Caring for the Adult Test 1 Study Guide

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MarieRN
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Caring for the Adult Test 1 Study Guide
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2012-09-10 22:29:11
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Caring Adult
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Chapters 11, 13, 32-34
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  1. Which system shows only a slight decline with age?
    a.       Renal system
    b.      Central nervous system
    c.       Respiratory system
    d.      Cardiovascular system
    b
  2. A frequent concern of older adults is:
    a.       long-term memory loss.
    b.      creativity loss.
    c.       short-term memory loss.
    d.      judgment loss.
    c
  3. A frequent respiratory complaint of older adults is:
    a.       orthostatic hypotension.
    b.      inability to breathe.
    c.       increased respirations.
    d.      exertional dyspnea.
    d
  4. Standard components of respiratory care for the older adult include:
    a.       coughing and deep-breathing exercises and range-of-motion exercises to facilitate lung expansion.
    b.      frequent ambulation and auscultation of lungs.
    c.       intake and output and postural drainage exercises.
    d.      deep-breathing exercises and positioning to facilitate lung expansion and gas exchange.
    d
  5. With increasing age, a person's reduced tolerance for physical work may be due to the decreased:
    a.       number of neurons in the brain.
    b.      capacity of heart cells to utilize oxygen.
    c.       size of the heart.
    d.      resistance to blood flow in many organs.
    b
  6. Which change occurs in aging kidneys?
    a.       Decreased filtration rate
    b.      Increased extracellular fluid
    c.       Increased cell mass
    d.      Decreased residual urine
    a
  7. An age change that occurs due to loss of oils in the skin is:
    a.       infection.
    b.      itching.
    c.       wrinkles.
    d.      brown spots.
    b
  8. The leading cause of disability in old age is:
    a.       urinary tract infection.
    b.      macular degeneration
    c.       pressure ulcers.
    d.      arthritis.
    d
  9. The curvature of the thoracic spine that causes a bent-over appearance in sole older adults is:
    a.       kyphosis.
    b.      arthritis.
    c.       scoliosis.
    d.      lordosis.
    a
  10. The term for hearing loss associated with age is:
    a.       tinnitus.
    b.      ototoxicity.
    c.       presbyopia.
    d.      presbycusis.
    d
  11. What percentage of older adults are hearing-impaired?
    a.       10%
    b.      25%
    c.       50%
    d.      75%
    b
  12. The leading cause of new cases of blindness in older people is age-related:
    a.       glaucoma.
    b.      cataracts.
    c.       corneal abrasion.
    d.      macular degeneration.
    d
  13. Which of the following is a normal aging change?
    a.       Decreased secretion of saliva
    b.      Increased acidity of saliva
    c.       Increased peristalsis
    d.      Decreased gastric emptying
    d
  14. The developmental challenge in old age is to:
    a.       develop close relations with other people; to learn and experience love.
    b.      find a vocation or hobby where the individual can help others or in some way contribute to society.
    c.       establish trusting relationships with other people.
    d.      review life and gain a feeling of accomplishment or fulfillment.
    d
  15. For effective gerontological care, the crucial basis for deciding care needs is:
    a.       medical diagnosis.
    b.      functional assessment.
    c.       activities of daily living.
    d.      community resources.
    b
  16. Progressive slowing of responses and reflexes in older adults is due to:
    a.       decreased impulse conduction speed.
    b.      loss of neurons in the brain.
    c.       inadequate tissue oxygenation.
    d.      atherosclerosis and decreased cellular respiration.
    a
  17. A stressor, such as illness, may impair the older person's ability to compensate, resulting in:
    a.       disorientation.
    b.      hypotension.
    c.       loss of brain neurons.
    d.      sedation.
    a
  18. A 74-year-old man with cirrhosis is admitted to the hospital, and he has started taking a diuretic. Which age-related change may result in decreased drug clearance in this patient?
    a.       Increased body fat
    b.      Decreased body water
    c.       Decreased hepatic blood flow
    d.      Decreased serum albumin
    c
  19. Because older adults have a decreased number and sensitivity of sensory receptors and neurons, they should:
    a.       avoid temperature extremes and accomplish tasks at a slower pace.
    b.      do deep-breathing exercises and positioning to facilitate lung expansion.
    c.       use mnemonics and rehearsal memory training to improve memory performance.
