma of the ABO blood group?
    anti-A and anti-B
  542. Do ABO blood groups have various types of antigens and preformed antibodies?
    YES
  543. Agglutinogens and thier corresponding antibodies cannot be mized without serious _____ reactions.
    hemolytic
  544. What is the presence of the Rh agglutinogens on RBCs indicated as?
    Rh+
  545. Are anti-Rh antibodies spontaneously formed in Rh- individuals?
    NO, if an Rh- indvidual recieves Rh+ blood, anti-Rh antibodies form.
  546. If an Rh–individual receives Rh+ blood, what forms?
    anti-Rh antibodies forms
  547. What will a second exposure to Rh+blood result in?
    A typical tranfusion reaction
  548. What is the hemolytic disease of the newborn known as?
    erythroblastosis fetalis
  549. In which disease do Rh+ antibodies of a sensitized Rh– mother cross the placenta and attack and destroy the RBCs of an Rh+ baby
    erythroblastosis fetalis
  550. In the hemolytic newborn diease, erythroblastosis fetalis, when the Rh- mother become sensitized when exposure to Rh+ blood, what does it cause her body to synthesize?
    Rh+ antibodies
  551. What drug can prevent the Rh- mother to be sensitized in the hemolytic diease erythroblastosis fetalis?
    RhoGAM
  552. What does treatmentof hemolytic disease of the newborn involve?
    pre-birth transfusions and exchange transfusions after birth
  553. When do transfusion reactions occur?
    when mismatched blood is fused
  554. When donor cells are attacked by therecipient’s plasma agglutinins, what 4 things does it cause?
    • Diminished oxygen-carrying capacity
    • Clumped cells that impede blood flow.
    • Ruptured RBCs that release free hemoglobin into the bloodstream.
    • Circulating hemoglobin precipitates in the kidneys and causes renal failure.
  555. Your heart is approx. the size of what?
    Your fist
  556. The heart is in the superior surface of the _____.
    diaphragm
  557. Is the heart right or left of the midline?
    left
  558. Anterior or Posterior:
    The heart is __1__ to the vertebral column and __2__ to the sternum.
    • 1. anterior
    • 2. posterior
  559. What is the double walled sac around the heart called?
    Pericardium
  560.  pericardium composed of?
    • A superficial fibrous pericardium
    • A deep two-layer serous pericardium
  561. Which layer of the pericardium potects, anchors, and prevents overfilling of the heart?
    Superficial fiberous pericardium
  562. What 2 layers is the deep two-layer serous pericardium composed of?
    • Parietal layer
    • Visceral layer (epicardium)
  563. Which of the two layers of the deep two-layer serous pericardium, lines the internal surface of the fibrous pericardium?
    Parietal layer
  564. Which of the two layers of the deep two-layer serous pericardium, lines the surface of the heart?
    Visceral layer (epicardium)
  565. What are the parietal and visceral (epicardial) layers of the serous pericardium seperated by to deacrease friction?
    fluid filled pericardial cavity
  566. What is the visceral layer of the serous pericardium called?
    Epicardium
  567. What is the cardiac muscle layer forming the bulk of the heart called?
    Myocardium
  568. What % of the heart is cardiac muscle?
    95%
  569. What is the endothelial layer of the inner myocardial surface called?
    Endocardium
  570. What are the 3 layers of the heart wall?
    • Epicardium
    • Myocardium
    • Endocardium
  571. How many chambers does the heart have?
    4
  572. How many atria are in the heart and what are they seperated by?
    2; seperated internally by the interatrial septum
  573. Are the 2 atria in the heart seperated internally or externally by the interatrial septum?
    Internally
  574. What encircles the junction of the atria and ventricles of the heart?
    Coronary sulcus (atrioventricular groove)
  575. How many ventricles does the heart have?
    2
  576. What are the ventricles of the heart seperated by?
    the interventricular septum
  577. What externally mark the postion of the interventricular septum?
    Anterior and posterior interventricular sulci (grooves)
  578. What are known as the receiving chambers in the heart?
    Atria
  579. The walls of the atria are ridged by _____ muscles.
    pectinate
  580. Which vessels enter from the right atrium?
    • Superior vena cava
    • Inferior vena cava
    • Coronary sinus
  581. Which vessels enter from the left atrium?
    Right and left pulmonary veins.
