L1 Instructor Self Test Part 5 Airworthiness.txt

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Spenhar
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169240
Filename:
L1 Instructor Self Test Part 5 Airworthiness.txt
Updated:
2012-09-06 08:30:00
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Gliding Instructor Airworthiness
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L1 Instructor Airworthiness
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  1. Which document indicates that the glider is legally able to fly and where would that document be found?
    The Maintenance Release, which is required to be carried in each glider
  2. When you have found the maintenance release prior to a DI, what particular points do you check within it?
    That it is within its validity period, there are no defects which prevent the glider flying, that there is no outstanding maintenance to be performed
  3. What must be in the maintenance release before a glider can legally fly?
    Signed GFA Form 1 (Daily Inspection record, combined with the Maintenance Release document) showing that a Daily Inspection has been done
  4. Who is entitled to carry out the training of pilots to hold Daily Inspector authorisations?
    Any instructor of Level 1 or higher rating or any person with suitable airworthiness qualifications
  5. Who is entitled to examine pilots who have been trained as Daily Inspectors and how is such authority obtained?
    Any person holding Form 2 or higher airworthiness authority automatically holds DI Examiner authority. Any instructor (or other suitable person) holding DI authority may be recommended by the club's Airworthiness Officer to the RTO/Airworthiness of that region to hold DI Examiner authority
  6. What are the purposes of a Daily Inspection?
    1. check for fair wear and tear, 2. check for unservicabilities or sudden deterioration, 3. check for unreported damage, 4. check for correct rigging and safety locking, 5. check for loose items, 6. check for known and recorded minor defects
  7. Give five examples of wear and tear
    Wear on cables; lack of lubrication; dirt in control circuit, free play in hinges, fatigue/corrosion, cracking, frayed harnesses
  8. Give five examples of unservicabilities
    Broken release spring; water in pitot/static system; instrument/radio failure; flat tyre; failed component in a control circuit
  9. Give five possible causes of unreported damage
    Inflight overload; heavy landing; ground loop; hanger rash, outlanding damage; ground towing damage
  10. What is meant by "semi-monocoque" construction and what are the implications of finding surface damage on such a structure?
    A structure in which approximately 50% of the loads are taken by the surface skin. Any surface damage in such a structure is potentially serious and must be reported
  11. What are the three loads imposed on a glider wing?
    Lifting, twisting and drag loads
  12. What would you look for when checking a glider known to have had a heavy landing?
    Bent axle, wrinkling or splitting around undercarriage area, damage in wing-root area (caused by sudden forward loads), damage to wing trailing edges (caused by sudden downloads), damage to tail unit (caused by the glider hitting nose-first, then the tail slamming down hard)
  13. What is the purpose of the "D-box" of a wing?
    To take the torsional loads
  14. What are the main things to check for when inspecting a tow-release mechanism?
    No excessive wear or grooving of the "beak" of the hook, no broken springs in either the main or (if fitted) the back-release
  15. Would it be acceptable to fly a glider on aerotow if you found that the back-release mechanism had been prevented from working in some way, e.g. split-pin or tape?
    Yes, a back-releasing hook is not a requirement for aerotowing
  16. What are the colour-coding requirements for glider ancillary controls?
    Airbrakes - blue; trim - green; release - yellow, canopy jettison - red. Note: on newer gliders canopy opening handles may be white with a red edging on them if they serve double duty as jettison handles
  17. How would you check the integrity of a control system on a Daily Inspection?
    By having an assistant hold the surface and trying to move the stick or rudder pedals against him/her
  18. What is the generally accepted amount of free play allowed on a glider control surface?
    2.5% of the chord of the control surface
  19. What is the difference between Indicated Air Speed (IAS) and True Air Speed (TAS)?
    IAS is the speed shown on the ASI at any given time. TAS is the speed shown on the ASI, corrected for air density at the rate of approximately 1.5% per 1,000 feet of altitude gained
  20. Define "Empty weight"
    The weight of the glider, in flying condition, without pilot, parachute or removable ballast;
  21. Define "Gross weight"
    The maximum permitted flying weight of the glider
  22. Define "CG range"
    The range of movement of the centre of gravity at various load combinations
  23. What are the consequences of flying a glider outside the aft CG limit?
    Pitch stability will be degraded (possibly significantly). May be impossible to trim to a safe speed. May be impossible to recover from a spin.
  24. Is it permissible to fly a glider outside the aft CG limit?
  25. It is not permissible to knowingly fly a glider outside its aft CG limit, although it could happen accidentally (eg jettison water-ballast in the wings, but cannot jettison water-ballast in the fin
  26. What is the purpose of the weak link in a launching cable or rope?
    To protect the glider against overstressing during the launch
  27. Define "flutter"
    An oscillation of a control surface or surfaces, which can cause an excitation of the main surfaces (wing, tailplane, etc) of a glider.
  28. Name four likely causes of flutter
    1. Excessive free play in the control surface, 2. Incorrect or loose mass-balance weights 3. Loss of control circuit stiffness (eg slack cables, broken control-rod supports) 4. Flying too fast, usually at high altitudes
  29. Name three reasons for carrying out a walk-round inspection before each flight
    1. Check for heavy landing damage, 2. Check for in-flight overstressing from the previous flight, 3. Check for damage accumulated during the day's operations
  30. What is meant by the expressions Vne, Vra, Va Vt and Vw?
    Vne: never-exceed speed in smooth air, Vra: never-exceed speed in rough air, Va: manoeuvre speed, above which no more than one third movement of aileron and rudder are permitted and elevator must be used so as to keep within permissible G limits, Vt: maximum permitted aerotow speed, Vw: maximum permitted winch/auto launch speed
  31. Referring to the manoeuvre envelope in the Airworthiness chapter of Basic Gliding Knowledge, what are the consequences of pulling hard back on the stick at a speed somewhere between Va and Vne?
    "Pulling hard back" implies a control input which would contravene the requirement to apply elevator at such a rate as to keep G forces within limits. The consequences are therefore likely to be damage to, or failure of, the structure.
  32. What is Vdf?
    Vdf is "velocity, demonstrated flight". This is the maximum speed at which the glider is tested for certification purposes. Vdf is 5% higher than Vne, but lower than the theoretical structural limit (non-tested) of Vd. Vdf is a test figure and must not under any circumstances be used as a flight limit in routine service

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