    d.      use assistive devices for walking and preventing falls.
    a
  20. The nurse is taking care of a 70-year old patient whose blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg. What is an age-related cause of this blood pressure?
    a.       Decreased neurons and conduction speed at synapses
    b.      Decreased baroreceptor reflexes and inelasticity of vessel walls
    c.       Chronic hypoxic state of the brain
    d.      Decreased heart rate and stroke volume
    b
  21. The nurse is taking care of a 75-year-old patient whose resting cardiac output has fallen 40%. What is an explanation for this finding?
    a.       Decreases in filtration and plasma flow rate
    b.      Increased valvular rigidity
    c.       Incomplete closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves
    d.      Decreased heart rate and stroke volume
    d
  22. A chronic hypoxic state of the brain in older persons may result in:
    a.       Difficulty remembering planned events for the day.
    b.      slow responses.
    c.       decrease in creativity.
    d.      inability to learn new material.
    a
  23. An antigen that causes a hypersensitive reaction
    allergen
  24. A protein that is created in response to a specific antigen
    antibody
  25. Vegetable-like organisms that feed on organic matter and are capable of producing disease
    fungi
  26. A substance, usually a protein, that is capable of stimulating a response from the immune system
    antigen
  27. One-celled organisms capable of multiplying rapidly and causing illness
    bacteria
  28. Infectious microorganisms that can live and reproduce only within living cells; capable of causing illness, inflammation, and cell destruction
    viruses
  29. Microorganisms that are resistant to one or more classes of antimicrobial agents
    multi-drug resistant organisms
  30. Limiting the spread of microorganisms; often called clean technique
    medical asepsis
  31. Elimination of microorganisms from any object that comes in contact with the patient; often called sterile technique
    surgical asepsis
  32. Nonspecific immune response that occurs in response to bodily injury; condition in which the body is invaded by infectious organisms that multiply, causing injury and inflammatory response
    inflammation
  33. Hospital-acquired infections (infections that were not present  at the time of admission)
    health care-associated infection
  34. Presence of an infectious organism on a body surface or an object
    contamination
  35. A condition in which the body is invaded by infectious organisms that multiply, causing injury.
    infection
  36. A condition in which the body is unable to distinguish self from non-self, causing the immune system to react and destroy its own tissues
    autoimunity
  37. Illness caused by infectious organisms or their toxins that can be transmitted, either directly or indirectly, from one person to another
    comunicable disease
  38. Condition in which the immune system is unable to defend the body against organisms
    immunodeficiency
  39. Resistance to or protection from a disease
    immunity
  40. Place the six factors of chain of infection in sequence.
    a.       Portal of entry
    b.      Reservoir
    c.      Susceptible host
    d.      Mode of transmission
    e.      Portal of exit
    f.       Causation agent
    • f
    • b
    • e
    • d
    • a
    • c
  41. What type of precaution is needed for rubeola (measles), varicella (chicken pox), and tuberculosis?
    airborne precautions
  42. What type of precaution is needed for mumps, influenza, rubella, and diphtheria (pharyngeal)?
    droplet precautions
  43. What type of precaution is needed for scabies, impetigo, and varicella (chicken pox)?
    contact precautions
  44. What does diabetes mellitus type 1 target?
    pancreas
  45. What does Addison's disease target?
    adrenal gland
  46. What does multiple Sclerosis target?
    brain and spinal cord
  47. What does myasthenia gravis target?
    neuromuscular junction
  48. What does Rheumatic fever target?
    heart
  49. What does ulcerative colitis target?
    colon
  50. What does Crohn's disease target?
    ileum
  51. What does rheumatoid arthritis target?
    joints
  52. What does autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura target?
    platelets
  53. Prostaglandins, histamine, and leukotrienes are examples of:
    a.       hormonal factors.
    b.      chemical mediators.
    c.       erythrocytes.
    d.      thrombocytes.
    b
  54. A hormone produced by the adrenal cortex that is anti-inflammatory is:
    a.       epinephrine.
    b.      cortisol.
    c.       aldosterone.
    d.      thyroxine.
    b
  55. Cells that are produced to clean up inflammatory debris are called:
    a.       fibroblasts.
    b.      platelets.
    c.       neutrophils.
    d.      macrophages.