  582. What are known as the discharging chambers of the heart?
    Ventricles
  583. The walls of the ventricles are ridged by what?
    trabeculae carneae
  584. In the ventricles, _____ mucles project into the ventricular cavities
  585. Which vessel leaves the right ventricle?
    Pulumonary trunk
  586. Which vessel leaves the left ventricle?
    Aorta
  587. How many side-by-side pumps is the heart?
    2
  588. Which side is the pump for the pulmonary circuit in the heart?
    Right
  589. Vessels that carry blood to and from the lungs are from which pump and which circuit?
    Right side and pulmonary circuit
  590. Which side is the pump for the systemic circuit in the heart?
    Left side
  591. Vessels that carry blood to and from the all body tissues are from which pump and which circuit?
    Left side and systemic circuit
  592. Does the right or the left ventricle of the heart have thicker and stronger myocardium?
    Left ventricle
  593. What is the pathway of the blood through the heart from the right atrium to the right ventricle?
    Right atrium --> tricuspid valve --> right ventricle
  594. What is the pathway of the blood through the heart from the right ventricle to the lungs?
    Right ventricle --> pulmonary semilunar valve --> pulmonary trunk --> pulmonary arteries --> lungs
  595. What is the pathway of the blood from the lungs to the left atrium?
    lungs --> pulmonary veins --> left atrium
  596. What is the pathway of the blood from the left ventricle to the aorta?
    Left ventricle --> aortic  semilunar valve --> aorta
  597. The pathway of the blood goes through which pathway before it goes through the systemic circulation?
    Aorta
  598. What is known as the functional blood supply t the heart muscle itself?
    Coronary circulation
  599. What are the 3 main structures of coronary circulation?
    • Coronary arteries
    • Coronary capillaries
    • Coronary veins
  600. Which of the 3 main structures of coronary circulation branch from the ascending aorta?
    Coronary arteries
  601. Which of the 3 main structures of coronary circulation collects in the coronary sinus?
    Coronary veins
  602. Do coronary veins empty into the right or the left atrium?
    RIGHT
  603. Thoracic pain caused by a fleeting deficiency in blood delivery to the myocardium is a characteristic of which homeostatic imbalance?
    Angina pectoris
  604. What happens to the cells in the homeostatic imbalance, Angina pectoris?
    Cells are weakened
  605. Which homeostatic imbalance is caused by prolonged coronary blockage?
    Myocardial infarction (heart attack)
  606. What is another name for heart attack?
    Myocardial infarction
  607. In a myocardial infarction, what are areas of the cell death repaired with?
    Noncontractile scar tissue
  608. What ensure unidirectional blood flow through the heart?
    Heart valves
  609. Which heart valves lie between the atria and the ventricles?
    Atrioventricular (AV) valves
  610. Which atrioventricular (AV) valve is the tricuspid valve? Right or left?
    Right AV
  611. Which atrioventricular (AV) valve is the mitral and bicuspid valve? Right or left?
    Left AV
  612. Which heart valves prevent backflow into the atria when ventricles contract?
    Atrioventricular (AV) valves 
  613. __1__ muscles contract, tightening the __2__ to close the AV valves.
    • 1. Papillary
    • 2. Chordae tendinae
  614. The papillary muscles contract tightening chordae tendinae to clode the AV valves. What does this help prevent?
    Regurgitation
  615. Which heart valve lies between the left ventricle and the aorta?
    Aortic semilunar valve
  616. Which heart valve lies between the right ventricle and pulmonary trunk?
    Pulmonary semilunar valve
  617. What do the semilunar valves of the blood help prevent?
    backflow of blood into the ventricles
  618. When do heart valves open?
    When pressure in ventricle exceeds pressure in arteries.