    c
  56. Which of the following is a sign of local infection?
    a.       Fever
    b.      Chills
    c.       Warm skin
    d.      Pale skin
    c
  57. Many childhood illnesses such as measles and chickenpox and some forms of hepatitis are caused by:
    a.       viruses.
    b.      bacteria.
    c.       protozoa.
    d.      fungi.
    a
  58. It is seldom possible to kill viruses because:
    a.       replication of the virus occurs within the host cell.
    b.      the cell wall can be destroyed with drugs.
    c.       the cell wall requires oxygen for functions.
    d.      the host cell is separate from the virus.
    a
  59. Ringworm (tinea corporis) and athlete's foot (tinea pedis) are examples of disease caused by:
    a.       bacteria.
    b.      viruses.
    c.       fungi.
    d.      protozoa.
    e.      Patients with emphysema
    c
  60. The overgrowth of a second microorganism that can cause illness following antibiotic therapy for one microorganism is called:
    a.       thrombophlebitis.
    b.      superinfection.
    c.       sexually transmitted infection.
    d.      septicemia.
    b
  61. The most basic and effective method of preventing cross-contamination is:
    a.       hand hygiene.
    b.      antibiotics.
    c.       isolation.
    d.      use of gown and gloves.
    a
  62. The primary cause of health care-associated infections is:
    a.       soiled hands.
    b.      faulty equipment.
    c.       airborne droplets.
    d.      open wounds.
    a
  63. The elimination of microorganisms from any object that comes in contact with the patient is called:
    a.       medical asepsis.
    b.      clean technique.
    c.       isolation technique.
    d.      surgical asepsis.
    d
  64. How much fluid is required by patients with infection?
    a.       1 liter/day
    b.      2 liters/day
    c.       5 liters/day
    d.      10 liters/day
    b
  65. Patient teaching for people undergoing hyperbaric oxygen therapy includes:
    a.       do not take aspirin 1 week before.
    b.      do not wear watches.
    c.      swallow first to prevent pressure buildup.
    d.       wear everyday clothes.
    c
  66. An advantage of home health care for infected patients is that the patient is:
    a.       exposed to fewer health care-associated infections.
    b.      not capable of spreading infections to others.
    c.       not susceptible to poorly prepared food.
    d.      vulnerable to poor hygiene.
    a
  67. Which type of precaution is used to treat methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infections?
    a.       Airborne
    b.      Droplet
    c.       Respiratory
    d.      Contact
    d
  68. People with generalized infections become dehydrated because of:
    a.       poor skin turgor and dry mouth.
    b.      dry mucous membranes and decreased metabolism.
    c.       inflammation and pain.
    d.      fever and anorexia.
    d
  69. A diet recommended for patients with infection is:
    a.       low sodium.
    b.      high fiber.
    c.       high protein.
    d.      low potassium.
    c
  70. A common side effect of broad-spectrum antibiotics is:
    a.       superinfection.
    b.      hemorrhage.
    c.       hypotension.
    d.      hypokalemia.
    a
  71. Food-borne illness is a common community-acquired infectious disease often caused by:
    a.       pseudomonas.
    b.      diphtheria.
    c.       streptococcus.
    d.      salmonella.
    d
  72. What percentage of the U.S. population suffers from allergies of some sort?
    a.       Under 5%
    b.      20-25%
    c.       40-45%
    d.      50-75%
    b
  73. Antigens that cause hypersensitivity reactions are called:
    a.       antibodies.
    b.      complement.
    c.       allergens.
    d.      interferon.
    c
  74. Allergy testing is performed by injecting small amounts of allergen:
    a.       intradermally.
    b.      intramuscularly.
    c.       intravenously.
    d.      interstitially.
    a
  75. A 36-year-old female has multiple sclerosis. Which tissues and organs are affected?
    a.       Heart and kidney tissue
    b.      White matter of brain and spinal cord
    c.       Lung tissue and liver cells
    d.      Spleen tissue and thymus gland
    b
  76. It is now necessary to give two or more drugs to tuberculosis patients because:
    a.       they prolong the effects of each drug.
    b.      they potentiate the effect of each drug.
    c.       strains of bacteria resistant to drugs have developed.
    d.      more people are susceptible to tuberculosis.
    c
  77. A common protozoal infection that occurs as an opportunistic infection in persons who are HIV-positive is:
    a.       pneumocystic pneumonia.
    b.      Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
    c.       thrush.
    d.      conjunctivitis.
    a
  78. Any items that have been touched or cross-contaminated by the host, such as bed linens or side rails, are:
    a.       vectors.
    b.      common vehicles.
    c.       pathogens.
    d.      fomites.
    d
  79. Person with type AB-positive blood who can receive transfusions with any type of blood because all of the common antigens (A, B, and RH) are present in the blood.
    universal recipient
  80. A purplish skin lesion resulting from blood leaking outside the blood vessels
    ecchymosis
  81. A reduction in the number of red blood cells or in the quantity of hemoglobin
    anemia
  82. A small (1-3 mm) red or reddish-purple spot on the skin resulting from blood capillaries breaking and leaking small amounts of blood into the tissues
    petechia
  83. A primary function of the hematologic system
    oxygenation
  84. Person with type O-negative blood who can donate blood to anyone because none of the common antigens are present in the blood
    universal donor
  85. Changes in blood pressure and pulse as person moves from lying to sitting to standing positions
    orthostatic vital sign changes
  86. Red or reddish-purple skin lesion 3 mm or more in size that results from blood leaking outside of the blood vessels
    purpura
  87. Control of bleeding
    hemostasis
  88. Results from complete failure of bone marrow
    aplastic anemia
  89. Occurs when a person does not absorb vitamin B12 from the stomach
    pernicious anemia
  90. A genetic disease carried on a recessive gene
    sickle cell anemia
  91. Results from diet low in iron or inability of the body to absorb enough iron from GI tract
    iron deficiency anemia
  92. Causes include cancer chemotherapy and radiation
    thrombocytopenia
  93. Secondary disorder to another pathologic process, such as sepsis, shock, burns, or obstetric complications
    disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
  94. Hyper-coagulable state with thrombosis and hemorrhage
    disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
  95. Genetic disease in which a person lacks blood-clotting factors normally found in the plasma
    hemophilia
  96. May be caused by drugs (such as streptomycin and chloramphenicol) and exposure to toxic chemicals and radiation
    aplastic anemia
  97. Symptoms include weakness, sore tongue, and numbness of hands or feet
    pernicious anemia
  98. Misshapen red blood cells become fragile and rupture easily
    sickle cell anemia
  99. Which drug(s) replaces iron?
    Ferrous sulfate and Iron dextran
  100. Which drug stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells?
    epoietin alfa
  101. Which drug is an intramuscular injection that must be given every month for the rest of the person's life, if the patient has pernicious anemia?
    Vitamin B12
  102. What drug may be given intravenous or subcutaneous injection and the patient is usually treated three times per week until the hematocrit is 30-33?
    Iron dextran
  103. A condition in which there are too many blood cells is called:
    a.       pernicious anemia.
    b.      aplastic anemia.
    c.       hemolytic anemia.
    d.      polycythemia vera.
    d
  104. The treatment for autoimmune hemolytic anemia is:
    a.       vitamin B12 injections.
    b.      a ferrous sulfate and high-iron diet.
    c.       an iron dextran and high-carbohydrate diet.
    d.      corticosteroids and blood transfusions.
    d
  105. The treatment for aplastic anemia is:
    a.       vitamin B12 injections.
    b.      a ferrous sulfate and high-iron diet.
    c.       an iron dextran and high-carbohydrate diet.
    d.      transfusions, antibiotics, and corticosteroids.
    d
  106. Treatment for sickle cell crisis includes:
    a.       a ferrous sulfate and high-iron diet.
    b.      an iron dextran and high-carbohydrate diet.
    c.       aggressive intravenous hydration and IV morphine.
    d.      corticosteroids and platelet transfusions.
    c
  107. For each unit of packed RBCs transfused, the patient's hemoglobin should increase approximately:
    a.       10 g/dl
    b.      5 g/dl
    c.       3 g/dl
    d.      1 g/dl
    d
  108. Red or reddish-purple spots 3 mm or larger that are the result of blood vessels breaking are:
    a.       petechiae.
    b.      purpura.
    c.       ecchymoses.
    d.      nodes.
    b
  109. Patients with low red blood cell counts may have:
    a.       bradycardia.