  619. Are there any valves guarding the entrance to the atria?
    NO
  620. True or False:
    Cardiac muscle is striated.
    True
  621. Is cardiac muscle voluntary or involuntary?
    Involuntary
  622. In the heart muscle, what anchor cardiac cells together and allow free passage of ions?
    Intercalated discs
  623. What does the heart muscle behave as?
    functional syncytium
  624. Does the functional syncytium in the heart muscle behave as a single coordinated unit?
    YES
  625. Is depolarization of the heart rhythmic and spontaneous?
    YES
  626. About 1% of cardiac cells are self- excitable, meaning they have _____.
    Automaticity
  627. What is it called when something can initiate their own depolarization and the rest of the heart as well?
    Automaticity
  628. Does the heart muscle contract s a unit or in parts?
    Contracts as a unit
  629. Does the heart muscle have a short or long absolute refractory period?
    Long (250 ms)
  630. What other muscle contraction is cardiac muscle contraction similar to?
    skeletal muscle
  631. At what rate do sinoatrial (SA) nodes (pacemaker) generate impulses?
    75 times/ minute (sinus rhythm)
  632. In which area that takes place in sequence of excitation does the heart depolarizes faster than any other part of the myocardium?
    Sinoatrial (SA) node (pacemaker)
  633. Autorhythmic cells that play a role in the sequence of excitation are found in which 5 areas?
    • Sinoatrial node
    • Atrioventricular (AV) node
    • Atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of His)
    • Right and Left Bundle Branches
    • Purkinje fibers
  634. Which of the 5 areas that play a role in the sequence of excitation is the impulse delayed for about 0.1 seconds?
    Atrioventricular (AV) node
  635. In the atrioventricular node, a delay impulse of approx. _____ second(s) allows the atria to respond and complete contraction before the ventricles contract.
    0.1 second
  636. Which of the 5 areas that play a role in the sequence of excitation is only electricle connection between the atria and ventricles?
    Atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of His)
  637. Which of the 5 areas that play a role in the sequence of excitation is made up of 2 pathways in the interventricular septum that carry impulses towrad the apex of the heart?
    Right and left bundle branches
  638. Which of the 5 areas that play a role in the sequence of excitation complete the pathway into the apex and ventricular walls?
    Purkinje fibers
  639. Which 2 homeostatic imbalances can defects in the intrinstic conduction system may result in?
    • Arrhythmias
    • Fibrillation
  640. Which homeostatic imbalance results from irregular heart rhythms and uncoordinated atrial and ventricular contractions?
    Arrhythmias
  641. Which homeostatic imbalance results from rapid, irregular contractions and is useless for pumping blood?
    Fibrillation
  642. Is Fibrillation useful for pumping blood?
    NO
  643. A defective sinoatrial (SA) node may result in which homeostatic imbalance?
    Ectopic focus
  644. Which homeostatic imbalance occurs when an abnormal pacemaker takes over?
    Ectopic focus
  645. What will happen if an atrioventricular (AV) node takes over in the homeostatic imbalnce, Ectopic Focus?
    there will be a junctional rhythm (40-60 bpm)
  646. A defective atrioventricular (AV) node may result in which homeostatic imbalance?
    Partial or total heart block
  647. In a heart block, how many sinoatrial (SA) nodes reach the ventricle?
    Few or no impulses
  648. What center is the heart stimulated by?
    The sympathetic cardioacceleratory center
  649. What center is the heart inhibited by?
    Parasympathetic cardioinhibitory center
  650. Electrical avtivity in the heart is recorded by what?
    an electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG)