    b.      hypotension.
    c.       bleeding problems.
    d.      tachycardia.
    d
  110. Once blood is picked up from the blood bank, the transfusion should be started within:
    a.       5 minutes.
    b.      20 minutes.
    c.       30 minutes.
    d.      2 hours.
    c
  111. Platelets are generally administered when a patient's platelet count drops below:
    a.       10,000/mm3
    b.      15,000/mm3
    c.       20,000/mm3
    d.      300,000/mm3
    c
  112. If platelets are ordered before a procedure such as a lumbar puncture or endoscopy to prevent post procedure bleeding, the platelets should be administered:
    a.       1 week before the procedure.
    b.      1 day before the procedure.
    c.       6 hours before the procedure.
    d.      immediately before the procedure.
    d
  113. The treatment for hemophilia is:
    a.       plasma and cryoprecipitate transfusions.
    b.      red blood cell transfusions and antibiotics.
    c.       white blood cell transfusions and potassium.
    d.      platelet and anticoagulant transfusions.
    a
  114. Symptoms of thrombocytopenia include:
    a.       fatigue and pallor.
    b.      petechiae and purpura.
    c.       nausea and vomiting.
    d.      tachycardia and palpitations.
    b
  115. Treatment for thrombocytopenia in a cancer patients receiving chemotherapy or radiation therapy includes:
    a.       red blood cell transfusions and iron.
    b.      white blood cell transfusions and antibiotics.
    c.       platelet transfusions.
    d.      cryoprecipitate transfusions and anticonvulsants.
    c
  116. The condition in which a person has too few platelets circulating in the blood is called:
    a.       leukemia.
    b.      anemia.
    c.       lymphoma.
    d.      thrombocytopenia.
    d
  117. Four types of blood transfusion reactions include hemolytic, circulatory overload, febrile, and:
    a.       thrombocytopenic.
    b.      anaphylactic.
    c.       anemic.
    d.      leukopenic.
    b
  118. Feverfew, garlic, and ginkgo are herbs that affect:
    a.       wound healing.
    b.      blood clotting.
    c.       resistance to infection.
    d.      kidney function.
    b
  119. What is the role of the spleen related to the hematologic system?
    a.       Produces platelets
    b.      Manufactures clotting factors
    c.       Removes old blood cells from circulation
    d.      synthesizes vitamins
    c
  120. How many liters of blood circulating through the body does a health adult have?
    a.       2 liters
    b.      6 liters
    c.       10 liters
    d.      24 liters
    b
  121. What is the most common site for a bone marrow biopsy?
    a.       Posterior iliac crest
    b.      Sternum
    c.       Femur
    d.      Tibia
    a
  122. What is a term used to describe the series of events that occur in the process of blood clotting?
    a.       Anticoagulation
    b.      Hemostasis
    c.       Hemolysis
    d.      Coagulation cascade
    d
  123. If a patient with anemia is orthostatic and tilt-positive, which should be increased?
    a.       Carbohydrates
    b.      Fiber
    c.       Fluids
    d.      Vitamins
    c
  124. Resistance to or protection from a disease
    immunity
  125. Certain white blood cells (neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages) that engulf and destroy invading pathogens, dead cells, and cellular debris.
    phagocytes
  126. Class of fatty acids that regulates vasodilation, temperature elevation, white blood cell activation, and other physiologic processes
    eicosanoid
  127. Freely circulating Y-shaped antigen-binding protein produced by B lymphocytes and plasma cells.
    antibody
  128. Disease-causing microorganisms
    pathogen
  129. A substance, usually a protein, that is capable of stimulating a response from the immune system
    antigen
  130. Defensive system that is operational at all times, consisting of anatomic and physiologic barriers, the inflammatory response, and the ability of certain cells to phagocytose invaders
    innate immunity
  131. Defensive response by TC cells aimed at intracellular defects such as viruses and cancer
    cell-mediated immunity
  132. Antibody-mediated or cell-mediated response that is specific to a particular pathogen and is activated when needed.
    acquired immunity
  133. Defensive response by B cells assisted by TH cells, aimed at invading microorganisms such as bacteria
    antibody-mediated immunity
  134. Membrane-bound, Y-shaped binding protein produced by B lymphocytes; called antibody when released from the cell membrane
    immunoglobulin
  135. Actions taken to help protect patients with low white blood cell counts from infection
    compromised host precautions
  136. Cancer of the white blood cells in which the bone marrow produces too many immature white blood cells.
    leukemia
  137. What is the function of lymph nodes?
    Act(s) as filter to remove microorganisms from the lymph fluid before it returns to the blood
  138. What is the function of bone marrow?
    Produce(s) white blood cells
  139. What is the function of the spleen?
    Filter(s) and destroy(s) microorganisms in the blood
  140. What is the function of the thymus?
    Participate(s) in the maturation of T lymphocytes
  141. Called macrophages when they enter tissue; powerful phagocytes
    monocytes
  142. Initiate inflammatory response; circulate in blood and release histamine
    basophils
  143. Fight bacterial infections; most numerous type of the white blood cells
    neutrophils
  144. Combat parasitic infections; associated with allergies
    eosinophils
  145. Manufacture immunoglobulins and stimulate the production of antibodies
    B lymphocytes
  146. Store histamine; located in body tissues
    mast cells
  147. Secrete cytokines, facilitating body's immune system
    T lymphocytes
  148. Process of ingesting and digesting invading pathogens, dead cells, and cellular debris
    phagocytosis
  149. Process of self-recognition that occurs as part of normal neonatal growth and development
    tolerance
  150. Response initiated with IgM immunoglobulins on the surface of B lymphocytes detect a foreign antigen
    antibody-mediated immunity
  151. System activated only when needed in response to a specific antigen; can be antibody-mediated or cell-mediated
    acquired immunity
  152. Response aimed at intracellular defects caused by viruses and cancer; responsible for delayed hypersensitivity reactions and transplant organ tissue rejection
    cell-mediated immunity
  153. System that consists of anatomic and physiologic barriers, inflammatory response, and action of phagocytic cells
    innate immunity
  154. Defense systems present at birth
    innate immunity
  155. Defense systems specific to a particular pathogen
    innate immunity
  156. Immunity responsible for delayed hypersensitivity reactions
    cell-mediated immunity
  157. Immunity aimed at invading microorganisms such as bacteria
    antibody-mediated immunity
  158. The body's defense network against infection is the:
    a.       cardiovascular system.
    b.      respiratory system.
    c.       immune system.
    d.      circulatory system.
    c
  159. Which filters microorganisms from the lymph fluid before it is returned to the bloodstream?
    a.       Thymus
    b.      Bone marrow
    c.       Spleen
    d.      Lymph node
    d
  160. The body's first line of defense is:
    a.       skin and inflammation.
    b.      phagocytosis and kidney.
    c.       blood vessels and kidney.
    d.      skin and mucous membranes.
    d
  161. Which is responsible for delayed hypersensitivity reactions and rejection of transplanted tissue?
    a.       Humoral immunity
    b.      Interferon immunity
    c.       Cell-mediated immunity
    d.      Antibody-mediated immunity
    c
  162. The most numerous white blood cells are the:
    a.       neutrophils.
    b.      basophils.
    c.       lymphocytes.
    d.      eosinophils.
    a
  163. A class of fatty acids that regulates vasodilation, temperature elevation, white blood cell activation, and other immune processes includes:
    a.       cytokines.
    b.      eicosanoids.
    c.       lymphocytes.
    d.      neutrophils.
    b
  164. Substances that make the antigen more recognizable to neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages are:
    a.       eicosanoids.
    b.      eosinophils.
    c.       antibodies.
    d.      cytokines.
    c
  165. When there is a breakdown of tolerance, what types of diseases occur?
    a.       Autoimmune
    b.      Viral
    c.       Bacterial
    d.      Cancers
    a
  166. The body's ability to determine self from non-self is called:
    a.       tolerance.
    b.      phagocytosis.
    c.       immunity.
    d.      inflammation.
    a
  167. A "shift to the left" on a CBC indicates that more than 60% of white blood cells are:
    a.       lymphocytes.
    b.      basophils.
    c.       eosinophils.
    d.      neutrophils.
    d
  168. A blood test that detects antibodies present in the blood that may indicate autoimmune disorders is:
    a.       complete blood count (CBC).
    b.      Western blot test.
    c.       antinuclear antibody test.
    d.      T cell counts.