  651. An electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG) has 3 waves (or deflections), What are 3 waves?
    • P wave
    • QRS complex
    • T wave
  652. Which of the 3 waves of an EKG results from the depolarization of the sinoatrial (SA) node?
    P wave
  653. Which of the 3 waves of an EKG results from ventricular depolarization?
    QRS complex
  654. Is atrial repolarization masked by the smaller or large QRS complex?
    larger
  655. Which of the 3 waves of an EKG results from ventricular repolarization?
    T wave
  656. What are heart sounds (lub dub) associated with?
    Closing of heart valves
  657. Do the first heart sounds occur when the AV valves open or close?
    close
  658. The first heart sounds occur as atrioventricular (AV) valves close and signify the beginning of which cardiac cycle?
    Systole
  659. Do the first sounds of the heart occur when the AV valves or the SL valves close?
    AV valves
  660. Do the seccond heart sounds occur when the AV valves or the SL valves close?
    SL valves
  661. The second heart sounds occur when SL valves open or close?
    Close
  662. The second heart sounds occur when SL valves close at the beginning of which ventricular cardiac cycle?
    Diastole
  663. What could result in abnormal heart sounds that are most often indicative of valve problems?
    Heart murmurs
  664. What are all events of the cardiac cycle associated with?
    Blood flow through the heart
  665. Which cardiac cycle is the contraction of heart muscle?
    Systole
  666. Which cardiac cycle is the relaxation of the heart muscle?
    Diastole
  667. What is known as the volume of blood pumped by each ventricle in one minute?
    Cardiac Output (CO)
  668. What is the product of heart rate (HR) and stroke volume (SV)?
    Cardiac Output (CO)
  669. Cardiac Output (CO) is the product of what 2 things?
    Heart rate (HR) and Stroke Volume (SV)
  670. What is the number of heart beats per minute called?
    Heart rate (HR)
  671. What is known as the amount of blood pumped out by a ventricle with each beat?
    Stroke volume (SV)
  672. What is known as the difference between resting and maximal cardiac output (CO)?
    Cardiac reserve
  673. ? = End diastolic volume (EDV) - End systolic volume (ESV)
    Stroke volume (SV)
  674. What is known as the amount of blood collected in a ventricle during diastole?
    End diastolic volume (EDV)
  675. What is known as the amount of blood remaining in a ventricle after contraction?
    End systolic volume (ESV)
  676. What are the 3 main factors that affect stroke volume?
    • Preload
    • Contractility
    • Afterload
  677. Which one of the 3 factors that affect stroke volume (SV) is known as the amount ventricles are stretched by contained blood?
    Preload
  678. Which one of the 3 factors that affect stroke volume (SV) is the cardiac cell contractile force due to factors other than End Diastolic Volume (EDV)?
    Contractility
  679. Which one of the 3 factors that affect stroke volume (SV) is the back pressure exerted by blood in the large arteries leaving the heart?
    Afterload
  680. The more the heart heart fills with blood during diastole, the greater the force of contraction during systole. What is this law called?
    Frank-Starling law of the heart
  681. During regulation of stroke volume, which of the 3 main factors that affect the stroke volume is the degree of stretch of cardiac muscle cells before they contract?
    Preload
  682. Does slow heartbeat and excersize increase or decrease venous return?
    increase
  683. Does increased venous return stretch (distend) or compress the ventricles?
    Distend (stretch)
  684. Does increased venous return increase or decrease contraction force?
    Increases
  685. Does blood loss and extremely rapid heartbeat increase or decrease stroke volume?
    decrease
  686. During regulation of stroke volume, which of the 3 main factors that affect the stroke volume is defined as the contractile strength achieved at a given muscle length (independent of muscle stretch and EDV)
    Contractility
  687. What are 3 factors that increase contractility of the heart (positive inotropic agents)?
    • Increased sympathetic stimuli
    • Certain hormones (thyroxin, glucagon, norepinephrine, epinephrine)
    • Ca2+ and some drugs

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