    c
  169. Which diagnostic procedure is done to detect and identify microorganisms in blood?
    a.       Western blot
    b.      Viral load
    c.       Complete blood count (CBC)
    d.      Blood culture
    d
  170. The function of colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) is to simulate the:
    a.       bone marrow to produce more blood cells.
    b.      heart to increase the force of contraction.
    c.       kidney to promote the reabsorption of water.
    d.      bronchi of the lung to dilate.
    a
  171. A condition that puts a patient at increased risk of infection is:
    a.       anemia.
    b.      thrombocytopenia.
    c.       eosinophilia.
    d.      neutropenia.
    d
  172. A cancer of the white blood cells in which the bone marrow produces too many immature WBCs is:
    a.       Hodgkin's disease.
    b.      non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.
    c.       leukemia.
    d.      multiple myeloma.
    c
  173. The reason pus may not be seen even though infection is present in a patient with leukemia is that patients with leukemia do not have normal:
    a.       platelets.
    b.      red blood cells.
    c.       white blood cells.
    d.      cytokines.
    c
  174. When a patient's absolute neutrophil count falls below 1000/mm3, what precautions are instituted?
    a.       Enteric precautions
    b.      Droplet precautions
    c.       Compromised host precautions
    d.      Transmission-based precautions
    c
  175. What minimizes the chance of the recipient's immune system attacking the transplanted organ?
    a.       Administration of steroids
    b.      Tissue matching of donor to recipient
    c.       Administration of antibiotics
    d.      Administration of platelets
    b
  176. Exaggerated immune responses that are uncomfortable and potentially harmful are:
    a.       hypersensitivity reactions.
    b.      bacterial lung infections.
    c.       tachycardic reactions.
    d.      peripheral neuropathy reactions.
    a
  177. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with acute leukemia?
    a.       Fatigue
    b.      Imbalanced nutrition
    c.       Risk for injury
    d.      Ineffective self health management
    c
  178. Which change in vital signs may indicate sepsis, a common complication of leukemia?
    a.       Tachycardia
    b.      Dyspnea
    c.       Hypertension
    d.      Decreased temperature
    a
  179. A common finding in patients with leukemia is a hematocrit below 30 g/dl and hemoglobin below 10 g/dl, indication a condition of:
    a.       anemia.
    b.      thrombocytopenia.
    c.       leukopenia.
    d.      sepsis.
    a
  180. What presents the greatest risk to patients with leukemia?
    a.       Hemorrhage
    b.      Anemia
    c.       Infection
    d.      Fatigue
    c
  181. Medication that interferes with the maturation of viral particles.
    Protease inhibitor
  182. Disease that is now viewed less as a fatal illness than as a manageable chronic condition.
    AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome)
  183. Medication regimen or a combination of drugs that is recommended when the viral load reaches certain levels.
    HAART (Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy)
  184. Retrovirus that causes AIDS.
    HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus)
  185. People become infected by ingesting contaminated, undercooked meats or vegetables.
    toxoplasmosis
  186. Main symptom is severe, persistent, water diarrhea.
    cryptosporidiosis
  187. Second leading cause of death among AIDS patients.
    Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
  188. Occurs in about 80% of HIV patients.
    candidiasis
  189. Mainly transmitted by blood and body fluids through unprotected sex.
    cytomegaloviruse
  190. Infection starts with primary outbreak, then latency and possible reactivation later.
    herpes simplex
  191. Fungal infection with symptom of thrush.
    candidiasis
  192. Symptoms include shortness of breath upon exertion, fever, and a nonproductive cough.
    Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
  193. What is the leading cause of death in people with AIDS?
    a.       Kaposi sarcoma
    b.      Malnutrition
    c.       Pneumonia
    d.      Encephalopathy
    c
  194. About how long after infection does the body produce enough antibodies to be detected by standard HIV testing?
    a.       2-3 days
    b.      2 week
    c.       12 weeks
    d.      6 months
    c
  195. Which substances remain at high levels throughout the course of HIV infection?
    a.       HIV antibodies
    b.      CD8 cells
    c.       CD4 cells
    d.      Red blood cells
    a
  196. Antiviral medications are given to patients with HIV infection to:
    a.       prevent viral replication and destroy infected cells.
    b.      destroy viral cells that are infected.
    c.       slow viral replication and progression.
    d.      destroy bacteria and prevent infection.
    c
  197. Which test for HIV infection is the most reliable diagnostic test?
    a.       ELISA
    b.      Western Blot
    c.       CD4 count
    d.      CD8 count
    b
  198. How many newly diagnosed HIV infections occur annually in the United States?
    a.       20,000
    b.      40,000
    c.       100,000
    d.      540,000
    b
  199. Which drug is used to treat opportunistic fungal infections in people with HIV infection?
    a.       AZT
    b.      Retrovir
    c.       Amphotericin B
    d.      Bactrim
    c
  200. Which opportunistic infection is treated with Bactrim and Pentamidine?
    a.       Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
    b.      Candidiasis
    c.       Histoplasmosis
    d.      Cytomegalovirus
    a
  201. What is the usually combination of drugs for HIV patients who are started on the medication regimen called HAART?
    a.       Antimicrobials and protease inhibitor
    b.      NRTIs and protease inhibitor
    c.       NRTIs and NNRTIs
    d.      Antimyoctics and NNRTIs
    b
  202. What is the most serious problem with HAART therapy?
    a.       Resistance
    b.      Hypolipidemia
    c.       Renal failure
    d.      Infection
    a
  203. What type of cells does HIV gradually destroy that are essential for resisting pathogens?
    a.       Neutrophils
    b.      T4 cells
    c.       B cells
    d.      Eosinophils
    b
  204. HIV is passed from person to person primarily through:
    a.       air droplet contact.
    b.      hand-to-mouth contact.
    c.       exposure to bodily fluids.
    d.      mouth-to-mouth contact.
    c
  205. The leading cause of death in people with AIDS is:
    a.       herpes zoster.
    b.      dermatitis.
    c.       pneumonia.
    d.      Kaposi sarcoma.
    c
  206. For many women, one of the first symptoms of HIV infection is:
    a.       vaginal candidiasis.
    b.      burning on urination.
    c.       menstrual irregularities.
    d.      hemorrhoids.
    a
  207. A type of skin cancer that has dramatically increased as a result of AIDS is:
    a.       Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia.
    b.      melanoma.
    c.       Kaposi sarcoma.
    d.      venereal warts.
    c
  208. The medical treatment of HIV infection includes the use of zidovudine (AZT, Retrovir), which is given to:
    a.       cure AIDS.
    b.      prevent transmission to sexual partners.
    c.       treat the secondary infections of AIDS.
    d.      slow the progress of AIDS.
    d
  209. Drugs such as clindamycin, Pentamidine, and Bactrim are used to:
    a.       prevent or treat opportunistic infections.
    b.      slow the progress of AIDS.
    c.       decrease the dermatitis associated with AIDS.
    d.      increase T4 lymphocytes.
    a
  210. The risk of transmission of HIV increases with:
    a.       donating blood.
    b.      unprotected sex.
    c.       hugging and kissing.
    d.      using restrooms.
    b
  211. The transmission of HIV can occur through:
    a.       saliva.
    b.      sweat.
    c.       urine.
    d.      blood.
    d
  212. The patient with AIDS is at high risk for opportunistic infections because of:
    a.       altered skin integrity.
    b.      increased HIV antibodies.
    c.       decreased CD4 cells.
    d.      fatigue.
    c
  213. Patients with AIDS may have disturbed thought processes due to:
    a.       anxiety.
    b.      dementia.
    c.       anemia.
    d.      brain damage.
    b
  214. As the number of CD4 cell counts decreases, the patient becomes increasingly susceptible to:
    a.       myelosuppresion.
    b.      anemia.
    c.       tuberculosis.
    d.      opportunistic infections.
    c
  215. Which tissue can be infected by HIV?
    a.       Pancreas
    b.      Stomach
    c.       Kidney
    d.      Lymph nodes
    d
  216. What is one of the major reasons for noncompliance among patients receiving HAART therapy?
    a.       Muscle weakness
    b.      Nightmares
    c.       Gastrointestinal upset
    d.      Hypersensitivity reactions
    c
  217. The best way to prevent transmission of HIV is to:
    a.       use condoms during all sexual contact.
    b.      wash hands thoroughly following contact with HIV-positive people.
    c.       avoid risky behaviors.
    d.      get plenty of rest and eat a nutritious diet.
    c

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